Infectious Diseases Flashcards
1
Q
What is NAAT? What is it testing for?
A
Nucleic acid amplificaiton test for chlamydia
2
Q
What would a ground glass appearance on histology indicate?
A
Chronic hep b infection
3
Q
What is the treatment for gonorrhoea?
A
IM ceftriaxone
4
Q
What would you see on microscopy of gonorrhoea?
A
Gram negative diplococci
5
Q
What is the treatment of chlamydia?
A
Oral doxycycline or azithromycin
6
Q
In a traveller in bangladesh with watery diarrhoea and hypoglycaemia, what would you be worried about?
A
Cholera
7
Q
Name 2 diseases which may cause blood in the stool.
A
Campylobacter jejuni and salmonella.
8
Q
Frothy offensive discharge + vulvovaginitis + strawberry cervix _ very acidic vagina =??
A
Trichomonas vaginalis
9
Q
In which condition would you see rose spots on the chest, and what is the causative organism?
A
Typhoid, salmonella typhi.
10
Q
How would you distinguish between giargiasis and typhoid fever?
A
Giardiasis = diarrhoea Typhoid = constipation
11
Q
What is the treatment for invasive (bloody) diarrhoea?
A
Ciprofloxacin
12
Q
What is the treatment for traveller’s and non-invasive diarrhoea?
A
Clarithromycin
13
Q
What is the treatment for cerebral toxoplasmosis? (Seen in HIV with a CD4 count <200)
A
sulfadiazine and pyrimethamine
14
Q
Painless ulcer and painless lymphadenopathy?
A
Syphilis
15
Q
Painless ulcer and painful lymphadenopathy
A
Lymphogranuloma venereum
16
Q
Painful ulcer and painful lymphadenopathy?
A
Chancroid
17
Q
What is the most common cause of intermenstrual bleeding in a young female?
A
STI e.g. chlamydia
18
Q
What is the treatment for syphilis?
A
IM benzathine penicillin
19
Q
What does e.coli look like under a a microscope?
A
Gram negative rod
20
Q
What is the most common cause of traveller’s diarrhoea?
A
E.coli
21
Q
If the CSF glucose is less than half of the serum glucose, what is causing the meningitis?
A
Bacteria
22
Q
If the CSF white cells are mostly lymphocytes, what is the cause of the meningitis?
A
TB
23
Q
What is given after a bite from a rabid dog?
A
Immunoglobulin + rabies vaccination
24
Q
What antibiotic is used to treat exacerbations of chronic bronchitis?
A
Amoxicillin
25
What antibiotic is used to treat uncomplicated community-acquired pneumonia?
Amoxicillin
26
What antibiotic is used to treat CAP following flu?
Amoxicillin + flucloxacillin
27
What is the likely causative organism of pneumonia following flu?
S. aureus
28
What antibiotic is used to treat atypical pneumonia (e.g. legionalla, mycoplasma?)
Clarithromycin
29
What antibiotic is used to treat hospital acquired pneumonia within 5 days of admission?
Co-amoxiclav or cefuroxime
30
What antibiotic is used to treat hospital acquired pneumonia more than 5 days after admission?
Piperacillin with tazobactam
31
What antibiotic is used to treat acute pyelonephritis?
broad spectrum cephalosporin or quinalone
32
What antibiotic is used to treat impetigo?
topical fusidic acid
33
What antibiotic is used to treat widespread impetigo?
Erythromycin
34
What antibiotic is used to treat cellulitis?
Flucloxacillin
35
What antibiotic is used to treat animal or human bites?
Co-amoxiclav
36
What antibiotic is used to treat mastitis during breastfeeding?
Flucloxacillin
37
What antibiotic is used to treat throat infections?
Phenoxymethylpenicillin
38
What antibiotic is used to treat SINUSITIS AND OTITIS MEDIA?
Amoxicillin
39
What antibiotic is used to treat otitis externa?
Flucloxacillin + corticosteroid
40
What antibiotic is used to treat gonorrhoea?
IM cetfriaxone + oral azithromycin
41
What antibiotic is used to treat chlamydia?
Doxycycline or azithromycin
42
What antibiotic is used to treat pelvic inflammatory disease?
oral flucloxacillin and oral metronidazole
43
What antibiotic is used to treat syphilis?
benzathine benzylpenicillin
44
What antibiotic is used to treat BV?
metronidazole
45
What antibiotic is used to treat c.diff?
Metronidazole
46
What antibiotic is used to treat campylobacter enteritis?
Clarithromycin
47
What antibiotic is used to treat salmonella?
ciprofloxacin
48
What antibiotic is used to treat shigellosis?
Ciprofloxacin
49
Describe the appearance on microscopy of s. aureus?
Gram positive cocci
Haemolytic
Catalase positive
50
Describe the appearance on microscopy of strep pyogenes?
Gram positive coci in chains
Beta haemolytic
Catalase negative
51
What antibiotic is used to treat strep pyogenes?
Macrolides (azithromycin, clarithrmoycin)
52
Describe the appearance on microscopy of E.coli?
Gram negative rods
53
Describe the appearance on microscopy of campylobacter jejuni
Gram negative non-sporulating
54
What are the features of campylobacter jejuni infection?
Bloody diarrhoea
| Right iliac fossa pain
55
Describe the appearance on microscopy of H.pylori
gram negative helix shaped rod
56
How is giardiasis spread?
Faeco-oral route
57
What are the features of Giardia infection?
Prolonged Non bloody diarrhoea
Flatulence
Bloating
58
What is the treatment of giardia infection?
Metronidazole
59
Where might you contract giardia?
Contaminated water e.g. lakes, rivers
60
What is the most common cause of gastroenteritis/traveller'sdiarrhoea?
E.coli
61
Traveller with watery stools, abdominal cramps and nausea...
| What is the causative organism?
E.coli
62
Patient with prolonged, non-bloody diarrhoea.
| What is the causative organism?
Giardia
63
What causes rice-water diarrhoea?
Cholera
64
Bloody diarrhoea, fever and abdominal pain.
| What is the causative organism?
Shigella
65
What commonly causes acute food poisoning?
Staphylococcus aureis or bacillus cereus
66
Severe vomiting with a short incubation period.
| What is the causative organism?
S.aureus
67
Vomiting and diarrhoea 6 hours after eating rice.
| What is the causative organism?
Bacillus cereus
68
Gradual onset bloody diarrhoea, abdominal pain and tenderness which may last for several weeks...
What is the causative organism?
Amoebiasis
69
Name 2 organisms with an incubation period longer than 7 days.
Giardia, amoeba
70
What organism causes amoebiasis?
Entamoeba histolyica
71
Is the incubation period for amoebiasis short or long?
Long
72
What is the treatment of amoebiasis?
Metronidazole
73
Name 2 complications of amoebiasis?
Liver and colonic abscesses
74
"Anchovy sauce" in a liver abscess indicates?
Amoebiasis
75
What kind of virus is Parvovirus B19
DNA virus
76
What causes erythema infectiosum? How is it colloquially known?
Erythema infectiosum, slapped cheek syndrome
77
Are children with slapped cheek infectious?
Not once the rash has appeared
78
What to do if a pregnant women (<20 weeks) is exposed to parvovirus B19?
maternal IgG and IgM need to be checked
79
What causes infectious mononucelosis in 90% of cases?
EBV, or HHV-4
80
What are less common causes of infectious mononucleosis?
HHV-6, cytomegalovirus
81
Sore throat + fever + lymphadenopathy = ?
Infectious mononucleosis
82
Name a complication of infectious mononucleosis? How can this be avoided?
Splenomegaly and splenic rupture; avoid contact sports for 8 weeks post infection
83
How is glandular fever diagnosed?
Monospot test (heterophil antibody test) in the 2nd week of illness
84
What causes genital herpes?
HSV 2
85
What causes oral herpes?
HSV 1
86
Multiple painful genital ulcers is indicative of?
Genital herpes
87
What is a chancre?
A painless ulcer seen in primary syphilis
88
Painful genital ulcers associated with painful lymph enlargement is indicative of?
Chancroid
89
What causes chancroid?
Haemophilus ducreyi
90
Describe the ulcers you would see in chancroid
Sharply defined, ragged, undermined border
91
What causes Lymphogranuloma venereum (LGV)?
Chlamydia
92
How would LGV present?
Painless ulcer with painful lymphadenopathy
93
How is LGV treated?
Doxycycline
94
What is the management of genital herpes?
Oral acyclovir
95
What week of pregnancy is the cut off for having a c-section if there is a primary attack of herpes?
28
96
How should women with recurrent herpes be treates?
Suppressive therapy, transmission risk is low
97
Describe the quickSOFA score:
resp rate >22
altered mentation
bp <100
98
What does a qSOFA score of >2 indicate?
High risk of mortality
99
What type of vaccines would you not give to immunocompromised people?
Live, attenuated
100
Name the live attenuated vaccines
ROME Is MY Best Place To go
```
rubella
oral polio
mumps
epidemic typhis
Influenza
Measles
Yellow fever
BCG
Plague
Typhoid
```
101
Name 3 vaccinations that are inactivated toxins
Tetanus, diptheria and pertussus
102
What causes croup?
Parainfluenza virus
103
What causes bronchilitis?
RSV
104
What most commonly causes bronchiectasis exacerbations?
Haemophilus influenzar
105
What pneumonia are you most likely to get following flu?
Staph aureus
106
What is the most common cause of CAP?
Strep pneumoniae
107
Who is at risk of lepstospirosis?
Farmers, sewage workers, vets, abbatoir workers etc
108
Erythema multiforme/target lesions are associated with what kind of pneumonia?
Mycoplasma
109
What is the antibiotic given in cellulitis for those who are penicillin allergic?
Clarithromycin
110
What is the first line treatment of cellulitis?
Flucloxacillin
111
Prolonged, watery diarrhoea in a returning traveller is...
Giardiasis
112
What type of cancer is most associated with Epstein-Barr virus?
Hodgkin's lymphoma
113
What is the most likely causative organism in meningitis of a 0-3 month old?
group B strep, E.coli or listeria monocytogenes
114
Name 3 conditions amoxicillin is used to treat
otitis media, dental ansecces and community acquired pneumonia
115
What is the most likely causative organism in meningitis of a 60+ year old person?
Strep pneumoniae
116
Cloudy CSF with low glucose and high protein?
Bacterial meningitis
117
CSF with normal glucose and high protein?
Viral meningitis
118
Opaque CSF forms fibrin web with low glucose and very elevated protein?
Tuberculosis meningitis
119
Describe the diarrhoea in amoebiasis?
gradual onset bloody diarrhoea
lasts for weeks
some abdo pain
120
Describe the diarrhoea in Giardiasis
foul-smelling watery diarrhoea
weight loss
no abdo pain/fever
121
Name 2 conditions treated with flucloxacillin
Cellulitis
| Severe otitis externa (severe)
122
What would you give for a human or animal bite?
Co-amoxiclav
123
What is the most appropriate first-line treatment for pneumonia possibly caused by atypical pathogens?
Clarithrmoycin
