Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Neurobiology > Introduction to Neuropathology > Flashcards

Introduction to Neuropathology Flashcards

1
Q

what gives rise to the three primary brain vesicles?

A

differential growth rates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what can the prosencephalon (one of three primary brain vesicles) be divided into?

A

telencephalon
diencephalon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the neural plate?

A

dorsal thickening of the cranial surface ectoderm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what three layers compose the neural tube?

A

ventricular zone
mantle zone
marginal zone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what happens in the spinal cord as the limb muscles mature?

A

increasing numbers of neurons populate the cervical and lumbar intumescences

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what can the neural crest cells migrate away from midline to form?

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia
spinal (dorsal root) ganglia
melanocytes
enteric plexi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

where do motor nerves originate?

A

ventral motor horn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is the intermediate gray column?

A

sympathetic preganglionic neurons located between T1 and L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

where are most preganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic system located?

A

brainstem in various nuclei
sacral segments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

how does the meninges support the brain and spinal cord?

A

protection
compartment for CSF
support for blood vessels
sheath for cranial and spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what is central in the spinal cord and what is on the periphery?

A

gray matter central
white matter is peripheral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the layers of the meninges?

A

dura mater: outer
arachnoid
pia mater: inner layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what surrounds penetrating blood vessels into the spinal cord?

A

pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is a common location for inflammatory disease?

A

meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what may happen with any inflammatory disease in the meninges?

A

proliferation of the arachnoid cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

where is a common place that cancer can develop in the CNS?

A

meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are some cancers that can occur in the meninges?

A

meningioma
hematopoietic neoplasia: histiocytic sarcoma and lymphoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is dural ossification?

A

osseous metaplasia: normal bone with marrow
does not cause significant disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what do neurons consist of?

A

dendritic zone
cell body
single axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what do neurons transmit?

A

electrical and chemical impulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what does it mean that neurons are post-mitotic?

A

cannot be replaced after loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are some immunohistochemical stains that can be used on the CNS?

A

synaptophysin
neuN
PGP9.5
MAP2
S-100

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what does neuronal necrosis vs apoptosis depend on?

A

underlying disease process

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is neuonophagia?

A

degenerate/dying neuron is ingested by macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what happens in laminar cortical necrosis?

A

segmental layers of the cerebral cortex are wiped out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what can cause laminar cortical necrosis?

A

thiamine deficiency (ruminants, camelids, small animals)
sulfur toxicity (ruminants)
hypoxic/ischemic damage
lead toxicity (ruminants)
salt toxicity (swine)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what can cause neuronal chromatolysis?

A

toxin exposure
metabolic disease
genetic diseases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

why do axons react to many forms of injury by swelling?

A

anterograde/retrograde transit of axoplasmic organelles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what can cause spheroids?

A

compressive damage
inherited/genetic diseases like neuroaxonal dystrophy
lysosomal storage diseases
aging

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is wallerian degeneration?

A

fragmentation and dissolution of the distal part of the axon and digestion/removal of the collapsed myelin tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the two populations of astrocytes?

A

large protoplasmic forms
fibrous forms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is an astrocytoma?

A

type of glioma that has astrocytic features
tumor cells can have variable appearance similar to reactive astrocytes

33
Q

what is CNS myelin formed from?

A

modified processes of oligodendrocytes

34
Q

what can cause satellitosis?

A

infection, especially viral and protozoal
inborn errors of metabolism in neurons
toxin exposure
hypoxic/ischemic damage

35
Q

what do ependymal cells do?

A

line ventricular system
role in movements of CSF via undulations of surface cilia

36
Q

what is the choroid plexus?

A

specialized ependymal cells
with epithelial cells, forms blood-brain barrier
produces CSF

37
Q

what can ependymitis result in?

A

hydrocephalus due to obstruction of CSF flow

38
Q

where is the choroid plexus located?

A

lateral, third, and fourth ventricles

39
Q

what are microglia derived from?

A

yolk sac: extraneural lineage
mesodermal origin

40
Q

when can gitter cells be seen?

A

areas of necrosis

41
Q

what are glial nodules?

A

foci of gliosis and scattered inflammatory cells

42
Q

in areas of necrosis, capillary blood vessels respond by _______________________________

A

endothelial swelling and hyperplasia (capillary sprouting)

43
Q

what is vasogenic edema from?

A

vascular injury that breaks down blood-brain barrier and allows fluid to leak
thrombosis, inflammation, infarcts

44
Q

what are the three anatomic quadrants that peripheral nerves are divided into?

A

epineurium
perineurium
endoneurium

45
Q

what is spina bifida?

A

absence of thee dorsal arch of spinal vertebrae

46
Q

where is spina bifida most common?

A

lumbosacral region

47
Q

who is anury and brachyury most common in?

A

manx cats
english bulldog

48
Q

what is diplomyelia?

A

spinal cord duplication within a single leptomeninges

49
Q

what is myeelodysplasia?

A

general term for alteration in normal anatomic arrangement of the spinal cord

50
Q

what is equine myelodysplasia?

A

invasion of peripheral schwann cells into the CNS, causing mass-like lesions

51
Q

what is arnold-chiari-like type II malformation?

A

caudal fossa is reduced in size (and volume)
associated with elongation of the cerebella vermis and medulla

52
Q

what is hydrocephalus?

A

increase in volume of the CSF

53
Q

what are encephaloclastic defects due to?

A

acquired destructive processes

54
Q

what is hydranencephaly due to in veterinary medicine?

A

almost always viral infection in utero

55
Q

what is cerebellar hypoplasia/aplasia most commonly due to?

A

in utero infection with pestivirus, parvovirus, or orthobunyavirus

56
Q

what is lissencephaly?

A

brain that lacks normal gyri and sulci

57
Q

what type of dog is lissencephaly most common in?

A

Lhasa apso dog: genetic in origin

58
Q

what is polymicrogyria?

A

excessive number of sulci and gyri, most commonly in caudal cortex

59
Q

what are some cancers that can develop in the meninges?

A

meningioma
hematopoietic neoplasia: histiocytic sarcoma and lymphoma

60
Q

what is chromatolysis?

A

neuronal degeneration (a type): neuron swells, nucleus marginalized, dispersal/loss of nissl substance

61
Q

do non-viral neural inclusion bodies usually cause damage?

A

not to the neuron

62
Q

what is the initial axonal breakdown in wallerian degeneration dependent on?

A

recruitment of macrophages: digestion chambers

63
Q

what is glia limitans?

A

a layer of astrocyte foot processes subjacent to pia mater that provides surface protection

64
Q

what do astrocytes do?

A

control microenvironment with homeostasis
express MHC I and II
repair
provide guidance/support for neuronal migration during development
influence induction tight junctions
form glia limitans

65
Q

what do you need to assess astrocyte injury?

A

GFAP

66
Q

what are type II alzheimer cells?

A

pattern of astrocytes clumped with open chromatin
caused by high ammonia

67
Q

what are the three phenotypic forms of microglia?

A

resting
ameboid
reactive/rod-shaped

68
Q

what is Iba1 immunohistochemistry specific to?

A

macrophage lineage cells

69
Q

where is spina bifida most common?

A

lumbosacral region

70
Q

what is myeloschesis?

A

cleft formed by inappropriate neural tube closure

71
Q

in dogs, who is most commonly affected by arnold-chiari-like type II malformation?

A

cavalier king charles spaniel

72
Q

what are encephaloclastic defects due to?

A

acquired destructive process

73
Q

what do reactive astrocytes look like?

A

broad, polygonal
nucleus at margin
others elongate

74
Q

what is astrogliosis?

A

increased synthesis of intermediate filaments and increased branching and complexity of processes

75
Q

how are microglia distributed?

A

evenly in grey and white matter

76
Q

what is hydrancephaly?

A

almost complete destruction and lack of development of neocortex

77
Q

what is cerebellar hypoplasia/aplasia due to?

A

usually pestivirus, parvovirus, or orthobunyavirus in utero

78
Q

in whom is polymicrogyria most common?

A

standard poodles

Neurobiology (28 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions