Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

pathophysiology > immune system test > Flashcards

immune system test Flashcards

1
Q

2 parts of immune response

A

innate and adaptive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

the innate immune system is

A

nonspecific, 2 parts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

part 1 of innate immune system

A

physical/chemical barriers to keep contaminants out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

part 2 of innate immune system

A

responses like macrophages, inflammation, and fever to keep microbes at bay

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

adaptive immune response

A

how the body learns to specifically target and eliminate contaminants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

skin

A

(normally) solid barrier that stops bacteria from getting inside inside the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

the outer layer of the skin is coated in

A

protein keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

function of keratin in the skin

A

works with other lipids and proteins to form a tight seal separating inside from out

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

The outer cells of the skin

A

is continuously shedding , this is called desquamstion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

desquamation takes

A

attached microbes with them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

the skin secretes waxy, oily

A

sebum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

sebum gives the skin a pH of about what

A

5.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

pH of sebum is

A

acidic compared to body’s 7.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

change in pH due to sebum can cause

A

denature enzymes in bacteria, slows their function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

95% of infections from

A

begin in the mucous membranes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

5% of infections result from

A

vector bites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Other pH barriers to microbes

A

saliva
stomach
vagina

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

saliva pH

A

roughly neutral (7)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

pH of stomach after a meal

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

pH of stomach at rest

A

3.5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

inside of vagina pH

A

4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the OTHER physical barriers to microbes

A 
mucus, 
urinations,
defectation, 
vomitting, 
tears, hairs 
and cilia
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where is MUCUS found

A

airway, esophagus, stomach, intestines, cervix (females)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how does mucus affect microbes

A

microbes stick to it and are broken down by protein and/or expelled from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what washes microbes out of the body

A

urination, defcetation, vomiting and tears

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

hairs in the nose and cilia in the windpipe can….

A

stop microbes from entering the lungs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

because of cilia…. bacteria are pushed

A

up and away from the lungs through the mucociliary elevator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

if a particle is detected in the airway

A

extremely sensitive nerves in the airway will force a cough reflex

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

lysozyme (a chemical barrier)

A

lysozyme is an enzyme in tears, mucus, breast milk, saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

lysozyme function

A

breaks apart peptidoglycan, kills bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what is peptidoglycan

A

main component of bacterial cell walls,

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

normal flora

A

bacteria living on it in a mutualistic relationship

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

instead of harming the body………

A

many benefits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

benefits of normal flora

A
  • nutrients that the body can’t normally provide (B12)
  • competition for space and nutrients,
  • create compounds that kill other bacteria
  • modify the pH of an area to make it inhospitable to other bacteria
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

competition for space and nutrients causes

A

makes it hard for bad bacteria to survive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

how much human cells in the body

A

10^13

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

how much symbiotic bacteria in the human body

A

10^14

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

first step of phagocytosis

A
  • chemotaxis and adherence of microbes to phagocyte
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

second step of phagocytosis

A
  • ingestion of microbe by phagocytosis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

step 3 phagocytosis

A

formation of a phagosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

step 4 phagocytosis

A

fusion of the phagosome with a lysosome to form a phagolysosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

step 5 phagocytosis

A

digestion of ingested microbe by enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

step 6 phagocytosis

A

formation of residual body containing indigestible material

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

step 7 phagocytosis

A

discharge of waste materials

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

phagocytes

A

white blood cells that eat and destroy foreign contaminants through phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

types of phagocytes

A

neutrophils
macrophages
dendritic cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

neutrophils function

A

eat bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

macrophages function *

A

eat everything that dosen’t have a proper ID

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

dendritic cells function*

A

eat surroundings that show PAMPS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

macrophages and dendritic cells

A

present digested guts to surrounding cells, especially T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what is PAMPs

A

micro-associated patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

PAMPs

A

pathogen-associated molecular patterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

peptidoglycan (PAMPs)

A

main bacterial cell wall component, gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

peptidoglycan chemical surrounds

A

membranes of many bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

if a bacterial membrane contains a thick layer of peptidoglycan

A

gram positive

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

why is something gram positive

A

turns purple when dyed w/ Gram method

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

if it does NOT turn purple hen dyed with the gram method

A

gram negative… turns pink instead

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

LPS (PAMPs)

A

main bacterial membrane component, gram negative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

LPS

A

lipopolysaccharides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what are LPS

A

long chains of sugars that attach to membranes of gram-negative bacteria with thin peptidoglycan layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

Flagellin (PAMPs)

A

a protein found in bacterial flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

many bacteria have a flagellum

A

to help them move through the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

many flagellum

A

flagella

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

main protein in flagella

A

flagellin, is a PAMP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Double stranded RNA (PAMPs)

A

found in viruses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

glucans (PAMPs)

A

major component of fungal cell walls

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

PRRs

A

Pattern Protein Receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

where are PRRs found

A

they are proteins found on the plasma membrane of macrophages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

job of PRRs

A

recognize PAMPs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

2 main types of PRRs;

A

Phagocytosis receptors

TLRS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Phagocytosis receptors

A

binding to a PAMP causes the onset of phagocytosis..

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

phagocytosis receptors are only found in

A

phagocytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

TLRs

A

toll-like receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

TLRs function

A

bidning to PAMP causes the activation of genes coding for cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

what are cytokines

A

signalling proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

where are TLRs found

A

phagocytes, epithelial cells and MORE

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

there are many kinds of TLRs that each

A

recognize specific microbial compoents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

each TLRs trigger the

A

release of some cytokines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

cytokines are….

A

small proteins produced by various white blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

cytokines are produced in response to

A

PAMP binding to a TLR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

cytokines can be

A

autocrine
paracrine
endocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

autocrine (cytokine)

A

meaning they act on the red blood cell that secrets them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

paracrine (cytokine)

A

they act on nearby cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

endocrine (cytokine)

A

travel longs distances in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

3 things tat cytokines cause to happen

A
  • vasodilation of blood vessels
  • upregulation or downregulation of genes
  • white blood cell hematopoiesis
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

3 OTHER THINGS that cytokines can cause

A
  • production of antobodies
  • apoptosis
  • inhibition of viral replication
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

chemokines

A

are a type of cytokine, attract molecules through chemical signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

two categories of chemokines

A

homeostatic

inflammatory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

homeostatic chemokines

A

attract various types of white blood cells to the area and invoke diapedesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what is diapedesis

A

jumping through the walls of a vessel into infected tissue

91
Q

what is chemically attracted to chemokines

A

white blood cells

92
Q

inflammatory chemokines

A

initiate the inflammatory response by causing vasodilation

93
Q

vasodilation caused by inflammatory chemokines….

A

leads to more blood, and in turn more white blood cells in the area

94
Q

inflammation can be

A

acute or chronic

95
Q

acute

A

quick onset

96
Q

chronic

A

long term

97
Q

signs of inflammation

A

redness, heat, swelling, pain

98
Q

positive feedback loop of cytokines

A

cytokines made to recruit WBS, which release cytokines to recruit even more WBCs

99
Q

the positive feedback loop of cytokines is supposed to be

A

localized and shut off at a certain point

100
Q

if an infection gets too big

A

the body does not to shut down the cytokines&raquo_space;> CYTOKINE SToRM

101
Q

result of a cytokine storm

A

widespread inflammation

102
Q

widespread inflammation from a cytokine storm can cause

A

ARDS»> DEATH??!??!?

103
Q

ARDS

A

acute respiratory distress syndrome

104
Q

cytokine storm can also cause

A

severe damage to blood vessels when they dilate too much

105
Q

damage to blood vessel can lead to

A

blood spilling the extracellular space

106
Q

blood spilling the extracellular space causes

A

reddish splotches on the skin (petichaie LOOK It up), shock

107
Q

fever invoked

A

by pyrogen

108
Q

pyrogens can be classified as

A

endogenous or exogenous

109
Q

exogenous pyrogens

A

come from outside and bind to PRRs to trigger the release of endogenous pyrogens

110
Q

example fo exogenous pyrogen

A

LPS . (lipopolysaccharide)

111
Q

endogenous pyrogens

A

are cytokines made by macrophages in RESPONSE to exogenous pyrogens

112
Q

examples of endogenous pyrogens

A

interleukin-1 (IL-1) and interleukin-6 (IL-6)

113
Q

endogenous pyrogens travel

A

to the hypothalamus in the brain….. send hormonal signals across the body to increase temperature

114
Q

fevers help stop

A

bacterial growth (deature?!)

115
Q

fevers increase

A

ability of certain macrophages to do their jobs by altering their membrane fluidity.

116
Q

how does inflammation cause its symptoms

A
  • capillary widening
  • increased capillary permeability
  • attraction of white blood cells
  • systemic response
117
Q

capillary widening can cause

A

increased blood flow

118
Q

increased capillary permeability can cause

A

release of fluid

119
Q

attraction of white blood cells can cause

A

migration of WBCS to injury

120
Q

systemic responses can cause

A

fever and proliferation of white blood blood cells

121
Q

antibodies

A

small y shaped proteins

122
Q

antibodies structure

A

the same except the two tips of the Y

123
Q

two tips of the Y structure

A

heavily variable , infinite shapes, almsot every molecule

124
Q

stem of the Y of antibodies

A

Fc region

125
Q

branches of the Y

A

FA=ab regions

126
Q

antigens

A

the shreds resulting from pathogens being broken down by phagocytes

127
Q

how are antigens sensed

A

by antigen binding sites on antibodies

128
Q

another name for antibodies

A

immunoglobulins

129
Q

Ig

A

immunoglobulins

130
Q

5 types of immunoglobulins

A

IgG*, IgM, IgD, IgA, and IgE.

131
Q

most common Ig

A

IgG

132
Q

B cells

A

white blood cells who create antibodies

133
Q

Each B cell..

A

creates just one specific antibody

134
Q

how do B cells create antibodies

A

through V(D)J recombination

135
Q

After a B cell’s antibody recognized a pathogen and has treated the body

A

B cell becomes a memory B cell

136
Q

what do memory B cells do after becoming one?

A

travel to lymph node and lies dormant

137
Q

memory B cells lie dormant in lymph nodes until

A

the same antigen is spotted

138
Q

what happens when the same antigen (already been treated by a memory B cell) is seen again

A

dormant B cells rapidly creates antibodies (MUCH FASTER)&raquo_space;»»»

139
Q

When dormant B cells rapidly create antibodies… the body

A

bodies is quickly cured .. often before sickness is felt

140
Q

B cell phenomenon is basis for

A

vaccination

141
Q

T cells

A

type of white blood cell produced in the thymus

142
Q

thymus location

A

JUST SUPERIOR TO THE HEART

143
Q

Like B cells, T cells are also

A

antigen-specific

144
Q

TCRs

A

T cell receptors

145
Q

t cell receptors

A

special receptors on the membranes of T cells

146
Q

what do TCRs do

A

look for digested pieces of stuff that macrophages and dendritic cells have broken apart during phagocytosis

147
Q

if TCRs see “bad stuff”&raquo_space;> 3 reactions for what 3 cell types

A

cytotoxic T cells,
helper T cells
regulatory T cells

148
Q

cytotoxic T cells

A

hunt down and kill cells that contain a certain anitgen

149
Q

helper T cells

A

begin producing cytokines

150
Q

cytokines released by helper T cells….

A

will attract B cells, cytotoxic T cells and macrophages, and will cause white blood cell hematopoiesis

151
Q

regulatory T cells

A

shut down other T cells at the end of an immune response

152
Q

smaller sub-region of an antigen

A

epitopes

153
Q

what are epitopes recognized by

A

paratopes on antigens

154
Q

most pathogens

A

have many epitopes, can be recognized by many antibodies

155
Q

4 MAIN METHODS FOR ANTIBODIES FIGHTING PATHOGENS

A

Neutralization
Agglutination
Precipitation
Complement Activation

156
Q

when the Fab region(s) of an antibody bind to the antigen…

A

Fc ragion dangles off

157
Q

many phagocytes have special….

A

special receptors called opsonin receptors…

158
Q

opsonin receptors

A

increase the chemical attraction between themselves and dangling Fc regions

159
Q

main idea of opsonin receptors

A

makes marked antigens look more delicious to phagocytes

160
Q

neutralization

A

antibody physically blocks the antigen from having its effect

161
Q

example of antibody neutralization

A

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

162
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae

A

bacteria that secretes small protein diphtheria toxin

163
Q

diphtheria can…

A

ENTER CELLS AND BREAK THE eEF-2 protein

164
Q

eEF-2 protein

A

vital part of protein synthesis in human cells

165
Q

antibody for diptheria

A

blocks diphtheria from binding to receptors and entering the cell

166
Q

so if dipheria toxin is neutralized by the antibody

A

eEF-2 is never turned off

167
Q

agglutination

A

the clumping together of molecules

168
Q

in agglutination some antibodies will cause

A

bacteria or mother molecules to stick together in large groups

169
Q

when agglutination happens it makes it

A

easier for phagocytes to engulf them after opsonization

170
Q

agglutination also plays a major role in

A

blood types

171
Q

blood types

A

A, B, AB, or O

172
Q

Type A blood

A

have A antigen on RBCs (and B antibody in blood

173
Q

Type B blood

A

have B antigen on RBCs (and A antibody in blood)

174
Q

Type AB blood

A

have A and B antigen on RBCs (no antibodies in blood)

175
Q

Type O blood

A

have neither A or B antigen on RBCs (both antibodies in blood)

176
Q

when would a blood transfusion go bad

A

a person gains a transfusion of blood with an antigen they have antibodies fo

177
Q

if a person gains a transfusion of blood with an antigen they have antibodies for

A

the antibodies will cause RBCs to agglutinate and then lyse.

178
Q

if red blood cells agglutinate then lyse

A

free hemoglobin clogs the kidneys&raquo_space; shut down

179
Q

some antigens, but usually………..

A

usually harmful pieces of a virus, are solube

180
Q

soluble antigens

A

hide in the body by dissolving in serum

181
Q

what can antibodies to to fight the antigens that dissolve to hide

A

bind to them and force them out of solution to form a solid precipitate

182
Q

when antibodies bind to antigens to form a solid precipitate

A

makes them easier targets for phagocytosis

183
Q

in order for precipitaion to work

A

Roughly equal part of antigen and antibody

184
Q

precipitation is often coupled with

A

agglutination

185
Q

complement pathway is cool because…

A

shared component of adaptive and innate immune systems

186
Q

complement pathway is turned on by

A

presence of PAMPS or signal from antigen-antibody complexes

187
Q

_______ released because of PAMPS or antigen-antibody complexes

A

cytokines, lead to a cascade that makes many different proteins together

188
Q

cytokines and cascade that makes many different proteins together

A

form a giant pore in a pathogen membrane» KILLS it

189
Q

autimmune disease

A

are a broad class of diseases where the body “attacks itself

190
Q

what happens in an autoimmune disease

A

antibodies in the body mistake “self” cells for “nonself” cells and begin attacking them.

191
Q

what things to autoimmune diseases cause

A

tissue damage
increased tissue growth
altered tissue function

192
Q

primary immune response

A

first time the body sees an infection…. takes while to gather the troops

193
Q

secondary immune response

A

each subsequent time the body sees an infection… faster and stronger reaction

194
Q

vaccinations

A

expose the body to a pathogen without getting youu sick

195
Q

what are the three ways a bacterium or virus is prepared for a vaccine

A

attenuated
killed/inactivated
subunit

196
Q

attenuated vaccine

A

bacterium/virus is alive…. genetically modified so that bad genes are removed

197
Q

killed/inactivated vaccine

A

bacterium/virus is grown in lab then killed by heat or formaldehyde…. dead specimen injected

198
Q

subunit vaccine

A

bacterium/virus grown in lab… … …only one part (a single epitope) is placed into vaccine and injected

199
Q

what parts are usually injected in a subunit vaccine

A

capsid in viruses, membrane or wall component in bacteria

200
Q

examples of attenuated vaccination

A

MMR, Measles, Mumps, Rubella

201
Q

examples of killed/inactivated vaccination

A

Polio

202
Q

example of subunit

A

hep. B

203
Q

pros of attenuated vaccination

A
  • small dose
  • usually no booster
  • giver STRONGEST IMMUNITY
204
Q

cons attenuated vaccination

A
  • must be refrigerated
  • small risk of mutation to regain pathogenicity
  • may cause adverse reaction
205
Q

pros of killed/inactivated vaccination

A
  • no risk of mutation to regain pathogenicity

- does not need to be refrigerated

206
Q

cons of killed/inactivated vaccination

A
  • much larger doses required -often needs booster shots

- may cause adveerse reaction

207
Q

which is more likely to cause adverse reaction: killed or attentuated

A

attenuated

208
Q

pros of subunit vaccination

A
  • no risk of mutation to regain pathogenicity
  • does not need to be refrigerated
  • not likely to overwhelm immune system and cause adverse reaction
209
Q

cons of subunit vaccination

A
  • gives “weakest” immunity b
  • much larger doses required
  • often requires boosters
210
Q

why does subunit vaccination give the weakest immunity

A

only one or a few epitopes recognized

211
Q

what disease did we eradicate

A

small pox

212
Q

what type of immunity do vaccines provide

A

active (artificial)

213
Q

what is the basis of active immunity

A

causes your body to make memory B cells that recognie

antigens and spring into action the next time encountered

214
Q

active immunity generally lasts….

A

for life

215
Q

when is passive immunity usually used

A

time-sensitive cases

216
Q

examples of uses for passive immunity

A

snakebites… tetanus infection for unimmunized …… patient w a weakened immune system

217
Q

what is the basis for passive immunity

A

injecting neutralizing antibodies harvested froma different host into the patient

218
Q

passive immunity generally lasts…

A

days to months (TEMPORARY)

219
Q

active natural immunity

A

patient catches disease, develops own antibodies and build up memory B cells that will fight it the next tuime

220
Q

active artificial immunity

A

patient receives (attenuated, dead, subunit) vaccine, gains memory B cells without actually fighting it

221
Q

passive natural immunity

A

infant patient drinks breastmilk, receives mother’s antibodies, temporary protection form many disease

222
Q

passive artificial immunity

A

patient receives injection of antibodies from donor organisms that neutralize antigens and give temporary immunity.

223
Q

what are often donors for passive artificial immunity

A

horses, pigs etc

pathophysiology (24 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions