JAALAS 2010 NO 2 KD Flashcards

1
Q

Alworth et al. Diversity in Laboratory Animal Science: Issues and Initiatives, pp. 138-146.1. Which group was established in the United States by the Civil Rights Act of 1964 to enforce the prohibition of employment discrimination upon the basis of race, color, religion, sex, or national origin?

A
  1. The Equal Employment Opportunity Commission
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2
Q
  1. What is the “business case” theory of diversity?
A
  1. A. As the workforce becomes more diverse, recruiting from more diverse groups will be necessary to obtain the highest quality employees; B. an increasingly diverse population and more globalized market means a more diverse customer base. A more diverse workforce that matches the market demographics can provide “market intelligence”. C. Because of varied information, perspectives, and cognitive styles, a more diverse workforce has stronger problem-solving and creativity skills than does a less diverse one.
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3
Q
  1. The DiVersity Matters initiative was launched by what organization in 2005, and focuses on which 4 areas
A
  1. By the Association of American Veterinary Medical Colleges (AAVMC), focuses on: a) increasing racial and ethnic diversity among students; b) increasing racial and ethnic diversity among faculty; c) creating inclusive learning and working environments in the colleges of veterinary medicine; d) infusing the veterinary curriculum with learning opportunities for cultural competence.
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4
Q
  1. In 2003, Supreme Court deliberations in Grutter vs. Bollinger took into consideration what three main research findings regarding diversity in academic institutions?
A
  1. Specific benefits to a diverse learning environment: 1) Students in structurally diverse environments are less likely to self-segregate by race throughout their lifetime, 2) Students report having more positive academic, social, and personal experiences, 3) Students show “the greatest engagement in active thinking processes, growth in intellectual engagement and motivation, and growth in intellectual and academic skills”
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5
Q
  1. True/False: One-day training sessions are all that is required for successful implementation of new communication skills and conflict resolution in diverse workplaces.
A

False

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6
Q
  1. What are the benefits of diversity in the workplace?
A
  1. Improved performance, highest quality employees, “market intelligence”, stronger problem-solving skills.
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7
Q
  1. What are the challenges of diversity in the workplace?
A
  1. Heightened level of environmental conflict with potential decrease in overall performance, decreased group cohesiveness, increased absenteeism, and employee turnover.
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8
Q

Patino. pp. 147-154.This statement defines the following term: Similar to trade secrets but may also be defined as closely held knowledge in a given field created by skills or experience.

a. Know-how
b. Trade Secret
c. Creative Commons

A

a. Know-how

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9
Q

T/F: The patent examination process and its rules are in a constant state of flux.

A

True

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10
Q

Seed Funding is defined as:

a. Grant mechanism which allows researchers employed at nonprofit research institutions to apply for grants where the institution has a formal relationship with a small company.
b. Money intended to help launch a startup company and comprise private investors, venture capital investments, or funds from friends or family pulled from savings or mortgages.
c. Money or other forms of consideration that are investments managed by a separate party that often use company growth benchmarks as a condition to receive additional investment funds.

A

B. Money intended to help launch a startup…

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11
Q

Hickman and Swan.pp. 155-1591. T/F: The modified BCS system described in this paper uses fat deposition over the ribs as an indicator of health

A

False; lumbar vertebra and pelvic bones are palpated.

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12
Q
  1. Heterozygous Han:SPRD rats tend to develop polycystic kidney disease and renal failure between:
    a. 4-6 months of age
    b. 6-12 months of age
    c. 12-18 months of age
    d. 18-24 months of age
    e. Only the homozygous Han:SPRD rats develop PKD
A

c. 12- 18 months of age

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13
Q
  1. T/F: Female Han:SPRD rats in this study showed more severe disease than male rats.
A

False; females develped small cysts on the kidneys compared with males

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14
Q
  1. T/F: In the modified rat BCS system, a score of 5 is assigned when one can still palpate the pins of the pelvis with firm pressure
A

False. A score of 5 is assigned when one cannot palpate the pins of the pelvis with firm pressure.

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15
Q

Yamashiro et alpp. 160-166/F Sperm in lactate-free extender had decreased sperm motility and oxygen consumption compared to sperm in both glucose and pyruvate mediums.

A

True

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16
Q

How much supplemental lactate enabled increased sperm motility?

A

32.37 mM lactate

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17
Q

How much supplemental ATP enabled sperm to have higher motility and viability?

A

1.85 mM ATP

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18
Q

T/F ATP, calcium and cAMP are thought to be important regulators of sperm motility

A

True

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19
Q

T/F The authors were able to produce live births from artificial insemination using frozen-thawed sperm.

A

False

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20
Q

T/F Ionomycin and dbcAMP concentrations had no effect on the oxygen consumption of sperm.

A

True

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21
Q
Kastenmayer et al.Graphiurus spp. were implicated in a 2003 outbreak of:
	A. 	Hantavirus
B. 	Monkeypox
C. 	Leptospirosis
D. 	Mouse parvovirus
A

B. Monkeypox

22
Q
Which is an appropriate non-terminal phlebotomy technique in Graphiurus spp.?
	A. 	Mandibular
B. 	Cardiocentesis
C. 	Retroorbital
D. 	Tail vein
A

A. Mandibular

23
Q
According to this article, the most palatable food item offered was:
	A. 	Cottage cheese
	B. 	Hard-boiled eggs
	C. 	Wax worm larvae
	D. 	Tofu
A

C. Wax worm Larva

24
Q

True or false: The most common injury observed in this study was fight wounds, especially in harem breeding cages

A

True

25
Q
Rosenbaum pp 177-183What is the recommended temperature range for mice and rats in the
      Guide?
a. 	61-72°F
b. 	64-79°F
c. 	64-84°F
d. 	There is no recommended range
A

b. 64-79

26
Q

This study showed which relationship between room and cage levels
of ammonia and temperature:
a. Ammonia levels were detectable in the cages only after 12 days; all temperatures in the room were higher than in the cages.
b. Ammonia levels were detectable in the room only after 12 days; all temperatures in the cages were higher than in the cages
c. Ammonia levels were detectable in the cages only after 12 days; all temperatures in the cages were higher than in the room.
d. Ammonia levels and temperature did not differ between the cages and the room

A

c. Ammonia levels were detectable in the cages only after 12 days; all temperatures in the cages were higher than in the room.

27
Q

T/F: The most important risk factors for allergenic exposure to personnel are the actual levels of particle exposure and the controls in place to reduce the transfer of particles into the worker’s breathing zone

A

True

28
Q

Whiteside; pp. 184-1891) Which bedding type is preferable for studies involving endotoxin?

a. Corncob
b. Corncob-paper mix
c. Hardwood
d. Paper

A

d. Paper–paper bedding contained significantly lower levels of coliform and significantly lower levels of of endotoxin than other bedding types.

29
Q

2) Short answer – Why were (1,3)-β-D-glucans (i.e. β-1,3-glucans) blocked to perform secondary testing on endotoxin levels of the bedding?

A

2) When found in sufficient amounts in a sample, (1,3)-β-D-glucans (found in the cell walls of fungi, yeasts, algae, some bacteria, and plants) may act synergistically with endotoxin, falsely elevating or enhancing endotoxin levels

30
Q

3) Short answer - Why was preprocessed hardwood analyzed?

A

3) Preprocessed samples of hardwood bedding were also analyzed due to very low coliform counts and high endotoxin content of processed bedding.

31
Q

Turner et al. Efficacy and Limitations of an ATP-Based Monitoring System, pp. 190-195ATP-based microbiological monitoring systems use which of the following modalities to detect ATP:

a. Bioluminescence
b. ATP-ADP ratio inference
c. Microbiological monitoring
d. Mitochondrial ATPase detection

A

A. Bioluminescence

32
Q

A limitation of ATP-Based microbiological monitoring systems is a lack of sensitivity in detection of gram-negative organisms. T/F

A

True

33
Q

ATP-based microbiological monitoring system hold little advantage over bacterial culture methods in the turnaround time of the results T/F

A

False

34
Q

Residual disinfectants can adversely affect ATP-detection. T/F

A

True

35
Q

According to a recent article in Comparative Medicine, which nonhuman primate was the subject of a retrospective case-control study to evaluate biologically plausible variables that might predispose a captive breeding colony to a matrilineal overthrow?

a. Macaca mulatta
b. Macaca fascicularis
c. Macaca nemestrina
d. Papio anubis
e. Papio cynocephalus

A

A. Macaca mulatta

36
Q

According to a recent article in Comparative Medicine, which group variable did not appear to be associated with occurrence of a matrilineal overthrow in captive rhesus macaque colonies at the California National Primate Research Center from January 1996 - January 2007?

a. Time since group formation
b. Decreased housing density
c. Number of juvenile males
d. Number of adolescent males
e. Absence of the alpha female

A

A. Time since group formation

37
Q

Why is retroorbital bleeding discouraged as a survival procedure?

A

There is a risk of tissue damage during the retroorbital technique; this damage can result in pain, distress, and blindness.

38
Q

How is blood collected using a submandibular technique?

A

When blood is collected using the submandibular method, a sterile lancet is used to pierce the submandibular vein. This method can be used in unanesthetized mice. The same animal can be used multiple times points and the procedure does not appear to result in pain or distress.

39
Q

What type of cell is frequently found near foreign material in a foreign body reaction?

A

Giant Cell

40
Q

True or false: During the surgical placement of a gastric catheter, a suture patch is placed on the body wall.

A

False

41
Q
  1. T/F. Dysecdisis and obtundation are loss of slime layer and abnormal diving reflex in frogs, respectively
A

True; dysecdysis = incomplete or abnormal shedding of the skin in reptiles; obtundation = less than full mental capacity in a medical patient usually as a result of trauma

42
Q
  1. T/F. Batrachochytrium dendrobatidis is typically associated with ulcerative lesions in X. laevis
A

False; it is usually associated witn X. tropicalis

43
Q
  1. What type of diagnostic test is used to confirm or rule out Ranavirus infection? Why do you need to rule it out when you see cutaneous lesions in anurans?
A

PCR; Ranavirus is listed as a disease notifiable to the World Organization for Animal Health and is thought to be associated with red-leg outbreaks.

44
Q
  1. What were the primary pathogens causing disease in this case report?
A

Primary infection with Mycobacterium spp. and secondary colonization by Aeromonas hydrohilia

45
Q

List two primary screening tests and several confirmatory tests for tuberculosis surveillance in macaque colonies

A

Primary tests - a) intrapalpebral tuberculin skin test (TST) and b) serology (ELISA); Confirmatory tests: a) histopathology, b) PCR, c) culture

46
Q

Sedation for assessment of intrapalpebral tuberculin skin tests increases sensitivity for the testing due to:

a. Ability to more closely observe lid coloration (erythema)
b. Ability to auscultate the lungs to listen for TB associated abnormalities
c. Ability to palpate the lid to better detect mild reactions
d. All of the above
e. a and c
f. b and c

A

e. a and c

47
Q

Measles vaccination may lead to what results when done less than four weeks prior to tuberculin skin testing?

A

False negative results

48
Q

What is the recommended site for tuberculin injection when performing intrapalpebral tuberculin skin testing on nonhuman primates?

a. Just beneath the eye brow
b. In the middle of the eyelid
c. As close to the lid edge as possible

A

c. As close to the lid edge as possible

49
Q

Saimiri sciureus has often used as an animal model for study of:
A. Drug development and safety assessment
B. Biomechanics of labor
C. Creutzfeldt-Jakob disease (CJD)
D. Behavioral research
E. A and C
F. B and C

A

F. B and C

50
Q

Features that distinguish a leiomyosarcoma from a leiomyoma include all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Binucleate, multinucleate and bizarre cells
B. Mitotic index of 1 per 10 high power fields or more
C. Extensive necrosis
D. Evidence of invasion

A

C. Extensive necrosis

51
Q
Which of the following is NOT a New World species of nonhuman primates?
A. 	Saimiri sciureus
B. 	Papio cyanocephalus
C. 	Cebeuella pygmaee
D. 	Callithrix jacchus
A

B. Papio cyanocephalus