Introduction to Neuropathology Flashcards

1
Q

what gives rise to the three primary brain vesicles?

A

differential growth rates

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2
Q

what can the prosencephalon (one of three primary brain vesicles) be divided into?

A

telencephalon
diencephalon

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3
Q

what is the neural plate?

A

dorsal thickening of the cranial surface ectoderm

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4
Q

what three layers compose the neural tube?

A

ventricular zone
mantle zone
marginal zone

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5
Q

what happens in the spinal cord as the limb muscles mature?

A

increasing numbers of neurons populate the cervical and lumbar intumescences

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6
Q

what can the neural crest cells migrate away from midline to form?

A

sympathetic and parasympathetic ganglia
spinal (dorsal root) ganglia
melanocytes
enteric plexi

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7
Q

where do motor nerves originate?

A

ventral motor horn

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8
Q

what is the intermediate gray column?

A

sympathetic preganglionic neurons located between T1 and L4

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9
Q

where are most preganglionic neurons in the parasympathetic system located?

A

brainstem in various nuclei
sacral segments

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10
Q

how does the meninges support the brain and spinal cord?

A

protection
compartment for CSF
support for blood vessels
sheath for cranial and spinal nerves

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11
Q

what is central in the spinal cord and what is on the periphery?

A

gray matter central
white matter is peripheral

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12
Q

what are the layers of the meninges?

A

dura mater: outer
arachnoid
pia mater: inner layer

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13
Q

what surrounds penetrating blood vessels into the spinal cord?

A

pia mater

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14
Q

what is a common location for inflammatory disease?

A

meninges

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15
Q

what may happen with any inflammatory disease in the meninges?

A

proliferation of the arachnoid cells

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16
Q

where is a common place that cancer can develop in the CNS?

A

meninges

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17
Q

what are some cancers that can occur in the meninges?

A

meningioma
hematopoietic neoplasia: histiocytic sarcoma and lymphoma

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18
Q

what is dural ossification?

A

osseous metaplasia: normal bone with marrow
does not cause significant disease

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19
Q

what do neurons consist of?

A

dendritic zone
cell body
single axon

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20
Q

what do neurons transmit?

A

electrical and chemical impulses

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21
Q

what does it mean that neurons are post-mitotic?

A

cannot be replaced after loss

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22
Q

what are some immunohistochemical stains that can be used on the CNS?

A

synaptophysin
neuN
PGP9.5
MAP2
S-100

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23
Q

what does neuronal necrosis vs apoptosis depend on?

A

underlying disease process

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24
Q

what is neuonophagia?

A

degenerate/dying neuron is ingested by macrophages

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25
what happens in laminar cortical necrosis?
segmental layers of the cerebral cortex are wiped out
26
what can cause laminar cortical necrosis?
thiamine deficiency (ruminants, camelids, small animals) sulfur toxicity (ruminants) hypoxic/ischemic damage lead toxicity (ruminants) salt toxicity (swine)
27
what can cause neuronal chromatolysis?
toxin exposure metabolic disease genetic diseases
28
why do axons react to many forms of injury by swelling?
anterograde/retrograde transit of axoplasmic organelles
29
what can cause spheroids?
compressive damage inherited/genetic diseases like neuroaxonal dystrophy lysosomal storage diseases aging
30
what is wallerian degeneration?
fragmentation and dissolution of the distal part of the axon and digestion/removal of the collapsed myelin tube
31
what are the two populations of astrocytes?
large protoplasmic forms fibrous forms
32
what is an astrocytoma?
type of glioma that has astrocytic features tumor cells can have variable appearance similar to reactive astrocytes
33
what is CNS myelin formed from?
modified processes of oligodendrocytes
34
what can cause satellitosis?
infection, especially viral and protozoal inborn errors of metabolism in neurons toxin exposure hypoxic/ischemic damage
35
what do ependymal cells do?
line ventricular system role in movements of CSF via undulations of surface cilia
36
what is the choroid plexus?
specialized ependymal cells with epithelial cells, forms blood-brain barrier produces CSF
37
what can ependymitis result in?
hydrocephalus due to obstruction of CSF flow
38
where is the choroid plexus located?
lateral, third, and fourth ventricles
39
what are microglia derived from?
yolk sac: extraneural lineage mesodermal origin
40
when can gitter cells be seen?
areas of necrosis
41
what are glial nodules?
foci of gliosis and scattered inflammatory cells
42
in areas of necrosis, capillary blood vessels respond by _______________________________
endothelial swelling and hyperplasia (capillary sprouting)
43
what is vasogenic edema from?
vascular injury that breaks down blood-brain barrier and allows fluid to leak thrombosis, inflammation, infarcts
44
what are the three anatomic quadrants that peripheral nerves are divided into?
epineurium perineurium endoneurium
45
what is spina bifida?
absence of thee dorsal arch of spinal vertebrae
46
where is spina bifida most common?
lumbosacral region
47
who is anury and brachyury most common in?
manx cats english bulldog
48
what is diplomyelia?
spinal cord duplication within a single leptomeninges
49
what is myeelodysplasia?
general term for alteration in normal anatomic arrangement of the spinal cord
50
what is equine myelodysplasia?
invasion of peripheral schwann cells into the CNS, causing mass-like lesions
51
what is arnold-chiari-like type II malformation?
caudal fossa is reduced in size (and volume) associated with elongation of the cerebella vermis and medulla
52
what is hydrocephalus?
increase in volume of the CSF
53
what are encephaloclastic defects due to?
acquired destructive processes
54
what is hydranencephaly due to in veterinary medicine?
almost always viral infection in utero
55
what is cerebellar hypoplasia/aplasia most commonly due to?
in utero infection with pestivirus, parvovirus, or orthobunyavirus
56
what is lissencephaly?
brain that lacks normal gyri and sulci
57
what type of dog is lissencephaly most common in?
Lhasa apso dog: genetic in origin
58
what is polymicrogyria?
excessive number of sulci and gyri, most commonly in caudal cortex
59
what are some cancers that can develop in the meninges?
meningioma hematopoietic neoplasia: histiocytic sarcoma and lymphoma
60
what is chromatolysis?
neuronal degeneration (a type): neuron swells, nucleus marginalized, dispersal/loss of nissl substance
61
do non-viral neural inclusion bodies usually cause damage?
not to the neuron
62
what is the initial axonal breakdown in wallerian degeneration dependent on?
recruitment of macrophages: digestion chambers
63
what is glia limitans?
a layer of astrocyte foot processes subjacent to pia mater that provides surface protection
64
what do astrocytes do?
control microenvironment with homeostasis express MHC I and II repair provide guidance/support for neuronal migration during development influence induction tight junctions form glia limitans
65
what do you need to assess astrocyte injury?
GFAP
66
what are type II alzheimer cells?
pattern of astrocytes clumped with open chromatin caused by high ammonia
67
what are the three phenotypic forms of microglia?
resting ameboid reactive/rod-shaped
68
what is Iba1 immunohistochemistry specific to?
macrophage lineage cells
69
where is spina bifida most common?
lumbosacral region
70
what is myeloschesis?
cleft formed by inappropriate neural tube closure
71
in dogs, who is most commonly affected by arnold-chiari-like type II malformation?
cavalier king charles spaniel
72
what are encephaloclastic defects due to?
acquired destructive process
73
what do reactive astrocytes look like?
broad, polygonal nucleus at margin others elongate
74
what is astrogliosis?
increased synthesis of intermediate filaments and increased branching and complexity of processes
75
how are microglia distributed?
evenly in grey and white matter
76
what is hydrancephaly?
almost complete destruction and lack of development of neocortex
77
what is cerebellar hypoplasia/aplasia due to?
usually pestivirus, parvovirus, or orthobunyavirus in utero
78
in whom is polymicrogyria most common?
standard poodles