JAALAS 2011 No. 4 Flashcards

1
Q

T/F An obtained P value of less than 0.005 in an experiment means there is an 80% chance that an exact replication will be significant at the 0.05-level.

A

True

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2
Q

Independent replications that are conducted identically may not have identical results, if:

a. Subtle and uncontrolled but critical differences existed between procedures
b. The first experiment may have been a type I error
c. The second experiment may have been a type II error
d. All of the above

A

D

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3
Q

Which of the following statements is false?

a. Type I error is when rejection of the null hypothesis when it is true.
b. The fixed-stopping rule is based on a set of probabilities with the assumption the researcher will conduct more than one test.
c. An a priori power analysis is a formal means of communicating information across disciplinary boundaries about the anticipated effect sizes and necessary sample sizes.
d. Type II error is when one fails to discover a significant effect when the null hypothesis is false.

A

B

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4
Q

Wheel-running behavior in rats has been shown to cause cardiac functional and structural changes in:

a. Adults
b. Growing rats
c. None of the above

A

C

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5
Q

Rat models of impaired cardiac structure and function include:

a. Doxorubicin administration
b. Ischemia-reperfusion injury models
c. Goldblatt model of hypertension
d. SHR strain (spontaneously hypertensive rat)
e. All of the above

A

E

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6
Q

Myocardial degeneration frequently affects aged SD rats. All of the following are characteristics of this lesion except ____.

a. Interstitial fibrosis
b. Mononuclear cell infiltration
c. Often associated with cardiac insufficiency
d. Most often affects the left ventricle

A

C

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7
Q

Fructosamine provides a more consistent assessment of glycemic control than does blood glucose alone for the following reason(s):

a. It represents a snapshot in time and is not affected by stress or other illness.
b. It represents an average blood glucose level for the 2 to 3 weeks preceding sample collection
c. It is unaffected by recent food intake thus eliminating the need for pre-sample fasting
d. a and b
e. b and c

A

e. a is not true because it represents 2 to 3 weeks, not a snapshot like a single blood glucose

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8
Q

Early diagnosis and clinical management of DM in NHPs can be complicated by the following:

a. Polyphagia, polydipsia and polyuria may go unnoticed based on husbandry practices
b. Obtaining urine samples to test for glucosuria can be difficult
c. Hyperglycemia is an inconsistent finding and not specific to DM
d. All of the above
e. a and c

A

D

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9
Q

T or F: Fructosamine is formed by the attachment of glucose to serum albumin and therefore affected by blood loss.

A

False. It is not affected by blood loss.

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10
Q
  1. Define multimodal analgesia
A
  1. Multimodal analgesia is the practice of using 2 or more analgesic agents of different classes to enhance analgesia while reducing individual dosages and/or minimizing negative side effects.
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11
Q
  1. What drug class is each of the following anesthetic or analgesic agents in?
    a. Isoflurane
    b. Carprofen
    c. Buprenorphine
    d. Xylazine
    e. Ketamine
A

Isoflurane: volatile inhalant anesthetic

b. Caroprofen: non-steroidal anti-inflammatory
c. Buprenorphine: opioid analgesic (partial mu agonist)
d. Xylazine: alpha-2 agonist
e. Ketamine: dissociative anesthetic

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12
Q

The use of superovulation to increase oocyte production yield for experimental purposes was first described in what year? It was subsequently expanded on in what year following?

A

1956 and 1971

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13
Q

Which hybrid strain was shown to be the most responsive to superovulation just after weaning?

A

B6D2F1

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14
Q

True or False. Multiple studies have not demonstrated a correlation between cage change and physiologic stress responses in rodents

A

False

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15
Q

True or False. The transfer process itself increased corticosterone levels but serum corticosterone levels did not differ statistically between clean and dirty bedding transfer groups

A

True

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16
Q

True or False. Active handling methods and transfer to both clean and dirty cage micro-environments significantly increased serum corticosterone 60 min after cage change

A

False

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17
Q

True or False. The behavioral effects of cage change are not long-lived, as shown by testing for anxiety-like behavior at 2 d after cage change

A

True

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18
Q
  1. What is body composition and how is it measured?
A
  1. Body Composition is the total lean : total fat ratio measured by quantitative MRI.
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19
Q
  1. How much floor space is recommended for a dam and its litter according to the Guide for the Care and Use of Laboratory Animals?
A
  1. The Guide recommends 51 square inches for a female mouse and its litter.
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20
Q
  1. What is the normal amount of food consumption in a day for an adult mouse according to the Blue Book?
A
  1. The Blue Book mentions 5g/day as food consumption for an 8 week old mouse.
21
Q

Oral administration of Chromic oxide is used as a :

a. Bound marker for plasma insulin concentration
b. Nondigestable but absorbable marker for plasma cytokine concentrations
c. Nondigestable, nonabsorbable marker of gastrointestinal transit time
d. Binder for pelleted feeds

A

C

22
Q

Rates of food intake alone can affect plasma adipocytokine concentrations. T/F

A

True

23
Q

Rodent publications must refer directly to the physical form of the diet supplied rather than just the formulation. T/F

A

True

24
Q

Due to their extended survival time in the environment, which of the following types of viruses are exceptionally amenable to fomite transmission?

a. Enveloped viruses
b. Non-enveloped viruses
c. DNA viruses
d. Single-stranded RNA viruses
e. Double-stranded RNA viruses

A

B

25
Q

Which of the following strains of mice should be least susceptible to MNV infection?

a. RAG-2 -/-
b. Foxn1 nu/nu
c. Prkdc scid
d. SKH1
e. NOD/LtSz

A

D

26
Q

Which of the following techniques would be most sensitive in diagnosing MNV infection in a colony of NOD/SCID mice?

a. Antibody titer
b. Fecal PCR
c. Microaerobic fecal culture
d. Antibody ELISA
e. All of the above would diagnose MNV infection in NOD/SCID mice with high sensitivity

A

B

27
Q

The Babesia spp. isolated from these baboons most closely resembles which isolate?

a. Babesia felis
b. Babesia microti
c. Babesia leo
d. Babesia rodhaini
e. Babesia caballi

A

C

28
Q

This paper demonstrated that Babesia infection could be transmitted without a tick vector by which route?

a. Intravenous and intramuscular but not subcutaneous
b. Intravenous and intramuscular and subcutaneous
c. Intramuscular and subcutaneous but not intravenous
d. Subcutaneous but not intravenous or intramuscular
e. No other route of transmission resulted in infection

A

B

29
Q

Which of the following is used in combination with CFA to create an arthritis model?

a. Mycobacterium tuberculosis
b. Staphylococcus aureus
c. Helicobacter pylori
d. Mycobacterial butyricum
e. Clostridium difficile

A

D

30
Q

True/False: Opioid analgesics have a longer duration of action when administered epidurally versus systemically due to slow uptake from the dorsal horn of the spinal cord.

A

True

31
Q

True or False: Humans and pigs have similar hearing ranges.

A

True

32
Q

Which noise level category showed the greatest reduction after noise abatement measures were installed?

a. Herding
b. Caging
c. People
d. Resting

A

D

33
Q

True or False: Acoustic panels were not effective for noise reduction measures in the processing room (hogwash) for pigs in this study.

A

False

34
Q

Excessive noise levels, above 92 dB, can have the following effects in swine:

a. Infertility
b. Abortion
c. Decreased growth rates
d. All of the above.

A

D

35
Q

MPV has a propensity to infect which lymphoid tissue?

A

Mouse parvovirus (MPV) infects lymphoid tissue including Peyers patches, thymus, spleen, peripheral lymph nodes, and mesenteric lymph nodes.

36
Q

In most mice how long is MPV readily detectable by fecal PCR?

A

Two weeks

37
Q

What strain of mouse is the exception to question 2?

A

C57BL/6

38
Q

T/F. The volume of bedding transferred from test cages to the sentinel cage has little effect on the chance of MPV transmission

A

F. Higher volumes represent a higher infectious dose and increase the chance of transmitting the virus

39
Q
  1. What type of cell is found in atypical fibromas? Where do these cells arise from?
A
  1. Ganglion-like cells (GL). Thought to arise from undifferentiated mesenchymal cells in the skin.
40
Q
  1. Is there a sex predilection? If so, why? Is there and age predilection? If so, why?
A
  1. Yes, males more likely. The number of GL cells is influenced by serum androgen concentrations. Yes- older animals more likely. The number of GL cells increases with age.
41
Q

Where are GL cells typically found?

A

Ventrum, forelimbs, and hind limbs

42
Q
  1. True or False: Androgen receptor and estrogen receptor α staining is common in atypical fibromas.
A
  1. False- Androgen receptor staining is common, however estrogen receptor α is NOT.
43
Q
  1. What is the classical triad of symptoms associated with acute gastric volvulus in humans?
A
  1. Gastric distension, upper abdominal pain, nonproductive retching and difficulty or inability to pass a tube into the stomach.
44
Q
  1. Sudden death is the most common clinical presentation of gastric volvulus in which two animal species?
    a. Dogs, Humans
    b. Cats, Guinea Pigs
    c. Dogs, Pigs
    d. Pigs, Guinea Pigs
A

d. Pigs, Guinea Pigs

45
Q
  1. True/False – Cases are classified as approximately 70% primary, caused by abnormal lengthening of the gastric ligaments, and 30% secondary, associated with abdominal defects.
A
  1. False. Cases are classified as approximately 30% primary, caused by abnormal lengthening of the gastric ligaments, and 70% secondary, associated with abdominal defects.
46
Q
  1. True/False - Guinea pigs are predisposed to gastric stasis due to dental disease and a diet deficient in fiber.
A

True

47
Q

Diabetes is a common endocrine disease in the ferret?

A

F (uncommon disease)

48
Q

Adrenal disease in the ferret causes overproduction of cortisol?

A

F (sex hormones)

49
Q

What are the 2 most commonly encountered endocrine disease?

A

Pancreatic β islet cell tumors (insulinomas) and Adrenal disease