Exam II Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Circulating immune complexes filter out small vessels & activate the complement cascade. C5a attracts neutrophils which causes local damaging inflammation..

A

Type III immune injury disease

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2
Q

All of the following are autoimmune diseases except:

a) systemic lupus erythematous
b) Bruton’s hypogammaglobulinemia
c) Sjogren’s
d) Graves

A

b) bruton’s hypogammaglobulinemia

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3
Q

Which organ has very low tolerance to edema?

A

Brain & lungs

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4
Q

Patients with Peutz-Jegher syndrome often present with:

a) multiple mucosal melanomas
b) nevus flamm
c) perioral freckling
d) petechial hemorrhage

A

c) perioral frecking

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5
Q

T/F: Grading of malignancy is done by pathologist at the microscope. Staging is done by the clinician to determine distribution of tumor in the body.

A

T/T

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6
Q

T/F: A diagnosis of squamous cell carcinoma can be made clinically

A

T

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7
Q

Kaposi’s sarcoma is caused by the HIV:

A

False (Caused by HHV8)

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8
Q

The most common cause of right-sided heart failure is:

A

Left-sided heart failure

(Left-sided heart failure is usually caused by CAD, MI, or long-term HTN)

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9
Q

What terminology is used to describe invagination of the small intestines into itself, leading to necrosis?

A

Intussusception

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10
Q

Pt’s with Barretts esophagus are at risk of developing what type of malignancy?

A

Adenocarcinoma (most common in U.S.)

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11
Q

The oral lesions associated with ulcerative colitis are known as:

A

Pyostomatitis vegetans

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12
Q

What terminology used to describe metastasis of an adenocarcinoma to the bilateral ovaries?

A

Krunkenburg tumor

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13
Q

What is the average lifespan of a RBC?

A

120 days

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14
Q

What radiographic term can be used to describe both sickle cell anemia & thalassemia?

A

Hair on end

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15
Q

Sickle cell anemia occurs due to substitution between which two amino acids?

A

Valine to glutamic acid

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16
Q

Patient with Plummer Vinson syndrome present with chic type of anemia?

A

Iron deficiency

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17
Q

Which anemia is considered an autoimmune disease?

A

Hemolytic anemia

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18
Q

In viral infections, which type of WBC is elevated?

A

Leukocytes

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19
Q

What immune deficiency is caused by having a pronounced decrease in the number of neutrophils?

A

Neutropenia

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20
Q

When presenting with oral manifestation, what leukemia has a predilection for the gingiva?

A

Acute myelogenous leukemia (AML)

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21
Q

What low grade lymphoma can be associated with patients with Sjogren’s

A

MALToma

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22
Q

Which high-grade lymphoma has a pre-direction for the jawbone of children & is associated with herpes IV (Epstein Barr)?

A

Burkett’s lymphoma

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23
Q

A malignancy of plasma cells is referred to as:

A

multiple myeloma

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24
Q

Name one medication that impairs the ability of platelets to aggregate:

A

Aspirin

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25
Q

T/F: The right lung has 2 lobes

A

False (right has three, left has two)

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26
Q

T/F: An aspirated crown is more likely to lodge in the right side

A

True

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27
Q

What type of necrosis is seen in TB?

A

Caseous necrosis

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28
Q

What are three types of atelectasis?

A
  1. resorption
  2. compression
  3. contraction
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29
Q

Which type of emphysema predominates in non-smokers?

A

Paracinar emphysema

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30
Q

What are three different types of lung cancer?

A
  1. squamous cell carcinoma
  2. adenocarcinoma
  3. small call carcinoma
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31
Q

What are three different hormones secretes by the anterior pituitary gland?

A

-FSN
-LH
-ACTH
-TSH
-Prolactin
-Endorphins
-Growth hormone

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32
Q

Excess secretion of GH after epiphyseal plates have closed results in which abnormality?

A

Acromegaly

(if it was before- gigantism)

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33
Q

What specific portion of adrenal gland secretes glucocorticoids (cortisol) and is regulated by ACTH?

A

Zona fasiculata of adrenal cortex

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34
Q

What specific portion of the adrenal cortex secretes aldosterone & is regulated by angiotensin II?

A

Zona glomerulosa

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35
Q

What specific portion of the adrenal cortex secretes androgens & has NO feedback with ACTH?

A

Zona reticularis

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36
Q

What is the oral manifestation of MEN 2B?

A

Mucosal neuromas

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37
Q

Glucagon is secreted by which type of pancreatic cell?

A

Alpha cells

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38
Q

Insulin is secreted by which type of pancreatic cell?

A

Beta cells

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39
Q

T/F: Hep A is considered an STD

A

True

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40
Q

A 25yo man presents to oral surgery for extraction of #15 with divergent & dilacerated roots. When patient returned..cluster of small painful ulcerations that began as vesicles were noted on hard palate. On palpation, the lesions were not indurated and didn’t have roller border or symptoms. Which of the following is the most appropriate diagnosis?

A

Recurrent herpetic infection

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41
Q

What immune system deficiency is caused by having a pronounced decrease in # of neutrophils?

A

Neutropenia

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42
Q

Whats the name of the oral lesion in secondary syphillis?

A

Mucous patch

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43
Q

Increase in overall size of tissues due to increase in size of cells:

A

Hypertrophy

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44
Q

Name two periapical pathosis that can present as a periapical radiolucency associated with a non-vital tooth:

A

periapical cyst & periapical granuloma

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45
Q

Name the most common benign salivary gland tumor:

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

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46
Q

Vomiting of fresh red blood:

A

Hematemesis

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47
Q

Which type of colonic polyp has the greatest incidence of underoing malignancy?

A

Villous adenoma

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48
Q

The oral lesions associated with ulcerative colitis are known as:

A

Pyostomatitis vegetans

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49
Q

A 60yo male caries a diagnosis of stable angina pectoris. Which of the following features would you NOT expect to encounter during the normal, uncomplicated course of this condition?

a) unpredictable spontaneous pain at rest
b) in stable angina: pain is predictable, reproducible & consistent over time
c) it is relieved by cessation of the event or nitroglycerine
d) variant angina occurs at rest

A

d) variant angina occurs at rest

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50
Q

Stage 1 HTN > or =

A

130/80 mmHg

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51
Q

stage 2 HTN > =

A

140/90 mmHg

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52
Q

The most common congenital heart defect in humans is:

A

Ventricular septal defect

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53
Q

Granulomatous inflammation occurs in:

A

Crohns disease

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54
Q

Crohns disease can present as:

A

All of the above
-oral lesion
-thickened intestinal
-fistula formation
-low malignancy
-occurs in distal ileum & colon

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55
Q

Ulcerative colitis can present as:

A

All of the above
-pseudopolyps
-thin intestinal wall
-increased risk of malignance

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56
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with MEN 2B:

A

-Pituitary tumor

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57
Q

Which of the following IS associated with MEN 2B:

A
  1. Marfanoid body type
  2. medullary carcinoma
  3. adrenal pheochromocytomas
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58
Q

Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is characterized by what type of polyps?

A

Harmartomatous polyps

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59
Q

Perioral freckling occurs in what syndrome?

A

Peutz-Jegher

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60
Q

Macroglossia is caused by:

A

Amyloidosis

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61
Q

Carcinoid tumors secrete what hormone?

A

serotonin

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62
Q

Krukenburg tumor is found in the:

A

ovaries

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63
Q

Which is the most common gene translocation for chronic myelogenous leukemia?

A

T (9:22)
Philadelphia chromosome

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64
Q

T/F: MEN 2A is autosomal dominant and has a mutation on Chr10q protooncogne:

A

True

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65
Q

High risk in cancer in all of the following except:

A

Acanthrosis nigiricans

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66
Q

Which is not true of in-situ?

A

Has invaded the basement membrane (because in-situ has not yet invaded)

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67
Q

Invagination of the intestine itself:

A

Intussusception

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68
Q

Plummer-Vincent is NOT:

A

Pernicious anemia (affects Scandinavian & European women, iron deficiency anemia, esophageal webs, dysphagia, increased risk of squamous cell carcinoma)

69
Q

Increased risk of adenocarcinoma:

A

Barretts esophagus

70
Q

Meckle diverticulum is a developmental defect of:

A

Small intestine (ileum)

71
Q

Pt has pheocrhomotoma of adrenal medulla & nodules in the mouth. What do they have?

A

MEN 2B

72
Q

An escape of blood is called:

A

Hemorrhage

73
Q

Which of the following is true about congestive heart failure:

A

right sided is caused by left sided

74
Q

Chronic congestive liver disease is caused by:

A

right sided heart failure

75
Q

Which of the following does NOT result from MI?

A

Angina

76
Q

Infection of the blood:

A

Septicemia

77
Q

Complete loss of blood supply to the organ:

A

Infarct

78
Q

Major contributor of osmotic colloid pressure:

A

Albumin

79
Q

Edema present in right-side heart failure:

A

Pitting edema

80
Q

Organ that edema is NOT tolerated in:

A

Brain

81
Q

Hemorrhage into skin & mucosa sizes:

A

Petechia < purpura < ecchymosis

82
Q

Unwanted blood clot:

A

Thrombus

83
Q

Thrombi on heart valves:

A

Vegetations

84
Q

Dislodgement & travel of thrombus:

A

Embolism

85
Q

Virchow’s triad does not include:

A

Epithelium

(does include: endothelial injury, stasis or turbulent blood flow, hypercoagulability)

86
Q

T/F: Sarcomas travel by hematogenesis route and end in the lungs. Carcinomas travel via lymphatics and end up in the lymph nodes:

A

T/T

87
Q

Most common tumor of the lungs:

A

Metastatic

88
Q

Which has the alpha-1 anti-trypsin deficiency?

A

Panacinar emphysema

89
Q

Loss of sympathetic innervation (aka Horner’s) causes all of the following except:

A

Exopthalmia

90
Q

Which is most likely to metastasize?

A

squamous cell carcinoma

91
Q

Surfactant is secreted by:

A

Type II pneumocytes

92
Q

What type of collapsed lung is caused by obstruction of the airway?

A

Resorption

93
Q

What type of collapsed lung is caused by fluid within pleural cavity?

A

Compression

94
Q

What type of collapsed lung is caused by localized or general fibrotic changes?

A

Contraction

95
Q

COPD consists of:

A

Chronic bronchitis & emphysema

96
Q

T/F: Mesothelioma is a benign outgrowth of pleura. It decreases with asbestos exposure.

A

OF/F

97
Q

Most pain receptors are on the:

A

pleura of lungs

98
Q

T/F: Grading is done by a pathologist, staging is done by a clinician.

A

T/T

99
Q

You can diagnose squamous cell carcinoma clinically:

A

False

100
Q

Which presents with granulomatous inflammation:

A

Crohns disease

101
Q

Which is most likely to metastasize:

A

Squamous cell carcinoma

102
Q

Carcinoid tumor releases what hormone:

A

serotonin

103
Q

Complete loss of blood supply that leads to necrosis:

A

infarct

104
Q

Which of the following does NOT result from myocardial infarction?

A

angina

105
Q

Which of the following is NOT commonly associated with fixed stenosis?

A

Necrosis

106
Q

Which of the following is NOT a cause of MI?

A

aneurysm

107
Q

Which of the following is the most common congenital heart defect?

A

VSD

108
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about infective endocarditis?

A

Viral infection

109
Q

Invagination of he small intestine on itself:

A

Intussusception

110
Q

Chronic congestive liver disease is caused by:

A

Right-sided heart failure

111
Q

Krukenburg tumor is found on the:

A

Ovaries

112
Q

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for atherosclerosis?

A

Aneurysm

113
Q

Granulmatous inflammation occurs in:

A

Crohn’s disease

114
Q

Crohn’s disease can present as:

a) oral lesions
b) thickened intestinal wall
c) fistula formation
d) low malignancy
e) occurs in the distal ileum & colon
f) all of the above

A

f) all of the above

115
Q

Ulcerative colitis can present as:

a) psuedopolyps
b) thin intestinal wall
c) increased risk of malignancy
d) pyostomatitis vegetans
e) all of the above

A

e) all of the above

116
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with MEN 2B?

a) intraoral mucosal neuromas
b) thyroid tumor
c) pituitary tumor
d) tumor of the adrenal medulla (adrenal pheochromocytoma)

A

c) pituitary tumor (NOT ASSOCIATED WITH MENS 2B)

117
Q

Type of polyps seen in Peutz-Jegher?

A

Hamartamatous polyps

118
Q

What type of polyps are seen in Gardner syndrome?

A

adenomatous polyps

119
Q

Pt with downward slanting palpebral fissures, Colombia of lower eyelid, and hypoplastic zygoma:

A

Mandibulofacial dysplasia (Treacher collins)

120
Q

Keloid is made of:

A

Collagen

121
Q

Which of the following is due to defect in fibrilin?

A

Marfan syndrome

122
Q

Which of the following expresses asymmetry?

A

Parry Romberg

123
Q

Perioral freckling occurs in what syndrome?

A

Peutz-Jegher

124
Q

Signs of Pierre Robin?

a) mandibular hypoplasia
b) palatal cleft
c) glossoptosis
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

125
Q

Macroglossia is caused by:

A

amyloidosis

126
Q

What type of collapse lung is caused by obstruction of the airway?

A

Resorption

127
Q

What type of collapsed lung is caused by fluid within pleural cavity?

A

Compression

128
Q

What type of collapsed lung is caused by local or generalized fibrotic changes?

A

Contraction

129
Q

COPD:

A

Emphysema & chronic bronchitis

130
Q

Plummer Vincent is NOT:

A

Pernicious anemia

(pernicious anemia is associated with autoimmune atrophic gastritis)

131
Q

Most pain receptors are on the:

A

Pleura of the lungs

132
Q

Pt has pheocytochromatoma of adrenal medulla, and nodules in the mouth. Diagnosis?

A

Men 2B

133
Q

Head and neck malignancy:

A

Garnder syndrome

134
Q

Yellowing of gingiva:

A

Jaundice

135
Q

Hard palate:

A

PLGA

(polymorphous low-grade adenocarcinoma- a rare tumor of the minor salivary glands; often hard palate involvement)

136
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis at risk for:

A

Non-Hodgekin lymphoma

137
Q

A 55yr old with swollen gingiva & bruising:

A

AML

138
Q

What does NOT have to do with hyper-pituitary hormones?

A

Sheehan syndrome

(this is necrosis of pituitary gland postpartum = hypo)

139
Q

What is co-associated with hep D?

A

Hep B

140
Q

T/F: Mesothelioma is a BENIGN outgrowth of the pleura. It DECREASES with asbestos exposure.

A

F/F (malignant & increases with exposure to asbestos)

141
Q

Meckel diverticulum is a developmental defect of the:

A

Small intestine (ileum)

142
Q

Barretts esophagus causes an increased risk of:

A

adenocarcinoma

143
Q

H. Pylori can be involved in all of the following EXCEPT:

a) squamous cell carcinoma
b) chronic gastritis
c) peptic ulcer disease
d) gastric adenocarcinoma
e) gastric MALT lymphoma

A

a) squamous cell carcinoma (has nothing to do with H. Pylori)

144
Q

Which has the alpha-1-antitrypsin deficiency?

A

Panacinar emphysema

145
Q

Which disease has an autoimmune component?

a) pernicious anemia
b) sickle cell anemia
c) folic acid
d) iron deficiency

A

a) pernicious anemia

(diminished vitamin B12 absorption)

146
Q

Life span of RBC:

A

4 months (120 days)

147
Q

Hair on end radiographic appearance:

A

Thalassemia
(sickle cell trait??)

148
Q

Most common anemia?

A

Iron deficiency

149
Q

CML gene translocation:

A

9:22

150
Q

Step ladder:

A

Sickle cell anemia

151
Q

Sjrogen’s syndrome is associated with which lymphoma

A

MALT-oma

(A chronic long-lasting autoimmune disorder that happens when immune system attacks the glands that make moisture in the eyes, mouth & other parts of the body)

152
Q

Insulin is produced by:

A

Beta cells (in islets of langerhans)

153
Q

Thrombocytopenia purpura platelet count would be:

A

too little

154
Q

Multiple myeloma radiographically appears as:

A

Punched out radiolucency

155
Q

Most common leukemia in children?

A

ALL

156
Q

Pheochromocytoma & mucosal neuromas =

A

men 2B

157
Q

Universal donor blood type:

A

O

158
Q

Chipmunk face for thalassemia is due to:

A

Compensatory hyperPLASIA of bone marrow

159
Q

Kid regularly has aphthous ulcerations on the tongue, chronic gingivitis & bone loss:

A

cyclic neutropenia

160
Q

Surfactant is secreted by:

A

type II pneumoncytes

161
Q

Histologically similar to parotid:

A

acinic cell carcinoma

162
Q

Histologically looks like Swiss cheese:

A

Adenoid cystic carcinoma (poor longterm prognosis)

163
Q

Histologically a mixture of ductal and my-epithelial elements:

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

164
Q

most common benign salivary gland tumor:

A

Pleomorphic adenoma

165
Q

most common malignant salivary gland tumor:

A

mucoepidermoid carcinoma

166
Q

Salivary gland tumor that favors hard palate:

A

polymorphus low grade adenocarcinoma

167
Q

Upper lip tumor:

A

Monomorphic adenoma

168
Q

Most likely to be in the parotid gland:

A

papillary cyst adenoma lymphomatosum

169
Q
A