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RRCCPA Physiology/Pathophysiology I > EXAM I > Flashcards

EXAM I Flashcards

1
Q

substance that provokes and are targets of an immune response

A

Antigen (Ag)

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2
Q

pollen, bacteria, fungi, and viruses

A

examples of Antigens

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3
Q

immunoglobulin molecule that reacts w/ a specific antigen

A

Antibody (Ab)

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4
Q

type of antibody that blocks transport of microbes across mucosa. Found in upper respiratory tract, sinuses and upper GI tract.

A

IgA

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5
Q

type of antibody that is increased in allergic reaction or parasitic infection

A

IgE

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6
Q

type of antibody that is present on the surface of B-cells/B-lymphocytes

A

IgD

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7
Q

Type of antibody that is first to respond to an antigenic change/challenge; also present on surface of B-cells/ B-lymphocytes

A

IgM

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8
Q

measure of this type of antibody can tell you if patient has a current infection

A

IgM

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9
Q

This type of antibody is the most abundant circulating Ab and can cross the placenta. Its presence is an indicator of chronic infection or vaccine immunity.

A

IgG

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10
Q

Portion of antibody that varies to recognize antigens coming in

A

Amino terminal portion (variable V region)

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11
Q

Differences of this portion of an antibody determines which type of Ab it is (IgG, IgM, etc..)

A

Carboxyl terminal (constant C region)

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12
Q

A 4 chain polypeptide structure with 2 heavy chains and 2 light chains

A

Antibody (structure)

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13
Q

Which organs/ structures do lymphocytes reside in?

A

spleen, lymph nodes and lymph areas after maturity

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14
Q

True or False? B-cells are derived from bone marrow?

A

True

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15
Q

True or false? T-cells are derived from bone marrow?

A

FALSE. T-cells are derived from the THYMUS.

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16
Q

Which type of lymphocytes are related to Humoral Immunity?

A

B-cells

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17
Q

Which type of lymphocytes are related to Cell-mediated Immunity?

A

T-cells

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18
Q

The majority of this type of lymphocyte are destroyed before they are released into circulation because they have a strong self antigenic response. This type of lymphocyte makes up 65-85% of circulating lymphs.

A

T- Cells

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19
Q

This type of cell helps with immune response by engulfing an invading cell and then presents “flags” on surface of cell for T-Cell recognition.

A

Macrophage

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20
Q

Division of immunity that produces antibodies

A

Humoral immunity

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21
Q

Division of immunity- Group of at least 20 plasma proteins circulating, which are activated by Ag-Ab binding to RBC or bacteria. *Important in blood transfusions & bacterial infections.
Can be antibody dependent or independent.

A

Complement immunity

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22
Q

Antibody dependent type of Complement Immunity

A

CLASSIC Complement immunity

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23
Q

Antibody independent type of Complement Immunity

A

ALTERNATIVE Complement Immunity

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24
Q

The classic and alternative complement paths both converge on protein C3. What does this promote?

A

phagocytosis, cell lysis, and increased inflammation

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25
Q

Type of lymphocytic cell that descends from stem cells, only lives appx one week, does not have receptors, multiply rapidly once in tissue and produce cytokines. Destroy tumors, viruses, parasites, and fungi.

A

Natural Killer cells

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26
Q

Type of immunity that:
-is unable to recognize free Antigens
-respond only to processed fragments of Ag on cell
surface
-work on viruses, bacteria, intracellular parasites,
cancer cells, cells of infusion and transplantation

A

Cell-Mediated Immunity

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27
Q

Only type of T cell capable of directly attacking

and killing other cells. Main target is viral infected cells.

A

Cytotoxic

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28
Q

These are regulatory T Cells that stimulate other T & B Cells which are bound to antigens. They turn on the immune response and release lymphokines which attract neutrophils. *Need to be primed by the APC.

A

T- helper cells (CD4)

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29
Q

HIV attacks which type of T cells?

A

CD4

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30
Q

These are regulatory, inhibitory T cells that shut down the immune response.

A

T-Suppressor cells (CD8)

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31
Q

Complexes that are recognized by T Cells as being “self”.

A

Major Histocompatability Complex

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32
Q

This type of MHC attaches to the plasma membrane for self-recognition. It is present on all body cells except for blood.

A

MHC I

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33
Q

This type of MHC is present on the surface of B cells, some T cells and APC. It allows immune cells to recognize each other.

A

MHC II

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34
Q

Which MHC activates cytotoxic cells?

A

MHC I

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35
Q

Which MHC helps T-helper cells bind to presenting antigen?

A

MHC II

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36
Q

If a T cell binds to MHC with no

________, the immune response is turned off.

A

Costimulation

important in cloning of T Cells

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37
Q

Type of signaling protein that is released by virus infected cells to protect other cells by mobilizing and attracting macrophages & natural killer cells (nonspecific and spontaneous)

A

Interferons

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38
Q

HLA B27 is linked with what disorder?

A

Ankylosing Spondylitis

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39
Q

Which 2 diseases are associated with a “M-Spike” on immunoelectrophoresis?

A

Multiple Myeloma and MGUS ( monoclonal gammopathy of unknown significance)

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40
Q

Name 5 things associated with the immune system that decrease as an individual ages.

A

Cell-mediated immunity, number of T-cells, number of T- helper cells, memory cells, Antibody titers to known Antigens

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41
Q

Name 2 things associated with the immune system that increase as one ages.

A

number of T-suppressor cells, autoimmunity

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42
Q

How would you differentiate between Multiple Myeloma and MGUS on a pt with an M Spike?

A

check for plasma cell infiltrate in bone marrow, and Bence-Jones proteins in urine..if positive then pt has Multiple Myeloma.

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43
Q

the overproduction of plasma cells causes which disease?

A

Multiple Myeloma

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44
Q

Most common immunodeficiency disorder. Most pt’s who have this are asymptomatic.

A

Selective IgA deficiency

Absence of IgA, but normal amount IgG and IgM

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45
Q

When body develops immune response against “self”.

A

autoimmunity

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46
Q

immediate hypersensitivity, IgE-mediated, “TRUE allergic rxn”

A

Type I Hypersensitivity reaction (EX: allergies)

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47
Q

antibody-mediated hypersensitivity that occurs from IgG/IgM antibody:antigen interaction on target cell

A

Type II hypersensitivity reaction (EX: myasthenias gravis)

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48
Q

immune-complex mediated hypersensitivity that leads to local or systemic inflammatory response

A

Type III hypersensitivity reaction (EX: RA, SLE)

49
Q

delayed-type hypersensitivity; Mediated by T lymphocytes previously sensitized via exposure of antigen

A

Type IV hypersensitivity reaction (EX: transplant rejection, contact dermatitis)

50
Q

3 components of cell membrane

A

lipids, proteins, carbohydrates

51
Q

type of lipid that strengthens the cell membrane and stabilizes against temperature extremes.

A

cholesterol

52
Q

A ______________ exists when the concentration of a molecule/ion differs on either side of a membrane

A

concentration gradient

53
Q

The movement of glucose down its gradient requires what type of transport

A

Facilitated diffusion

54
Q

Type of transport in which energy comes from creation of a previous concentration gradient

A

Secondary Active transport

55
Q

benign neoplasm derived from glandular cell

A

adenoma

56
Q

malignant neoplasm derived from epithelial cells

A

carcinoma

57
Q

malignant neoplasm derived from mesenchymal cells (fat, muscle)

A

sarcoma

58
Q

malignant neoplasm derived from lymphocytes

A

lymphoma

59
Q

malignant neoplasm derived from melanocytes

A

melanoma

60
Q

malignant neoplasm derived from germ cells (egg or sperm)

A

germ cell tumor

61
Q

lack of differentiation of neoplasm

A

anaplasia

62
Q

disordered epithelium, loss of uniformity and possibly increased mitotic figures

A

dysplasia

63
Q

full thickness dysplasia of the epithelium; usually curable by removing

A

Carcinoma in Situ

64
Q

loss of body fat/ muscle and weakness associated w neoplasm…caused by cytokine storm

A

Cachexia

65
Q

forms skin/hair/nails, epithelial of oral/nasal cavities, lens/cornea/inner ear and neuroectoderm

A

ectoderm

66
Q

forms muscle, bone, connective tissue, fat, cardiovascular and lymph system and GU tract

A

mesoderm

67
Q

forms epithelium of the GI tract and respiratory tract

A

endoderm

68
Q

forms the peripheral nervous system, autonomic nervous system, and tooth dentin

A

neural crest

69
Q

forms the CNS and motor neurons

A

neural tube

70
Q

undifferentiated cells that can differentiate into specialized cells.

A

stem cell

71
Q

a thin protective layer of cells that cover the surfaces of internal and external body structures and organs, (ie the Skin, Respiratory, Digestive, Renal, and Cardiovascular Systems, mammary glands, larynx, etc.)

A

epithelium

72
Q

the supportive tissue of a structure or organ

A

stroma

73
Q

the functional tissue of a structure or organ, example heart, liver, kidneys, etc

A

parenchyma

74
Q

malignancies of epithelial cells of glandular origin.

A

adenocarcinoma

75
Q

Which type of tissue is prone to marked swelling with edema; some situations can become life threatening such as Epiglottitis, Laryngeal edema or anaphylaxis

A

Loose/ areolar connective tissue

76
Q

When lungs become acutely infected due to cytokine storm process, they release _____ and ______, leading to a more sustained IL6 level.

A

TNF and IL1

77
Q

Common symptoms of Cytokine Storm

A

HA, fever, DIB, nausea, rash, tachycardia, hypotension

78
Q

Why does cytokine storm cause hypotension?

A

capillaries are leaking fluid which causes a decrease in overall vascular volume.

79
Q

levels of ________may be used to assess intensity of cytokine storm in COVID 19 pt’s

A

interleukin 6 (IL6)

80
Q

Common symptoms of ARDS

A

tachypnea, decreased drive to breathe, diaphoresis, cyanosis, dry cough in beginning, but late a pink frothy sputum develops

81
Q

True of false? A given neuron can only release one type of neurotransmitter.

A

True

82
Q

T/F? Most neurons are present at birth and remain present in older age

A

True

83
Q

T/F? Neurons are amitotic (without mitotic activity)

A

True, except in the hippocampus.

84
Q

This type of neuron has many processes extend from soma; one is axon, others are dendrites. Most abundant type of neuron.

A

Multipolar neuron

85
Q

Type of neuron with 2 processes that extend from soma; axon and dendrite. Rare; found in olfactory cells and some other special sensory organs.

A

Bipolar neurons

86
Q

Type of neuron that has single short process that extends from soma. Axon has peripheral process and central process. Located in ganglia of spinal cord where they can be protected.

A

Unipolar neurons

87
Q

non-excitable, supporting cells of nervous system

A

glial (neuroglia)

88
Q

thick outer layer of dense irregular tissue that encloses entire nerve. Provides support and protection.

A

epineurium

89
Q

layer of dense irregular tissue that wraps bundles of axons, fascicles, and supports blood vessels

A

perineurium

90
Q

delicate layer of aerolar tissue that separates and electrically insulates each axon. Has capillaries that supply the axon.

A

endoneurium

91
Q

This type of multipolar neuron receives signals from sensory neurons and carry out the interactive function (process, store, retrieve info, make decisions), send signals to motor neuron. Accounts for 90% of neurons.

A

Interneurons (association neurons)

92
Q

This type of neuron transmit the signals to CNS, Some can detect stimuli (e.g.light, heat, pressure, chemicals) as well as transmit the signals to CNS. Most are unipolar but a few are bipolar.

A

Sensory/ afferent neurons

93
Q

This is a multipolar neuron that receives signals from interneurons, and carry the signals to
effectors (muscles or glandular cells)

A

Motor/ efferent neurons

94
Q

most abundant glial cells, cell processes touch both capillary walls and neurons, help form blood brain barrier, form structural network and assist with neuronal development

A

Astrocytes

95
Q

These glial cells line the ventricles of
brain and central canal of
spinal cord; these cells and nearby blood vessels form the choroid plexus which produces CSF.

A

Ependymal cells

96
Q

least abundant type of glial cell; phagocytes that engulf/destroy microorganisms & cell debris;
located in CNS

A

Microglia

97
Q

Glial cells that form myelin sheath in CNS; contain slender portions which wrap around many different neurons

A

Oligodendrocytes

98
Q

Glial cells that form myelin sheath in PNS; flattened cells that wrap around axons

A

Schwann Cells (Neurolemmocytes)

99
Q

Glial cells that regulate exchange of nutrients and waste between neurons and their environments. (flattened cells around somas in a ganglion)

A

Satellite cells

100
Q

T/F? Myelin is produced by the neuron that it envelops.

A

FALSE. Myelin is not part of nor produced by the nerve cell whose axon it envelops. (Myelin is produced by Schwann cells in PNS and oligodendrocytes in CNS)

101
Q

Graded potential is determined by _______-________ Na/K channels.

A

ligand-gated

102
Q

Action potential is determined by ________-_________ Na/K channels.

A

voltage-gated

103
Q

the reduction in membrane potential, the inside of the membrane becomes less negative (i.e. from -70 mV to -65 mV)

A

depolarization

104
Q

the increase of in membrane potential, the inside of the membrane becomes more negative (i.e. -65 mV to -70 mV)

A

repolarization

105
Q

the increase of membrane potential above RMP; the inside of the membrane becomes more negative than RMP. (i.e -70mV to -75mV)

A

hyperpolarization

106
Q

__________ increases the probability of producing nerve impulses, while __________ decreases the probability.

A

depolarization , hyperpolarization

107
Q

T/F? Graded potentials are reversible.

A

TRUE

108
Q

T/F? Graded potentials’ signals grow stronger with distance.

A

FALSE. Graded potentials are decremental, meaning their signals get weaker with distance

109
Q

What is the electrical threshold needed to initiate Action potential?

A

-55mV

110
Q

T/F? Action potential always begins with depolarization?

A

TRUE

111
Q

What are the main functions of the autonomic (aka involuntary/visceral) nervous system?

A

transmits impulses from CNS to smooth muscle,

cardiac muscle and glands

112
Q

T/F? No cranial nerves are Sympathetic Fibers.

A

TRUE

113
Q

Type of adrenergic receptor associated w/ vasoconstriction of blood vessels going to skin, GI
tract and kidneys, contraction of arrector pili, uterus, ureters, internal urethral sphincters.

A

ALPHA 1

114
Q

Type of adrenergic receptor associated with inhibiting insulin secretion from pancreas, contraction
of GI tract sphincters

A

ALPHA 2

115
Q

Type of adrenergic receptor associated with stimulating increased heart rate and contractiility,
stimulating renin secretion from kidneys

A

BETA 1

116
Q

Type of adrenergic receptor associated with vasodilation of blood vessels going to heart, liver, and
skeletal muscles, bronchodilation of lungs, relaxation of uterine, GI tract, and urinary bladder

A

BETA 2

117
Q

Which adrenergic receptor has a high affinity for epinephrine but has a very low number of epi receptors?

A

Beta 2 adrenergic receptors

118
Q

Which adrenergic receptor has a low to moderate affinity for epinephrine but has a very high number of epi receptors?

A

Alpha 1 adrenergic receptors

RRCCPA Physiology/Pathophysiology I (23 decks)

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