Infectious disease Flashcards
1
Q
Interaction between two organisms in which both benefit:
A
Mutualism
2
Q
Interaction between two organisms in which one organism benefits and the other is left unharmed nor helped:
A
Commensalism
3
Q
Example of commensalism:
A
C. albicans
4
Q
-bind to or enter host cells
-release endotoxins or exotoxins
-release enzymes that degrade tissue components
-damage blood vessels and cause ischemic injury
-induce host inflammatory and immune responses
These are all ways that:
A
Pathogens can injure cells and cause tissue damage
5
Q
-prions
-viruses
-bacteria
-chlamydia
-rickettsia
-mycoplasma
-fungi
-protozoa
-helminths
-ectoparasites
these are all:
A
Pathogens
6
Q
What are the steps to viral infection and replication: (5)
A
- attach
- penetrate
- reproduce
- assemble
- release
7
Q
Give an example of a transient viral infection:
A
Hep A
8
Q
Give an example of a chronic latent infection:
A
Herpes simplex virus
9
Q
Give an example of chronic productive viral infection:
A
Hep B
10
Q
Give an example of a transforming viral infection:
A
Epstein Barr virus or HPV
11
Q
The natural reservoir for human herpes virus (HHV):
A
Humans
12
Q
HHV-1:
HHV-2:
HHV-3:
HHV-4:
HHV-5:
HHV-8:
A
HHV-1: HSV-1
HHV-2: HSV-2
HHV-3: Varicella zoster virus
HHV-4: Epstein Barr virus
HHV-5: Cytomegalovirus
HHV-8: Kaposi Sarcoma associated virus
13
Q
Flu-like illness with fever, malaise, arthralgia, headache and cervical lymphadenopathy:
A
Primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
14
Q
What ganglion is affected in HSV infection?
A
Trigeminal ganglion
15
Q
Herpes infection behind the ear (common in wrestlers):
A
Herpes gladiatorum
16
Q
Around eye involvement of HSV:
A
HSV autoinoculation
17
Q
Herpes of cornea:
A
Keratitis
18
Q
Focal mucosal destruction; a T-lymphocyte mediated cytotoxic reaction:
A
Recurrent aphthous stomatitis
19
Q
Describe the evolution of an aphthous ulcer:
A
- erythematous macule
- ulceration
- fibrinous membrane
20
Q
The precipitating factors for recurrent aphthous stomatitis include: (7)
A
- SLS
- Stress
- Trauma
- Allergies
- Acid foods/juices
- Gluten
- Endocrine alterations
21
Q
Clinical forms of recurrent aphthous stomatitis:
A
- minor aphthae
- major aphthae
- herpetiform
22
Q
What is a key difference in the recovery of minor vs. major aphthae:
A
Major involves scarring
23
Q
How can we differentiate between herpetiform aphthae and recurrent intraoral herpes simplex?
A
Herpetiform aphthae is located on non-keratinized mucosa and does not begin as vesicles
24
Q
Describe the vesicular stage presence, number of lesions & location of lesion of recurrent herpes:
A
- yes
- multiple, confluent
- masticatory mucosa
25
Describe the vesicular stage presence, number of lesions & location of lesion of recurrent aphthae:
1. no
2. frequently solitary
3. moveable mucosa
26
Aphthous-like lesions may be associated with systemic diseases such as:
1. Behcet's syndrome
2. Reiters syndrome
3. inflammatory bowel disease (ulcerative colitis & Crohn's disease)
4. malabsorption syndromes (gluten sensitive enteropathy)
5. cyclic neutropenia
6. HIV/AIDs
27
Discuss the transmission of varicella (chicken pox):
transmission by inspiration of infected droplets
28
What ganglion is involved in the latent phase of varicella zoster (shingles phase):
dorsal spinal ganglion
29
Varicella= ______
Herpes zoster= ____
chicken pox
shingles
30
Hepatitis A is a ____ infection
transient
31
Name two viruses that involve chronic latent infections:
1. cytomegalovirus
2. HSV
32
Name a virus that is considered a chronic productive infection:
Hep B virus
33
Name two viruses that are considered transforming infections:
1. Epstein Barr
2. HPV
34
Atypical lymphocytes called Downey cells are characteristic of:
Infectious mononucleosis (HHV-4)
35
What cell is shown in this image? What are they characteristic of?
Atypical lymphocytes called downey cells; infectious mononucleosis (HHV-4)
36
What gingival disease is associated with infectious mononucelosis?
Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
37
What lab tests are used to test for infectious mononucleosis?
1. monospot test
2. EBV- specific testing
3. heterophile antibody *although not specific for EBV
38
What is the heterophile antibody induced by EBV infection? (for mono)
IgM antibody
39
The antibody involved in infectious mononucleosis is a _____ antibody
heterophile
40
The heterophile (IgM) antibody induced by the EBV infection binds to _____ antigen of sheep and bovine RBCs
paul-bunnell
41
infectious mononucleosis tends to be _____ and reccommended treatment is _____.
symptomatic; bed rest to prevent splenic rupture
42
Epithelial hyperplasia associated with EBV infection:
Oral hairy leukoplakia
43
What is a common location for oral hairy leukoplakia?
lateral border of tongue
44
Although oral hairy leukoplakia is associated with EBV infection, it may occur:
in any immunodeficient state
45
What is shown in this image?
Hairy tongue (NOT oral hairy leukoplakia)
46
What is seen in this image? What condition is this often associated with?
Oral hairy leukoplakia (epithelial hyperplasia); associated with EBV infection
47
What is seen in this image? What condition is this often associated with?
48
Cytomegalovirus (CMV) may also be called:
HHV-5
49
Most of the population affected by CMV by age:
60
50
Most CMV infections are:
Asymptomatic
51
What are the stages of cytomegalovirus? (3)
1. initial infection
2. latency
3. reactivation
52
This histological slide is characteristic of:
Cytomegalovirus (alien-looking ass cell)
53
Acute infection by cytomegalovirus is similar to _____ but is _____ negative
infectious mononucleosis (EBV); heterophile antibody negative
54
Rarely, what comorbidities may accompany cytomegalovirus?
acute sialodenitis with painful swelling & xerostomia
55
A result of cytomegalovirus infections in immunocompromised individuals may cause: (2)
1. retinitis- blindness
2. colitis
56
Self-limited disease that occurs in epidemics of flu-like symptoms in young children:
Coxasackievirus (group A)
57
Coxasackievirus group A is transmitted by:
Fecal-oral and airborne routes
58
Herpangina involves what types of symptoms?
constitutional
59
Begins as small vesicles that rupture and ulcerate:
Herpangina
60
Common locations of herpangina include:
posterior oral cavity & oral pharynx
61
Vesicular eruption of hands, feet and anterior mouth:
Hand foot and mouth disease
62
Another name for measles:
Rubeola
63
Measles (rubeola) is a ____ disease often seen in _____, characterized by _____
communicable disease; children; skin rash
64
Children are given ____ vaccine to protect against measles (rubeola)
MMR
65
______ are a characteristic sign of measles (rubeola)
Koplik spots
66
"grains of salt" on an erythmatous base:
Koplik spots
67
The characteristic koplik spots seen in measles (rubeola) signify:
foci of epithelial necrosis
68
Infectious parotitis:
mumps
69
Acute viral parotitis (mumps) may also be called:
Endemic parotitis
70
Acute viral parotitis (mumps) is a _____ disease seen in _____ and is vaccinated against with the ______ vaccination
communicable; childhood; MMR
71
mumps is _____% _____ infection
30% subclinical
72
mumps involves _____ constitutional symptoms
prodromal
73
Disease characterized by salivary gland swelling & discomfort:
mumps
74
What is occurring in this image, and what is it caused by?
Salivary gland swelling; mumps
75
What is an elevated laboratory finding in mumps?
elevated serum amylase- released from granules during lysis of acinar cells
76
Describe the test for mumps:
specific serological ltests
77
Complications of mumps (rare in the young and more common in older individuals) include: (8)
1. orchitis
2, oophoritis
3. mastitis
4. meningitis
5. thyroiditis
6. pancreatitis
7. sterility
8. hearing loss
78
Bacterial pathogens can cause what types of infections?
1. transient
2. localized
3. systemic
79
Bacterial pathogens may be _____ or _____
(in regards to the cell)
intracellular or extracellular
80
Tuberculosis is caused by the bacterial pathogen:
mycobacterium tuberculosis
81
What is the most common infection with mycobacterium tuberculosis?
pulmonary infection
82
Mycobacterium tuberculosis is a _____ pathogen that causes _____
intracellular pathogen; granulomatous disease
83
What is the prevalence of tuberculosis:
1/3 of world population infected
84
Leading cause of death after AIDs:
tuberculosis
85
Tuberculosis targets disadvantages populations such as:
1. homeless
2. malnourished
3. overcrowded
86
Active tuberculosis cases are increasing due to:
1. HIV infection
2. Immigration
87
Growth of the organism in a TB patient:
Destructive, symptomatic disease in a TB patient:
Infection; active disease
88
Transmission of tuberculosis is by: (3)
1. Droplet nuclei (1-5 microns)
2. stay airborne for long periods of time
3. reach the pulmonary alveoli
89
Type of TB that occurs in a previously unexposed (unsensitized) person:
Primary pulmonary tuberculosis
90
Primary pulmonary tuberculosis is associated with _____ (parenchymal lung lesion & hilar nodal lesion)
Gohn complex
91
Parenchymal lung lesion & hilar nodal lesion associated with primary pulmonary TB:
Gohn complex
92
What host response controls primary pulmonary TB infection?
cell-mediated immunity
93
_____ and _____ are both seen in primary pulmonary tuberculosis
fibrosis & calcification
94
Viable organisms may be dormant in lesions of latent disease in tuberculosis by may:
Reactivate if immune defenses are lowered
95
What is seen in this image? What is this characteristic of?
Acid fast bacilli; tuberculosis
96
mycobacterium tuberculosis intracellular pathogen contains _____ which blocks fusion of phagosome with lysosome
TB cord factor
97
Diagnosis of TB includes: (3)
1. chest radiograph
2. sputum culture
3. molecular biologic tools
98
Treatment of TB involves ________ regimens including the drugs: (6)
Multi-drug regimens
-Isoniazid
-Rifampin
-Ethambutol
-Streptomycin
-Pyranzinimide
-Rifabutin
99
Symptoms of active TB include: (5)
1. chronic cough
2. hemoptysis
3. weight loss
4. night sweats
5. fever
100
What test is used to test for tuberculosis?
Mantoux tuberculin skin test (PPD test)
101
The mantoux tuberculin skin test (PPD test) is a _____ reaction to the protein from M. Tuberculosis
type IV delayed hypersensitivity
102
_______ tuberculin injection is how the mantoux tuberculin skin test is performed
intracutaneous
103
In a PPD test, what occurs with a positive result?
T-cells sensitized by prior infection are recruited to the area and this produces an area of induration
104
What does a positive tuberculin skin test signify?
1. Individual has been infected
2. Cell-mediated hypersensitivity occurs
3. Does NOT indicate active disease
105
Describe the Bacillus Calmette-Guerin (BCG) vaccination for TB: (4)
1. What type of vaccination is it
2. What does it cause
3. Is it effective
4. Territories of use
1. Live, attenuated strain of mycobacterium bovis
2. Causes positive PPD reaction
3. Effectiveness uncertain
4. Not used in U.S.
106
The bacillus calmette-guerin (BCG) vaccine is used for:
TB
107
Tuberculosis lymphadenitis of the neck:
Scrofula
108
Scrofula is tuberculosis lymphadenitis of the neck caued by:
Mycobacterium bovis infection from infected milk
109
How do we prevent scrofula infections? (2)
1. pasteurization of milk
2. tuberculosis control of cattle
110
Syphillis is caused by:
Treponema pallidum
111
What are the two forms of syphillus?
1. acquired syphilis (sexual transmission)
2. congenital syphilis (in-utero transmission)
112
What are the clinical stages of untreated acquired syphilis (inlcude their time frames):
1. primary (1 week to 3 months)
2. secondary (1 to 12 months)
3. tertiary (late) (1 to 30 years)
113
Latent syphilis infections can relapse into:
Secondary syphilis infections
114
These images show _____ which is characteristic of ____
Primary chancre of syphilis (primary infection)
115
These images show _____ which is characteristic of ____
Primary chancre of syphilis (primary infection)
116
This image shows _____ which is characteristic of _____
Primary chancre of syphilis (primary infection)
117
Lesions of secondary syphilis include: (3)
1. skin rash
2. mucous patch
3. condyloma lata
118
These image are characteristic of:
Secondary syphilis
119
What is show in these images? What is this characteristic of?
Maculopapular rash; secondary syphilis
120
What is show in these images? What is this characteristic of?
Mucous patch; secondary syphilis
121
Most destructive stage of syphilis:
Tertiary syphilis
122
_____ & ______ are signs of Tertiary syphilis
gumma & symphilitis glossitis
123
Tertiary syphilis may have nervous system involvement called:
Neurosyphilis (tabes dorsalis)
124
Tertiary syphilis may have cardiovascular system involvement resulting in:
Aneurysm of ascending aorta
125
what systems may be involved in tertiary syphilis infection?
nervous system & cardiovascular system
126
What can be seen in the following images? What is this associated with?
Gumma; tertiary syphilis
127
What lesions are associated with the following stages of syphilis:
1. primary
2. secondary
3. tertiary
Discuss infectivity of the lesions
1. chancre- infectious
2. mucous patch- infectious
3. gumma- not infectious
128
Lesions of congenital syphilus include: (5)
1. snuffles
2. saddle nose
3. rhagades
4. hutchinson's incisors
5. mulberry molars
129
Congenital syphilis depressed nasal bridge=
Saddle nose
130
Dental stigmata of congenital syphilis inlcude:
hutchinson's incisors & mulberry molars
131
Hutchinson's triad of congenital syphilis:
1. blind- interstitial keratitis
2. deaf
3. dental anomalies
132
Describe the laboratory tests for syphilis:
1. culture-
2. microscopy-
3. serological tests-
1. cannot culture
2. dark field or fluorescence microscopy
3. non-treponemal tests- reagin - antibody to cardiolipin & treponemal test- specific for T. Pallidum
133
Discuss the non-treponemal tests- reagin - antibody to cardiolipin for syphilis (2):
1. VDRL- venereal disease research labratory
2. RPR- Rapid plasma reagin
134
Discuss the treponemal tests- specific for T. Pallidum for syphilis: (2)
1. FTA-ABS (fluorescent treponemal antigen absorption)
2. MHA-TP (microhemagglutinin- treponema pallidum)
135
Actinomycosis is a _____ pathogen
fungal
136
Diseases caused by fungi may be classified as: (4)
1. superficial
2. subcutaneous
3. systemic
4. opportunistic
137
Fungal disease of the skin, hair, or nails:
superficial
138
What is an example of a fungal infection that causes superficial disease?
dermatophytes
139
Fungal disease of the dermis and subcutaneous tissue:
subcutaneous
140
What is an example of a fungal infection that causes subcutaneous disease?
sporotricosis
141
Deep fungal infections of internal organs:
systemic
142
What is an example of a fungal infection that causes systemic disease?
histoplasmosis
143
Fungal infection of an immunocompromised host:
Opportunistic
144
What is an example of an opportunistic fungal infection?
Candidiasis
145
Histoplasmosis is endemic to:
mississippi river valley
146
Transission of histoplasmosis:
by inhalation of spores (bird droppings & dust particles)
147
_____ infection is usual of histoplasmosis
sub-clinical
148
Histoplasmosis presents similar to a ______ syndrome
flu-like
149
Deep fungal infection of the lungs caused by the inhalation of spores"
Histoplasmosis
150
Discuss the components of histoplasmosis: (4)
1. ______ of spores
2. ______
3. specific _____
4. _____ of organism
5. _____ _____
1. inhalation of spores
2. phagocytosis
3. specific immunity
4. killing of organism
5. dystrophic calcification
151
What are the arrows pointing to?
Histoplasma Capsulatum
152
Histoplasma capsulatum is a _______ fungus meaning:
Dimorphic fungus; yeast at body temperature, mold in nature
153
______% of the population is infected with histoplasma capsulatum
80-90%
154
What is the most common systemic fungal infection in U.S.?
Histoplasma Capsulatum
155
Histoplasmosis infection occurring in the elderly, debilitated, immunosuppressed or AIDs patients:
Disseminated histoplasmosis
156
Disseminated histoplasmosis involves the spread to:
extra-pulmonary sites
157
_____ lesions such as _____ and _____ are involved with disseminated histoplasmosis
adreneal lesions; addisons disease
oral lesions
158
Valley fever=
coccidiodomycosis
159
-Deep fungal infection
-40% develop respiratory symptoms
-disseminated disease may occur
-common in southwestern areas
Coccidioidomycosis
160
Clinical forms of oral candidiasis include: (5)
1. pseudomembranous (thrush)
2. erythematous (atrophic)
3. hyperplastic
4. angular chelitis (perleche)
5. central papillary atrophy
161
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
pseudomembraneous (thrush)
162
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
erythematous (atrophic)
163
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
hyperplastic
164
What form of candidiasis may also be called thrush?
pseudomembraneous
165
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
angular chelitis (Perleche)
166
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
central papillary atrophy
167
What form of candidiasis may be called perleche?
angular chelitis
168
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
Acute pseudomembraneous (thrush)
169
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
acute pseudomembraneous (thrush)
170
What is the treatment for pseudomembraneous candidiasis?
Fluconazole (Diflucan) 100g
171
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
atrophic candidiasis
172
_____ agar has a low pH and gentramycin to inhibit bacterial growth (and allow for candidiasis growth)
Sabaurad agar
173
What feature is present on oral exfoliative cytology for diagnosis of candidiasis fungal infections?
candidal pseudohyphae
174
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
Erythematous candidiasis
175
What is the treatment of erythemaous candidiasis?
Fluconazole (Diflucan) 100mg
176
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
Erythematous candidiasis
177
What is one way someone can get a candidiasis infection due to medication?
steroid inhaler
178
Angular chelitis may also be called:
Perlache
179
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
angular chelitis
180
What are the treatment options for angular chelitis?
-Clotrimazole (mycelex) Cream 1%
-Nystatin/Triamcinolone Ointmemt
-Vytone cream
181
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
Hyperplastic candidiasis
182
Central papillary atrophy may also be called:
median rhomboid glossitis
183
What is seen in the image below? (give both names)
Central papillary atrophy (median rhomboid glossitis)
184
What clinical form of oral candidiasis is pictured below?
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis (T-cell defects)
185
Chronic mucocutaneous candidiasis is caused by a:
T-cell defect
186
Candidiasis is common in what type of infection?
HIV
187
