Histology Test 2-w18 Flashcards

1
Q

What does enamel cover

A

Anatomical crown

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2
Q

Composition of enamel

A

96% inorganic material MAINLY HYDROXYAPETITE
3% water
1% organic ENAMELIN

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3
Q

The hardest calcified/mineralized tissue in the human body

A

Enamel

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4
Q

Is enamel avascular

A

Yes it is non vital- no nerves

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5
Q

Colour of enamel

A

Translucent, greyish/bluish white
**BUT appears yellow due to underlying dentin

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6
Q

The process of enamel matrix formation and mineralization

A

Amelogenesis

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7
Q

Enamel matrix is ____ derived from _____ of the enamel organ

A

Ectodermal ; inner enamel epithelium

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8
Q

Anelogenisis occurs during what stage of tooth development

A

Appositional (formation of enamel/dentin matrix)

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9
Q

Enamel matrix is initially composed of protein, carbohydrates and small amounts of calcium hydroxyapatite but DOES NOT CONTAIN

A

Collagen

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10
Q

In order for Amelogenesis to occur what must be present

A

Dentin

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11
Q

Enamel is first formed on

A

Cusp/tip

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12
Q

Enamel matrix is produced by?
Secreted by?

A

Produced by ameloblasts; secreted by tomes process

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13
Q

Ameloblasts are not differentiated on what area?
Therefore there is no enamel on ??

A

Root area; therefore no enamel on roots

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14
Q

Enamel mineralization is

A

Complete and immediate

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15
Q

What pumps calcium hydroxyapatite into the forming enamel matrix?

A

Ameloblasts

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16
Q

When ameloblasts are finished they become part of the reduced enamel epithelium fusing with

A

The oral mucosa

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17
Q

Ameloblasts are lost post tooth eruption; therefore

A

No new enamel is deposited

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18
Q

A newly erupted tooth will continue to?

A

Mineralized post eruption (minerals from saliva)

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19
Q

Developmental disturbances: What is an enamel pearl

A

Small, spherical enamel projections on root surface

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20
Q

Developmental disturbances: what is enamel dysplasia

A

Faulty development of enamel

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21
Q

What causes deep pits and fissures

A

Ameloblasts back into one another during apposition; cutting off their source of nutrition
= incomplete maturation of enamel matrix

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22
Q

What can be placed to seal off deep pits and fissures

A

Sealants

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23
Q

Enamel rods are composed of (3)

A

Head- enamel rod core
Tail- interrod enamel
Rod sheath- microscopic spaces btwn rods

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24
Q

How are enamel rods aligned?
What is the exception

A

Perpendicular to the DEJ
EXCEPTION: in the cervical regions of permanent teeth

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25
Q

Shape of enamel rods?

A

Key hole shaped

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26
Q

What PATTERN are rods aligned in

A

Interlocking pattern
-this adds strength and durability

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27
Q

What are lines of retzius
hint growth lines

A

Series of bands on the enamel rods
Represent incremental growth lines that extend from dej

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28
Q

What is neonatal line

A

Pronounced line of retzius marked by trauma/stress experienced by ameloblasts at birth

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29
Q

What is nasmyths membrane

A

Primary enamel cuticle- delicate membrane covers entire crown of newly erupted tooth
(Green or yellow easily worn away)

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30
Q

What are hunter shreger bands

A

Change in the direction of rods

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31
Q

What is perykimata

A

(Cervical 2/3rds of crown) Raised grooves on enamel surfaces- represent line of retzius externally

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32
Q

What is enamel spindles
(Found beneath the cusps and incisal tips of teeth)

A

Odontoblastic processes (sentinel tubules) that passed across dej and became trapped

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33
Q

What are enamel tufts

A

Small dark “brushes”
Represent areas of less mineralization

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34
Q

What is enamel lamella/lamellae
*hint transverse cracks

A

Partially mineralized vertical sheets of enamel matrix
-transverse cracks from occlusal surface of enamel to dej

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35
Q

Defects of enamel: hypocalcification

A

Chalky areas
Enamel didn’t form properly due to mineral deficiency (Ca)

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36
Q

Defects of enamel: decalcification

A

Decalcified chalky areas due to acids or poor oral hygiene

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37
Q

Defects of enamel: dental fluorosis

A

Mottled enamel
Exposure to more than 2ppm for 1st 8 years

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38
Q

Loss of enamel: attrition

A

Wearing away of tooth structure from ordinary forces of occlusion (tooth to tooth contact)

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39
Q

Loss of enamel: abrasion

A

Abnormal wear caused by friction due to excessive tooth brushing or use of abrasive toothpastes

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40
Q

Loss of enamel: erosion

A

Tooth structure lost through chemical means : Acid reflux, acidic foods/drinks, vomiting

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41
Q

Loss of enamel: abfraction

A

Wedge shaped legions
Loss of tooth structure at the cervical neck area of teeth due to compressive and tensile forces during tooth flexure

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42
Q

Denton makes up

A

The bulk of the tooth

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43
Q

T/F. Denton is avascular and vital; has nerves

A

True

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44
Q

Denton is ___ in colour

A

Yellow

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45
Q

Mature dentin composition

A

70% inorganic (calcium hydroxyapatite)
20% organic
10% water

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46
Q

Crystals in dentin are “_____” like and ____ than those in enamel

A

“Plate like” and are smaller

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47
Q

The process of dentin formation

A

Dentinogenesis

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48
Q

Denton forms from the ___ of the tooth germ

A

Dental papilla (mesenchymal)

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49
Q

Predentin is the initial layer of dentin matrix laid down by Odontoblasts containing

A

Collagen fibers

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50
Q

As organic matrix forms, Odontoblasts move away from the dej producing

A

Predentin in layers (apposition)

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51
Q

Apposition of the dentin occurs throughout the life of a tooth, why?

A

Odontoblasts remain in the tooth along the outer pulpal wall

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52
Q

Maturation of dentin or mineralization of predentin occurs when

A

Soon after its apposition

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53
Q

What forms during the primary phase of dentin maturation that allows for expansion and fusion

A

Hydroxyapatite crystals form as globules in the collagen fibers of primary dentin

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54
Q

Describe secondary phase of dentin maturation

A

Further mineralization (secondary dentin) will occur as globules form in partially mineralized areas

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55
Q

What is mantle dentin

A

Outermost layer
First predentin

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56
Q

What is circumpulpal dentin

A

Surrounds outer layer of the pulp
Bulk of the dentin

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57
Q

Primary dentin is present before completion of the

A

Apical foramen

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58
Q

After completion of the apical foramen what is present

A

Secondary dentin
forms throughout the life of the tooth!

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59
Q

Tertiary dentin is aka

A

Reparative dentin

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60
Q

Dentin Mineralization occurs by

A

Budding

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61
Q

Formation and calcification start at the
*hint same as enamel

A

Cusp

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62
Q

Small odontoblastic buds provide location of crystallizations which join and grow in _____ process to form___

A

3 dimensional process to form mantle dentin

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63
Q

Long tubes in the dentin that extend from the DEJ to the outer wall of pulp

A

Dentinal tubules

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64
Q

Dentinal tubules contain (3)

A

Odontoblastic process
Dentinal fluid
Sensory (afferent) axon (pain)

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65
Q

What is pertibular dentin

A

Wall of the tubules

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66
Q

What is intertubular dentin

A

In between the tubules (main body of dentin)

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67
Q

Dentinal tubules may become open due to caries, recession, attrition and cavity preparation causing

A

Dentinal hypersensitivity

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68
Q

What may trigger dentinal hypersensitivity (4)

A

Thermal
Mechanical (ultrasonic)
Dehydration
Chemical exposure ( acidic foods, teeth whitening)

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69
Q

What is the hydrodynamic theory of dentinal hypersensitivity

A

Pain is due to changes in the dentinal fluid associated with the odontoblastic process

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70
Q

How can we help clients with dentinal hypersensitivity

A

Desensitizing toothpastes
Fluoride varnishes

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71
Q

Dentin histology: What is the incremental lines of Von ebner

A

*growth lines
Similar to lines of retzius in enamel

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72
Q

Dentin Histology: what is tomes granular layer
Hint spotted areas

A

Found in ROOT AREA
Thin hypomineralized spotted areas giving it a granular appearance

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73
Q

What is dentinogenesis imperfecta?
Is it hereditary?

A

Shiny opalescent dentin
Hereditary

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74
Q

Dentinal defects: empty tubules resulting from loss of the Odontoblastic processes or odontoblast death

A

Dead tracts

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75
Q

Dentinal defects: sclerotic dentin

A

Form of tertiary dentin
Aka transparent dentin
Often found in areas with chronic injury of caries

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76
Q

Pulp is connective tissue derived from the

A

Dental papilla

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77
Q

What are the 4 pulp zones

A

Odontoblastic zone
Cell free zone/ zone of weil
Cell rich layer
Pulp core

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78
Q

Pulp zones: the Odontoblastic zone is closest to the dentin and consists of

A

Cell bodies of Odontoblasts
Capable of forming secondary/tertiary dentin

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79
Q

Pulp zones: cell free zone contains ___ cells than Odontoblastic zone

A

Fewer
-Nerve and capillary plexus located here

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80
Q

Pulp zones: cell rich layer contains many cells but fewer than what zone

A

Odontoblastic zone
-extensive vascular supply

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81
Q

Pulp zones: pulp core is the ___ of the pulp chamber

A

Centre
-major vessels and nerves similar to cell rich layer

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82
Q

Blood supply of pulp: large ____ vessels. Nutrition is obtained through?

A

Large cylindrical vessels
Nutrition is obtained through the tubules and their connection to the Odontoblasts

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83
Q

Nerve supply of pulp: cell bodies of afferent axons lie in the

A

Dentinal tubules

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84
Q

Nerve supply pulp: changes in what 3 things are perceived ONLY as PAIN

A

Temperatures
Vibrations
Chemical changes

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85
Q

What is pupal mode of entry

A

Apex
Lateral/accessory canals

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86
Q

What is pulpitis

A

Injury to the pull from caries, cavity prep, or other trauma. May result in pulpal infection or periapical abscess

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87
Q

What can happen to the pulp with age?

A

Vascularity and cells decrease
CT fibers and pulp stones (denticles) increase

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88
Q

What does the periodontium consist of

A

Consists of cementum, alveolar bone and PDL

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89
Q

Function of the periodontium

A
  • supports the tooth in its relationship to the alveolar bone
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90
Q

What is cementum

A

Specialized connective tissue

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91
Q

Can cementum form throughout the life of a tooth

A

Yes

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92
Q

Where is cementum the thickest
Where is it the thinnest

A

Thickest at apex/interradicular areas
Thinnest at CEJ

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93
Q

What is the function of cementum

A

Covering for the root surface
Mechanical attachment (PDL to bone)
Compensates occlusal wear/attrition

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94
Q

Where is cementum located

A

On top of the tomes granular layer in dentin

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95
Q

Cementum forms shortly after the

A

Disintegration of HERS (hertwigs epithelial root sheath)

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96
Q

Cementum forms from

A

Undifferentiated cells of the dental sac

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97
Q

After HERS disintegrates, undifferentiated cells of the dental sac contact what and differentiate into what

A

Contact the root dentin surface
Differentiate into cementoblasts

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98
Q

Cementoblasts spread over the ____ and start laying down ____

A

Spread over the root dentin and start laying down cementoid

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99
Q

Cementoblasts can also become trapped in the cementum. These cells are called

A

Cementocytes

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100
Q

Cemetogenesis: once the cementoid is formed and reached its proper thickness it starts to

A

Calcify

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101
Q

Formation of cementum is

A

ONGOING

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102
Q

Composition of cementum
(Composed of fibrous matrix and cells)

A

65% inorganic
23% organic
12% water

103
Q

What does the fibrous matrix of cementum consist of

A

Sharpeys fibers
Intrinsic non periodontal fibers

104
Q

Sharpeys fibers function as a ligament between

A

The bone and cementum

105
Q

Sharpeys fibers are part of the collagen fibers from the PDL which are partially inserted into what at one end and what at the other

A

Partially inserted into the cementum at one and end and part of the alveolar bone at the other end (at a right angle)

106
Q

The intrinsic non PDL fibers of the cementum are collagen fibers made by the

A

Cementoblasts

107
Q

The cementoblasts that do not get trapped in cementum line up along? And do what?

A

Line up along the cemental surface
And repair the tooth if it is injured

108
Q

What are the 2 cementum types

A

Acellular (primary) and cellular (secondary)

109
Q

4 characteristics of acellular (primary) cementum

A

-1st layer deposited at DCJ
-laid down slowly and regularly
-no embedded cementocytes
-width never changes

110
Q

4 characteristics of cellular (secondary) cementum

A

-on the surface of acellular cementum
-laid down quickly
-cementoblasts and cementocytes present
-width may change

111
Q

What are the 3 types of CEJ’s
(OMG)

A

15% overlap
52% meet
33% gap

112
Q

What is Hypercementosis

A

Excessive production of cellular cementum mainly at apices

113
Q

What are the causes of Hypercementosis (3)

A

-Chronic periapical inflammation
-Occlusal trauma
-Compensatory mechanism in response to attrition to increase occlusal tooth height

114
Q

Hypercementosis may result in pulpal necrosis by blocking

A

Blood supply via the apical foramen

115
Q

What is concrescence

A

Fused roots (2 separate crowns)

116
Q

Mineralized spherical bodies of cementum in PDL caused by apposition of cementum around cellular debris

A

Cementicles

117
Q

What are the 3 types of cementicles

A

Free
Attached
Embedded

118
Q

Free cementicles are found in the

A

Ligament

119
Q

Attached cementicles are attached to the

A

Surface of cementum

120
Q

Embedded cementicles are found within

A

The cementum

121
Q

What is the PDL

A

Fibrous connective tissue btwn alveolar bone and cementum that supports teeth

122
Q

The PDL acts as a

A

Shock absorber

123
Q

PDL is composed of

A

Fibers, cells and intercellular substance

124
Q

The PDL contains

A

Blood vessels (nutrition)
Nerves (pain, touch pressure and temp changes)

125
Q

What are the 2 types of nerves in the PDL

A

Afferent (sensory, myelinated)
Autonomic (sympathetic)

126
Q

Afferent nerves transmit _____ that occur within the PDL

A

Sensations

127
Q

Autonomic nerve of PDL regulates

A

Blood vessels

128
Q

Gingival fiber group of the PDL is around the ___ and supports only the ____

A

Around the necks of the teeth
Supports only the marginal gingiva

129
Q

Alveodental ligament surrounds the

A

Roots of the teeth (main group)

130
Q

Interdental ligament or transseptal ligament is found

A

Cervical surface of adjacent teeth
Cementum to cementum
NO BONY ATTACHMENT

131
Q

Alveolar bone is part of the maxilla and mandible that contains the

A

Roots of the teeth

132
Q

Alveolar bone includes what (4)

A

Cortical plate
Alveolar crest
Trabecular bone
Alveolar bone proper

133
Q

Alveolar bone proper/lamina dura is a thin layer of compact bone that forms the

A

Tooth socket
(* known as lamina dura on radiographs)

134
Q

Alveolar crest is the highest point on the _____. It joins what 2 things

A

Alveolar ridge
Joins the facial and lingual cortical plates

135
Q

Supporting compact bone is aka

A

Cortical bone/plate

136
Q

Supporting cortical bone extends over what surfaces of the maxilla and mandible

A

Lingual and buccal surfaces

137
Q

Supporting compact bone is dense and provides

A

Strength and protection

138
Q

Supporting cancellous bone is aka

A

Spongy bone/ trabecular bone

139
Q

Supporting cancellous bone is located between

A

ABP and the plates of cortical bone

140
Q

Fenestration: the area of bone loss where an apical root

A

Penetrates the cortical bone, opening through the bone
window like defect

141
Q

Dehiscence: bone loss in the

A

Coronal area of the root, bone splits open

142
Q

Leeway space is created in the arches by replacement of

A

Larger primary molars by smaller permanent premolars

143
Q

Ortho movement: pressure on the ____ causes movement in that direction

A

ABP

144
Q

Compression zone = ?
-pressure applied to PDL, osetoclasts resorb bone

A

Bone resorption

145
Q

Tension zone = ?
* tension applied to PDL, osteoblasts resorb bone

A

Bone deposition

146
Q

With age, if there are no longer present alveolar bone undergoes ? Because?

A

Resorption. Because it needs roots to remain viable

147
Q

Prenatal development begins and ends when

A

Begins at conception and ends at birth

148
Q

3 periods of prenatal development

A

Pre implantation period (1st trimester)
Embryonic period (1st trimester)
Fetal period (2nd and 3rd trimester)

149
Q

Embryonic period occurs when

A

2nd-8th week

150
Q

During the embryonic period developmental processes occur which are?

A

Induction
Proliferation
Differentiation
Morphogenesis
Maturation

151
Q

What is Bilaminar embryonic disc

A

3D flattened, circular plate with bilayered cells that developed from a blastocyst

152
Q

What are the bilaminar embryonic disc layers

A

Superior epiblast layer
Inferior hypoblast layer

153
Q

Primitive streak forms during the beginning of the

A

3rd week within the bilaminar disc

154
Q

Formation of the primary streak: cells from the _____ will move toward the _____ in the area of the primitive streak

A

Epiblast layer; hypoblast layer

155
Q

Formation of the primitive streak: these migratory cells move to the ____ between epiblast and hypoblast layers and become _____ and _____

A

Middle; mesoderm and endoderm

156
Q

With 3 layers present, the bilaminar embryonic disc is now called

A

Trilaminar embryonic disc

157
Q

Epiblast layer =
Migrated cells =
Hypoblast layer =

A

Epiblast layer= Ectoderm
Migrated cells= mesoderm
Hypoblast= endoderm

158
Q

Development of the face begins during the ___ week, with formation of primitive mouth called ?

A

4th week; stomodeum

159
Q

How many branchial arches form below stomodeum

A

6

160
Q

What is another name of 1st and 2nd branchial arches

A

1st aka mandibular arches
2nd aka hyoid arches

161
Q

What cartilage is associated with 1st and 2nd branchial arches

A

1st- Meckels cartilage
important in formation of the mandible
2nd - reicherts cartilage

162
Q

What is Ectodermal dysplasia? What does it look like?

A

Abnormal development of one or more structures from ectoderm
* may be partial or complete anodontia

163
Q

What is rubella

A

Causes cataracts, deafness or damage to heart or brain in the unborn infant

164
Q

How does fetal alcohol syndrome look

A

Crowding of teeth, mouth breathing, anterior open bite

165
Q

Syphilis produces defects in the ?

A

Incisors and molar (hutchinsons incisor, mulberry molar)

166
Q

How does tetracycline staining look?

A

Intrinsic yellow/brown stain
* chemically bound to dentin and becomes transparent in the enamel

167
Q

Development of the face: frontonasal process gives rise to?
What is included in this process

A

Gives rise to medial nasal processes and lateral nasal processes
Forehead, bridge of nose, philtrum of upper lip, primary palate, nasal septum

168
Q

Development of the face: maxillary processes: bilateral. What is included?

A

Sides of upper lip
Cheeks
Secondary palate
Posterior part of maxilla

169
Q

Development of the face: mandibular processes, bilateral. What is included in this process

A

Lowe jaw- mandible
Lower lip
Sides of the mandible and lower face to the lateral borders of the lips

170
Q

Development of the face: median nasal processes: bilateral
What is included in this process?

A

Intermaxillary segment (globular process)
Centre of the upper lip
Philtrum
Middle part of the nose

171
Q

Development of the face: lateral nasal processes, bilateral. What is included in this process

A

Side of the nose

172
Q

Palate development starts during the 5th week of prenatal development and arises from 3 sources which are

A

2 maxillary processes
Globular process (aka Intermaxillary segment)

173
Q

Intermaxillary segment (5/6th week) forms from the fusing of the?
Gives rise to the?

A

2 medial basal processes
Gives rise to the primary palate (anterior 1/3rd of hard palate)

174
Q

Lateral palatine processes (2 palatal shelves- 6-12th week) form from?
Gives rise to?

A

Form from the bilateral maxillary processes
Gives rise to the secondary palate (posterior 2/3rd of hard palate, soft palate, uvula)

175
Q

Final palate (12th week) what occurs?

A

Primary palate fuses with the secondary palate (Y shaped pattern)

176
Q

The fusion of primary and secondary palate gives rise to (2)

A

The median palatine raphe within mucosal lining and deeper median palatine suture where palatal shelves/bones fuse

177
Q

Cleft lip results from

A

Partial or complete failure of fusion of 1 or both maxillary processes with the medial nasal processes

178
Q

During the 4th week, the tissue around the_____ on the frontonasal process undergoes growth, creating ____

A

Nasal placodes; nasal pits

179
Q

The medial nasal processes fuse together to form the

A

Middle part of the nose
Tubercle of upper lip
Philtrum

180
Q

Nasal septum (5-12th week) part of the frontonasal process forms the nasal septum by

A

Growing backwards and down until the inferior border fuses with the center of the hard palate

181
Q

Lateral nasal processes form the

A

Alae (side) of the nose

182
Q

Fusion of lateral nasal, maxillary and medial nasal processes forms the

A

Nares

183
Q

At __ weeks in utero, the tongue begins to develop from the

A

4 weeks; anterior wall of the primitive throat and protrudes upward and anterior

184
Q

The body of the tongue develops from the ______ and the base/root of the tongue develops later from the _____

A

1st brachial arch
2nd, 3rd, and 4th brachial arch

185
Q

The developing tongue: tuberculum impar

A

Swelling begins

186
Q

The developing tongue: lateral lingual swellings

A

Develop on each side of the tuberculum impar

187
Q

Developing tongue: the 2 swellings overgrow and encompass the disappearing tuberculum impar to form the

A

Anterior 2/3rd of tongue (body of tongue)

188
Q

Developing tongue: median lingual sulcus

A

Line of demarcation of fusion of the two lateral swellings

189
Q

Developing tongue: just behind the fused anterior swellings is the _____. This will form the ?

A

Copula; forms the base of the tongue (posterior 1/3rd)

190
Q

Development of tongue: even more posterior to the copula there is

A

Epiglottis swelling. Site of future epiglottis

191
Q

Macroglossia

A

Large tongue

192
Q

Ankyloglossia

A

Tongue tied; short attachment of lingual frenum

193
Q

Macrostomia: what is it? What is it a result of ?

A

Extremely large mouth opening resulting from a failure of fusion of the maxillary process and mandibular arch at the corners of the mouth

194
Q

Microstomia: what is it and what is it a result of?

A

Extremely small mouth opening resulting of the merging of the maxillary process and mandibular arch at the corners of the mouth

195
Q

Odontogenesis; development of the primary dentition begins at about the __th week of embryonic life

A

6th

196
Q

What is the first stage of odontogenesis and involves the physiological process of induction

A

Initiation stage (6-7th week)

197
Q

At the beginning of the 6th week the embryos stomodeum is lined by?

A

Ectoderm

198
Q

Initiation stage: The outer part of the ectoderm gives rise to

A

Oral epithelium

199
Q

Initiation stage: below oral epithelium, connective tissue called ___ develops

A

Ectomesenchyme

200
Q

Initiation stage: oral epithelium grows deeper into the ectomesenchyme to produce

A

Dental Lamina

201
Q

Lack of initiation results in the absence of

A

A single tooth or multiple teeth (hypodontia or anodontia) or extra teeth (hyperdontia)

202
Q

What is the second stage of odontogenesis occurring at the beginning of the 8th week

A

Bud stage

203
Q

Main physiological process of bud stage is

A

Proliferation

204
Q

Bud stage: dental lamina proliferates (grows) into

A

Tooth buds (primary 10 buds)

205
Q

Tooth buds for all permanent teeth, except molars, arise from _____ which is lingual to the dental lamina of primary teeth

A

Successional lamina

206
Q

What are the developmental disturbances that can occur during bud stage

A

Macrodontia
Microdontia

207
Q

3rd stage of odontogenesis occurring during the 9/10th week

A

Cap stage

208
Q

What are the physiological processes of the cap stage

A

Proliferation
Differentiation
Morphogenesis

209
Q

Cap stage: dental lamina has proliferated and differentiated into the ______ of a primary tooth

A

Tooth germ

210
Q

Tooth germ consists of

A

Enamel organ (with enamel knot)
Dental papilla
Dental sac

211
Q

Enamel organ produces future

A

Crown form and enamel

212
Q

Connective tissue within the cap becomes the dental papilla; dental papilla gives rise to

A

Pulp and dentin

213
Q

The dental sac will produce the periodontium which includes?

A

Cementum
PDL
Alveolar bone

214
Q

Succedaneous refers to permanent teeth that develop from ?
What do they replace

A

Develop from successional dental lamina and they replace primary teeth
(Primary Anteriors and primary molars- perm anterior and perm premolars)

215
Q

Nonsuccedaneous refers to permanent teeth that

A

Don’t develop from successional dental lamina and don’t replace any primary teeth (permanent molars only)

216
Q

The 4th stage of odontogenesis occurring during the 11-12th week

A

Bell stage

217
Q

Bell stage: Enamel organ has 4 cell layers

A

Inner enamel epithelium
Stratum intermedium
Stellate reticulum
Outer enamel epithelium

218
Q

Inner enamel epithelium is the innermost columnar cells. This will differentiate into?

A

Ameloblasts

219
Q

What cell layer(s) of the enamel organ support the production of enamel

A

Stratum intermedium
Stellate reticulum

220
Q

Outer enamel epithelium is outer cuboidal cells and provides a

A

Protective barrier

221
Q

Cells of the dental papilla are (2) and what are they associated with

A

Outer cells- differentiate into odontoblast
Central cells- pull

222
Q

Describe apposition stage

A

Enamel, dentin and cementum are secreted in successive layers

223
Q

Describe maturation stage

A

Dental tissue types fully mineralize

224
Q

Ameloblasts develop from

A

Inner enamel epithelium (IEE)

225
Q

Odontoblasts produce a layer of

A

Predentin

226
Q

1st enamel is deposited on surface of _____. It establishes what?

A

Dentin; establishes DEJ

227
Q

Developmental disturbances that can occur during the cap stage include

A

Dens in dente
Gemination
Fusion
Tubercles

228
Q

Once enamel is formed, layers of enamel organ condense to? What is it? What is its function?

A

Reduced enamel epithelium (REE)
-REE is a thin membrane on the entire surface of the crown
- protects enamel until tooth erupts

229
Q

As the tooth erupts, REE fuses with epithelial lining and forms

A

Epithelial attachment

230
Q

Root formation begins after

A

The crown is completely formed

231
Q

What is the cervical loop and what is its function

A

Most cervical part of the enamel organ. Responsible for root development

232
Q

Innermost and outermost enamel organs merge in a cervical loop and grows down as a double row of cells called

A

Hertwigs epithelial root sheath

233
Q

What is the function of HERS and what does it consist of ?

A

Molds the shape of the root and initiates dentin formation from the cells of the dental papilla.
-consists of ONLY inner and outer enamel epithelium

234
Q

After the first layer of dentin is formed what disintegrates? This disintegration leaves behind ?

A

HERS disintegrates
Leaves behind epithelial rests of malaassez

235
Q

Cementoblasts cover root dentin and lay down?

A

Cementoid
*cementoblasts differentiate from the cells of the dental sac

236
Q

Cementum and pulp formation: central cells of the dental papilla are condensing to form

A

The pulp

237
Q

Remaining ectomesenchyme from the dental sac forms the

A

PDL and mineralized to form the tooth socket of the alveolar bone

238
Q

Anodontia

A

Congenital absence of all primary or permanent teeth (initiation stage)

239
Q

Hypodontia

A

Less than the normal amount of teeth (initiation stage)

240
Q

Oligodontia

A

Absence of 6 or more teeth
(Initiation stage)

241
Q

Hyperdontia

A

Having supernumerary (extra teeth) (initiation teeth)

242
Q

Microdontia

A

Small teeth (bud stage)

243
Q

Macrodontia

A

Large teeth (bud stage)

244
Q

Dens in dente

A

Tooth within a tooth (cap stage)

245
Q

Gemination

A

2 crowns develop from 1 bud
(Cal stage)

246
Q

Fusion

A

2 developing teeth fuse into 1 tooth (cap stage)

247
Q

Tubercle

A

Outgrowth or projection (cap stage)

248
Q

Enamel pearl

A

Misplaced ameloblasts during root formation (A and M stage)

249
Q

Concrescence

A

Fusion of cementum (A&M stage)

250
Q

Dilacerations

A

Disturbance during root formation; crown or root showing angular distortion (A&M stage)

251
Q

Amelogenesis imperfecta

A

Hereditary enamel dysplasia with thin or absent enamel

252
Q

Dentinogenesis imperfecta

A

Dentin dysplasia with hereditary basis and blue gray or brown teeth with opalescent sheen

253
Q

Enamel dysplasia

A

Faulty development of enamel