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RRCCPA Physiology/Pathophysiology I > Immunology > Flashcards

Immunology Flashcards

1
Q

A Type II hypersensitivity reaction is mediated by which 2 immunoglobulins?

A

IgM and IgG

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2
Q

Which T cell is the only T cell capable of directly attacking and killing other cells, and whose main target is virally infected cells?

A

Cytotoxic T cell (can release cytokines after attacking virus infected cell)

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3
Q

Two types of complement pathways

A

classic and alternative

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4
Q

One of the two main immunity strategies found in vertebrates that uses cytokines for inflammation, complement to identify bacteria, activate phagocytes, promote clearance of dead cells, identification and removal of foreign substances through WBCs, and acts as a physical and chemical barrier to infectious agents (ie: skin, sweat)?

A

Innate immunity

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5
Q

Which immunoglobulin is present on the surface of B cells and is the FIRST TO RESPOND during and antigenic challenge?

A

IgM

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6
Q

Myasthenia Gravis, an autoimmune disorder, is when self reactive antibodies bind to receptor sites for the neurotransmitter ___________, which causes _________ ___________.

A

Acetylcholine Ach, muscle fatigue

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7
Q

T-cells pertain to which type of immunity?

A

Cell mediated immunity

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8
Q

Are T cells able to recognize Ag’s?

A

No, they respond only to processed fragments of Ag’s found on APC’s

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9
Q

antibody

A

reacts with a specific antigen

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10
Q

Which immunoglobulin blocks transport of microbes across MUCOSA?

A

IgA

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11
Q

Leukopoor blood, where the leukocytes are removed leaving packed RBCs, is used for what purpose?

A

To minimize immune reactions to blood

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12
Q

Which immunoglobulin is the MOST ABUNDANT circulating Ab, is present after immunizations and infections, and is also the only one able to cross the placenta?

A

IgG

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13
Q

T/F: When talking about blood type and compatibility of blood products, blood that is Rh negative can be given to a patient with Rh positive blood.

A

True

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14
Q

Antigen

A

substances that target an immune response

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15
Q

A type IV hypersensitivity reaction is when T helper cells are activated to release cytokines upon binding to antigen, resulting in macrophage and cytotoxic T cell accumulation. Name 2 examples.

A

Contact dermatitis, transplant rejection

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16
Q

What cells are phagocytes, engulfing the invading cell and presenting “flags” on their surface for CD4+ T helper cell recognition?

A

Macrophages, Neutrophils, Dendritic cells, B cells, any kind of antigen presenting cell (APC)

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17
Q

Both Multiple Myeloma and MGUS create an M spike in the gamma wave on SPE, but how is multiple myeloma differentiated?

A

In Multiple myeloma, plasma B cells over-proliferate and infiltrate the bone marrow causing lytic lesions of bone, which is picked up during imaging.

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18
Q

When would you find IgE

A

In an allergic reaction and in cases of parasitic infection

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19
Q

Multiple Myeloma and MGUS are both diseases of Ig overproduction by what type of cells? (What cells make antibodies?)

A

Plasma B Cells

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20
Q

T Helper CD4 turn immune response ____ (on or off)

A

on

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21
Q

True or false: B-cells are involved with humoral immunity

A

true

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22
Q

T-helper CD4+ cell receptors bind to APC where?

A

MHC II

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23
Q

What 3 antibiotics or antibiotic genres should be avoided if a patient has Myasthenia Gravis due to risk of exacerbation?

A

Fluoroquinolones, gentamycin, azithromycin

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24
Q

What cells leave a tag on invading microbes for macrophages to destroy

A

t-cells

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25
Q 
The mono test-Heterophile  AB, or “monospot,” looks for what immunoglobulin?
A. IgD
B. IgM
C. IgE
D. IgA
E. All of the above
F. None of the above
A

IgM for acute phase of disease

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26
Q

Name the substance released by virus infected cells that notifies other cells of the infection so they can protect themselves.

A

Interferon

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27
Q

What kind of infections may there be IgA present

A

Upper respiratory and Gastrointestinal. Any tract with musosal lining

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28
Q

Why are a majority of T cells destroyed before they are released?

A

Because they illicit a strong self-antigenic response

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29
Q

What substance mobilizes and attracts macrophages and NK cells?

A

Interferon

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30
Q

Name the antibody independent complement pathway where complement attaches to the outer membrane of a microbe, encapsulating it.

A

Alternative complement pathway

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31
Q

T/F: The T-helper CD4+ cell needs to be primed by an APC.

A

True

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32
Q

The ________ cell is the “off switch” for the immune system.

A

T-suppressor CD8

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33
Q

B cells are derived from?

A

Bone marrow, hence the “B”

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34
Q

Immune senescence also includes a loss of memory B cells and cell mediated immunity. What simple task can slow age related decline in immune function?

A

Exercise

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35
Q

T/F: When talking about blood types and blood compatibility, Rh positive blood can be given to a patient with Rh negative blood.

A

True, but the 2nd time may be fatal. The immune system recognizes the foreign Ab as an antigen after the first encounter, but the second time it could mount an immune response.

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36
Q

After maturity, what 3 locations do T cells reside?

A

Spleen
Lymph nodes
Other lymph areas such as tonsils

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37
Q

Both complement pathways converge on protein ___, which promotes phagocytosis, cell lysis, and increases inflammation.

A

C3

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38
Q

What cells are descended from blood stem cells, don’t have receptors like other lymphocytic cells, are short lived (1 week), DESTROY TUMOR CELLS, viruses, parasites, fungi, and produce cytokines?

A

Natural Killer or NK cells

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39
Q

MHC II is found on the outside of APC’s to present the Ag particle to T-helper cells so they can activate the immune response, but they also allow for recognition between what other cells?

A

Immune system cells, so they don’t attack each other

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40
Q

____ cells attract Neutrophils to site via release of lymphokines.

A

T-helper CD4+

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41
Q

Which MHC activates cytotoxic T cells?

A

MHC I

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42
Q

T cell populations

A

CD4, CD8, Cytotoxic

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43
Q 
MGUS is differentiated from multiple myeloma through a bone marrow aspirate test. The test will show a:
A. Proliferation of B cells
B. Normal level of B cells
C. Proliferation of T cells
D. Proliferation of platelets
A

B. Normal B cell levels; Proliferation of B cells is only present with multiple myeloma

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44
Q

True or false: everyone with an M-spike will have multiple myeloma

A

false: but they are at a higher risk of developing it

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45
Q

Which immunoglobulin would present on a lab test that would indicate acute infection of a certain microbe?

A

IgM

46
Q

IgG

A

Most abundant in the body. It is present with long term and past infection. Also present if someone has been vaccinated

47
Q

MHC II is present on the surface of what types of cells?

A

B, T, and APC’s (antigen present cells)

48
Q

What cells are important in preventing autoimmune reactions by suppressing B and T cell immunity?

A

T-suppressor CD8

49
Q

Where is MHC I (major histocompatibility complex) found?

A

On all body cells except blood cells

50
Q

65-85% of circulating lymphocytes are T or B cells?

A

T cells predominate

51
Q

Would you expect to find an increase/decrease in a) CD4 b)CD8 as it relates to immune senescence? Answer for both

A

Decrease in CD4 Helper, increase in CD8 suppressor

52
Q

A Type III hypersensitivity reaction is immune complex mediated where immune complexes (ex: IgG bound to IgM) are deposited in tissues leading to local or systemic inflammatory reactions. Name 2 examples of a Type III reaction.

A

RA, SLE

53
Q

Types of Major Histocompatibiliy complexes (MHC)

A

I and II

54
Q 
The HIV virus infects which cells?
A. plasma B cells
B. CD8 Suppressor
C. Memory B cells
D. CD4 helper
A

D. CD4 helper

55
Q

Name the two types of lymphocyte cells

A

T and B

56
Q

What is the universal donor and why?

A

Type O, it has no A/B/Rh antigens on RBC surface, so it can be given to anyone without them having an immune response.

57
Q 
One of the immunoelectrophoresis tests, a Serum protein electrophoresis (SPE), shows M spikes on the:
A. Alpha 1 wave
B. Alpha 2 wave
C. Beta wave
D. Gamma wave
A

D. M spikes will show up on the gamma wave

58
Q

Immunoelectrophoresis is necessary to identify MONOCLONAL ANTIBODIES, which show a class ______, which is found in both Multiple Myeloma and Monoclonal Gammopathy of Unknown Significance (MGUS).

A

M spike

59
Q

Which two immunoglobulins are present on the surface of B cells?

A

IgD IgM

60
Q

When would IgM be present?

A

In the case of an active infection. (it is the first to respond)

61
Q

The immune system’s response to self and not an antigen is called?

A

Autoimmunity (Ex: RA, MS, Lupus)

62
Q

All immunoglobulins (antibodies) have 2____chains and 2____chains?

A

Light and heavy

63
Q

What cells does HIV infect?

A

CD4+ T-helper

64
Q

Which type of hypersensitivity reaction is the only true immune response,
Type I, II, III, or IV?

A

Type I

65
Q

Name the lab test that screens for autoimmunity SLE (systemic lupus erythematous)

A

ANA or anti nuclear antibody

66
Q

Rheumatoid arthritis, an autoimmune disorder of chronic inflammation of the joints, occurs when ______ _______ _____ produced by macrophages infiltrates the joints.

A

Tumor necrosis factor

67
Q

What are the 5 classes of antibodies (Ig)?

A 
IgA
IgG
IgD
IgM
IgE
68
Q

Which disease process has ascending paralysis?
Descending?
General paralysis?

A

Guillain-Barre
Botulism
Myasthenia Gravis

69
Q

Name the part of the immune system that is composed of both humoral and cell-mediated immunity, that has “memory” from previous infections which leads to enhanced responses during subsequent encounters with the same pathogen (also is the basis for immunization)?

A

Acquired or Adaptive Immunity

70
Q

3 Type I hypersensitivity reaction examples are?

A

Allergic rhinitis, allergic asthma, anaphylaxis

71
Q

Which immunoglobulin is increased in allergic and parasitic infections?

A

IgE

72
Q

Which Ab is 1st to respond during an acute infection? Which is 2nd?

A

IgM

IgG

73
Q

ELISA, or Enzyme linked immunosorbent assays, uses a known antibody (one from patient, one indicator) to test for what 3 things?

A

HIV, D-dimer, hepatitis

74
Q

An antigenic challenge activates B cells, which divide and become either ____ or ____.

A 
Clone memory B cells (just hang out in case of secondary infection)
Plasma cells (create and secrete Ab to further attack Ag)
75
Q

All immunoglobulins (antibodies) have a ____ amino terminal region that binds to antigens, and ____ carbonyl terminal region that determines the class of antibody (A,E,G,D,M)?

A

V or variable

C or constant

76
Q

T cells are derived from the ?

A

Thymus, hence the “T”

77
Q

Co-stimulation is needed for T cell activation and cloning, and this occurs when the ____ on the APC interacts with the ___ of the T cell (which is Ag specific).

A

MHC

TCR

78
Q

Patients who experience multiple myeloma are prone to infections from what 2 common bacteria that are native to humans?

A

S. Pneumo and H. Influenzae

79
Q

True or false: cytotoxic t-cells are the only t-cells that can directly attack and kill other cells

A

True

80
Q

What T cell turns on (on switch) the immune response?

A

T-helper CD4+

81
Q

Name the antibody (Ab) dependent pathway of complement.

A

Classic

82
Q

What is the name of the proteins present in the urine of someone with Multiple Myeloma?

A

Bence-Jones proteins (this is a board question)

83
Q

What are histocompatibility antigens on the surface of all cells except RBC’s that are important in ORGAN MATCHING?

A

MHC

84
Q

Immunophenotyping/Cytogenetics uses _____ _______ to quantitate cell populations taken from bone marrow and blood to help choose the appropriate chemotherapy.

A

Flow cytometry

85
Q

T cells recognize MHC I as ____ .

A

Self

86
Q

A negative ANA test a) includes b) excludes SLE?

A

B. Excludes

87
Q

Systemic Lupus Erythematous (SLE) is an autoimmune disorder of unknown cause. Circulating immune complexes of bound ____ and ____ lead to glomerulonephritis and skin manifestations.

A

IgG and IgM

88
Q

Humoral immunity involves B or T cells?

A

B cells

89
Q

The ability of the immune system to respond more efficiently with a 2nd infection/antigenic challenge is called?

A

Anamnestic response (think not amnesia, it doesn’t forget) or memory

90
Q

interferons

A

released by virus infected cells to help protect other cells. Attracts macropahges and natural killer cells

91
Q

What complement protein causes macrophages to be beckoned to a cell tagged for phagocytosis and opsonization?

A

C3 protein (yup, it’s pretty important)

92
Q

Name the 3 types of T cells

A

Cytotoxic
T-helper CD4+
T-suppressor CD8

93
Q

Name 2 examples of a Type II hypersensitivity reaction disease.

A

Myasthenia Gravis, Graves’ disease

94
Q

A major function of ___ cells is to stimulate proliferation of other T and B cells that are directly bound to the Ag.

A

T-helper CD4+

95
Q

IgA

A

Blocks transport of microbes across mucosa

96
Q

T/F: T cells are part of the cell-mediated immunity.

A

True

97
Q

What is a group of at least 20 plasma proteins that are in circulation, which are activated by Ag-Ab binding to RBC or bacteria, is part of the INNATE immune system, stimulates phagocytes to clear foreign and damaged material, stimulates inflammation to attract additional phagocytes, and activation of the MAC (membrane attack complex)?

A

Complement proteins

98
Q

What is the only cell type that MHC I is not on

A

blood cells

99
Q

What protein of complement binds to the target cell and inserts the membrane attack complex (MAC), causing cell lysis?

A

C3 protein

100
Q

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction is also known as a ______ reaction, compared to Type I, which is immediate.

A

Delayed.

101
Q

What immunoglobulin would be present on B-cells

A

IgD, IgM

102
Q

A Type I hypersensitivity reaction involves what immunoglobulin?

A

IgE

103
Q

What blood type is the universal acceptor and why?

A

AB, there is no anti A/B antibodies on the RBC surface

104
Q

True or false: alternative complement pathway is dependent on antibodies?

A

False

105
Q

Lymph areas (where mature lymphocytes may live)

A

spleen, lymph nodes, tonsils

106
Q

HLA B27 is linked with what degenerative disease process?

A

Ankylosis spondylitis

107
Q

A classic example of a Type IV delayed reaction is seen during what test given under the skin?

A

PPD for tuberculin

108
Q

Another term for age related decline in immune function is _______ ________.

A

Immune senescence

109
Q

B cells are part of the humoral immunity. What immunoglobulins are present on the exterior of their membrane?

A

IgD and IgM

110
Q

A patient with selective IgA deficiency would most likely develop recurrent infections in their _____ and _____ systems.

A

GI and Respiratory

111
Q

What are the 3 types of immunity?

A

Humoral (B cells, memory)
Complement (chemoattractants)
Cell-mediated (Cytotoxic T cells, T helper CD4+ cells, T suppressor CD8 cells, macrophages, neutrophils, Natural killer cells)

RRCCPA Physiology/Pathophysiology I (23 decks)

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