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RUSVM Clinical Pathology 2016 > Hematology - (Intro through Bone Marrow) > Flashcards

Hematology - (Intro through Bone Marrow) Flashcards

1
Q

What is an MCHC?

A

Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration

the average amount of hemoglobin in a Red blood cell

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2
Q

How do you calculate the absolute nucleated blood cell differential value?

A

Multiply the percent of the nucleated cell count by the total nucleated cell count

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3
Q

How do you calculate the absolute reticulocyte count?

A

Multiply the percent reticulocytes by the red blood cell count

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4
Q

What is the packed cell volume?

A

The percentage of erythrocytes in whole blood also called the hematocrit

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5
Q

What does the Buffy coat contain?

A

leukocytes
nucleated erythrocytes
platelets

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6
Q

What does the yellow pigmentation of plasma indicate?

A

Suggestive of icterus due to increase Billirubin concentration in the blood. In large animals may be due to Carotene pigments associated with diet

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7
Q

What does a pale opaque plasma pigmentation indicate?

A

Lipemia - may be due to postprandial collection or maybe due to diseases associated with abnormalities in lipid metabolism

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8
Q

What does red coloration of the plasma indicate?

A

Due to the presence of hemoglobin in the plasma - the result of hemolysis

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9
Q

What are the causes of hemolysis in vitro and in vivo?

A

In vitro due to technique or presence of lipemia

in vivo due to hemolytic anemia

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10
Q

What is plasma proteins by refractometry used for?

A

Measures the refractive index relative to distilled water to estimate plasma protein estimation

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11
Q

What will artificially increase the plasma protein?

A

Lipids
Urea
glucose
cholesterol

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12
Q

What is the total leukocyte concentration?

A

Also known as the total nucleated cell count that detects all nuclei in solutions from which red blood cells have been removed by lysis

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13
Q

What does a segmented neutrophil look like?

A

The nucleus is constricted at least one third the width of the nucleus and elongates and can appear curved back on itself

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14
Q

How do you Convert percentage to absolute value?

A

Multiply the Total nucleated cell count by the percentage of each leukocyte type to yield the absolute concentration of each type of nucleated cell within the blood sample

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15
Q

What does MCV stand for?

A

Mean cell volume - the average size of the red blood cells

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16
Q

How do you calculate the hematocrit (PCV)?

A

Multiply the MCV by the red blood cell count and divide by 10

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17
Q

How do you calculate the MCHC (mean cell hemoglobin concentration)?

A

Hemoglobin times 100 divided by the percent PCV

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18
Q

What is normochromic?

A

Red blood cells appear to be the correct red cell color and therefore the correct hemoglobin concentration

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19
Q

What is hypochromic and what is it indicative of?

A

The red cells appear to be paler than normal and therefore less hemoglobin concentration

Iron deficiency anemia!!!

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20
Q

What is hyperchromic?

A

Red cells appear to have more Red cell color than normal this would mean an increase in hemoglobin concentration

NO such thing as hyperchromic anemia!!!

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21
Q

Which animals have a nucleated oval red blood cell?

A

Birds

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22
Q

Which animals have elliptical shaped red blood cells?

A

Camelids

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23
Q

What does a high mean sell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) mean?

A

If increased it is due to erroneously high hemoglobin due to hemolysis, lipemia, or the presence of Heinz bodies

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24
Q

What does a decreased mean cell hemoglobin concentration (MCHC) mean?

A

Decreases may be due to iron deficiency but not unless very severe

usually decreases due to the presence of many reticulocytes that are still making hemoglobin

usually associated with the regenerative anemia

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25
Q

Which animal has a red blood cell with central pallor and size closest to human?

A

Dog

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26
Q

Which animal has the smallest sized red blood cell?

A

Goat

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27
Q

What does a wide bell curve on and MCV indicative of?

A

Variability in size of red blood cells

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28
Q

What is red cell distribution width (RDW)?

A

Describes the relative width of the size distribution curve

the standard deviation of most of the erythrocytes divided by the MCV

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29
Q

What is Anisocytosis?

A

Variability in size of red blood cells

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30
Q

What is a tight left shifted curve (MCV) indicative of?

A

Uniform populations of small red blood cells and iron deficiency anemia

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31
Q

Reticulocyte concentration

A

Immature erythrocytes still have organelles for protein synthesis and aerobic metabolism

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32
Q

How do you calculate reticulocyte count?

A

Percentage of reticulocytes counted are multiplied by the RBC count to obtain an absolute reticulocyte concentration

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33
Q

0-10,000 reticulocyte count

A

Non regenerative anemia

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34
Q

10,000-60,000 reticulocyte count

A

Poorly regenerative anemia

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35
Q

60,000-200,000 reticulocyte count

A

Mild to moderate regeneration

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36
Q

> 200,000 reticulocyte count

A

Maximal regeneration

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37
Q

What is a punctate reticulocyte?

A

A 12 day old or less reticulocyte that has organelles all throughout them

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38
Q

What do refractometers estimate?

A

Estimate the concentration of solute in fluid

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39
Q

If your PCV and total protein are increased what does that indicate?

A

The patient is dehydrated

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40
Q

If the PCV and the total protein are decreased then what does that indicate?

A

The patient has blood loss

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41
Q

What are the two major constituents of the total protein?

A

Albumin and globulin

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42
Q

What are Dohle bodies indicative of?

A

Toxic neutrophil - young neutrophil

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43
Q

What does a red top tube contain and what is it used for?

A

Does not contain anticoagulant and is used for serum for biochemical profiles and other tests

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44
Q

What does the marble top tube contain and what is it used for?

A

Contains a serum separator (a gel that promotes blood clot formation and separate cells from serum) used for chemistry analysis and serology

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45
Q

What does the purple top tube contain and what is it used for?

A

Contains EDTA (ethlenediaminetetraacetic acid)with a potassium salt - an anticoagulant calcium chelator that preserves cell morphology

used in the CBC, fibrinogen, and reticulocyte count

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46
Q

What does the green top tube contain and what is it used for?

A

Contains heparin, an anticoagulant, that inhibits thrombin and also contains fibrinogen

used in chemistry panels, avian and reptile CBC and chemistry panel

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47
Q

What does a blue top tube contain and what is it used for?

A

Contains citrate, an anticoagulant calcium chelator, used in coagulation tests like PT PTT and FDP

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48
Q

What does the gray top tube contain and what is it used for?

A

Contains sodium fluoride oxalate, an anticoagulant calcium chelator, that inhibit glucose metabolism used for plasma for serial glucose, lactate, & pyruvate

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49
Q

What is a reference interval?

A

A range of normal values in a healthy population

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50
Q

Which phase more commonly is the source of error: pre-analytical analytical or post analytical?

A

Pre-analytical phase

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51
Q

What are the two major categories of pre-analytical factors?

A

Technical effects and biological factors

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52
Q

What are technical effects of pre-analytical factors?

A

Due to sampling technique and specimen management before analysis

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53
Q

What are biological factors of the pre-analytical phase?

A

Inherent with the animal sampled

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54
Q

What is a factor of the analytical phase?

A

Analyzer error

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55
Q

What are two factors of the post analytical phase?

A

Errors in transcription and misinterpretation/misreading results

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56
Q

What is a sensitive test?

A

A test that helps rule out a disease when the result is negative - SNOUT (sensitivity rules out)

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57
Q

What is specificity?

A

A test that rules in a diagnosis by a positive result - SPIN (specificity rules in)

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58
Q

What is diagnostic accuracy?

A

Measures the frequency that a test correctly classifies an animal as having or not having a disease

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59
Q

Which stages of the neutrophil are proliferating and maturing?

A

Myeloblast
progranulocyte
myelocyte

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60
Q

Which stages of the neutrophil are maturation only?

A

Metamyelocyte
band neutrophils
segmented neutrophils

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61
Q

How many segmented neutrophils can one myeloblast yield?

A

16 to 32 segmented neutrophils

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62
Q

What causes decreased margination of neutrophils?

A

Cortisol and epinephrine

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63
Q

What does the suffix -penia refer to?

A

refers to a decreased concentration of the cell type in blood.

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64
Q

Cytopenia

A

refers to a decrease in cell concentration in a nonspecific manner

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65
Q

What does The suffixes -philia or -cytosis refer to?

A

refer to an increased concentration of the cell type in blood.

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66
Q

What does a left shift refer to?

A

Left shift refers to an increased concentration of immature neutrophils in blood.

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67
Q

Myeloma

A

A specific form of neoplasia with plasma cell differentiation

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68
Q

What are Dohle bodies seen more commonly in?

A

Cats

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69
Q

What features of the neutrophil are seen as artifact of aged blood?

A

Cytoplasmic vacuolation and nuclear swelling

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70
Q

What is an acquired change associated with ingestion of certain plants containing the toxic substance swainsonine?

A

Inhibition of lysosomal enzymes - Lymphocyte vacuolation

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71
Q

What anomaly contains cells that have an immaturely shaped nucleus (i.e., band or myelocyte form) and no segmented neutrophils are seen in blood films. Eosinophils are also affected and appear as band forms.?

A

Pelger-Huët anomaly

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72
Q

What anomaly causes Neutrophils from affected cats to contain fine eosinophilic to magenta-colored granules?

A

Birman cat neutrophil granulation anomaly

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73
Q

What disorder causes Neutrophils to contain numerous distinct, dark-purple or magenta-colored granules and Lymphocytes also contain granules and vacuoles.?

A

mucopolysaccharidosis (MPS)

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74
Q

What disorder causes Neutrophils to have large, fused, 2.0-mm lysosomes that stain lightly pink or eosinophilic within the cytoplasm and have a slight tendency to bleed, because platelet function is abnormal?

A

Chédiak-Higashi syndrome

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75
Q

What is Leukemia?

A

Presence of neoplastic cells in the blood or bone marrow

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76
Q

What are three features of a toxic Neutrophil?

A

Increased basophilia of cytoplasm
Presence of Dohle bodies
Cytoplasmic vacuolation

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77
Q

What does MPS and GM2 Gangliocydosis result in?

A

cytoplasmic granulation or vacuolation

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78
Q

What are the clinical signs of an animal with mucopolysaccharidosis VI?

A 
Dwarfism
Severe bone disease
degenerative joint disease
Corneal edema
Flattened face
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79
Q

What are the two factors that are balanced in determining Blood Neutrophil Concentration?

A

Marrow Delivery rate

Tissue Consumption Rate

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80
Q

What is Neutrophilia indicative of?

A

Inflammation

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81
Q

What is a left shift indicative of?

A

Severe Inflammation

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82
Q

What animal does not have a large storage of neutrophils?

A

Cow

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83
Q

In which animal would a Neutropenia be considered an emergency?

A

Dog

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84
Q

What kind of lesion results in very high neutrophil concentrations?

A

Chronic walled-off inflammatory lesion (Ex: Pyometra or a walled off abscess)

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85
Q

What is Leukocytosis/Lymphocytosis indicative of in a cat?

A

Excitement (“Fight or Flight” response)

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86
Q

What is a Lymphopenia indicative of?

A

Stress in Cats

87
Q

What is the mechanism for Lymphopenia from a stress response?

A

Steroid induce lymphocyte apoptosis

88
Q

What does a lack of steroid response in a sick animal mean?

A

Hypoadrenocortism

89
Q

What are the 2 cell type responses to stress?

A

Lymphopenia

Neutrophilia

90
Q

What is the stress response in dogs?

A

Monocytosis

91
Q

What are the three causes of Neutrophilia?

A

Left Shift - Inflammation –> Combined inflammation and Stress Response

No Left Shift –> Lymphopenia –> Steroid Response

No Left Shift –> No Lymphopenia –> Excitment Response

92
Q

What are the two causes of Lymphocytosis?

A

Excitement Response

Lymphocytic leukemia

93
Q

What causes large granular lymphocytes and monoclonal gammopathy?

A

Ehrlichiosis

94
Q

What are three causes of Neutropenia?

A

Consumption within inflammatory lesion
Immune mediated destruction
Lack of production by bone marrow - Bone marrow problem (Reversible or Irreversible)

95
Q

What are three causes of Lymphopenia?

A

Steroid Response
Acute viral infections
Immunodeficiency (Combined Immunodeficiency syndrome of Arabian foals)

96
Q

What are two causes of Monocytosis?

A 
Inflammation 
Stress Response (Dogs)
97
Q

What are three causes of Eosinophilia?

A

Parasitism
Hypersensitivity
Lesions producing eosinophil chemoattractants (Mast cell tumors)

98
Q

Is there an eosinophilia with a RBC parasite?

99
Q

When do you seen a basophilia?

A

With an eosinophilia

100
Q

What causes increased neutrophils at 2X the reference interval?

A

INFLAMMATION

101
Q

Is a macrocytic anemia regenerative or nonregenrative?

A

Regenerative

102
Q

Microcytic Anemia = ?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

103
Q

What is macrocytic anemia?

A

Increase in size of the Red Blood Cells

104
Q

What is normacytic anemia?

A

The Red blood cells have not changed their shape

Indicative of Blood Loss Anemia

105
Q

What do you administer to an iron deficient anemia patient? Oral or injectable iron?

A

injectable iron

106
Q

What is microcytic anemia ALWAYS due to?

A

Iron deficiency Anemia!

107
Q

What is Polychromasia?

A

Reticulocytes that the organelles have clumped together (released from the bone marrow within the last 24-48 hours) - THE BONE MARROW IS RESPONDING!

108
Q

Describe a bowl shaped or “Punched out” cell

A

sharply defined, central clear area, and a thicker rim of hemoglobin

109
Q

Poikilocytes

A

Abnormally shaped erythrocytes

110
Q

Spiculated erythrocyte

A

have one ore more surface spicules and include echinocytes, acanthocytes, keratocytes, and schistocytes

111
Q

Schistocytes

A

Erythrocyte fragments that result from the shearing of red cells by intravascular trauma usually with Fibrin strands

112
Q

Acanthocytes

A

Few unevenly distributed projections due to changes in lipid concentrations in RBC membrane

113
Q

Keratocytes

A

One or two quite long spicules often formed by breaking open of “blisters” on a red blood cell - Also associated with iron deficiency anemia

114
Q

Echinocytes - Definition and Cause?

A

numerous short spicules caused by In vitro formation ( Blood dries slowly - causes the blood pH to change), Electrolyte imbalance, Non-specific diseases, and Rattlesnake envenomation

115
Q

Spherocytes

A

Ball-shaped Red blood cells

116
Q

What conditions are associated with Acanthocytes?

A

Hepatic lipidosis
Liver disease
hemangiosarcoma

117
Q

Why does Hemangiosarcoma cause Acanthocyte formation?

A

The cancer invades the endothelial cells of the blood vessels causing vascular changes

118
Q

What conditions are associated with Schistocyte formation?

A 
Intravascular trauma (DIC)
Iron deficiency Anemia
119
Q

Does the patient become anemia because of Schistocyte formation?

A

NO! The red blood cells break apart and reseal

120
Q

What condition is associated with the presence of Spherocytes?

A

Immune mediated Hemolytic anemia (IMHA)

121
Q

What type of echinocytes are associated with Rattlesnake Envenomation?

122
Q

What antibody will cause agglutination of RBCs?

123
Q

What causes the formation of spherocytes?

A

partial phagocytosis due to the presence of antibodies on the membrane

124
Q

What are spherocytes associated with?

A

blood transfusion with the wrong blood type
bee stings
zinc toxicosis
Certain Drugs

125
Q

What can cause intravascular hemolysis?

A

The MAC complex forming and punching a hole in the RBC membrane

126
Q

Eccentrocytes - Shape changes and cause?

A

Shifting of hemoglobin to one side of the cells resulting in a clear zone outlined by a membrane

Caused by oxidative damage due to the ingestion of onions in dogs

Often seen with Heinz body formation

127
Q

What erythrocyte morphologies are of little diagnostic significance?

A

Leptocytes (Folded cells)
Codocytes (Target cells)
Stomatocytes
Torocytes (Bowl Shaped)

128
Q

What is a Torocyte and how is it formed?

A

Bowl shaped erythrocyte formed by the forces acting on the RBCs in the capillaries

129
Q

Leptocyte - Shape and Cause?

A

Thin RBCs that tend to fold more easily caused by iron deficiency

130
Q

What is target cell formation associated with?

A

High Cholesterol in dogs

131
Q

Stomatocytes

A

Uniconcave erythrocytes with a mouthlike clear area near the cell center

132
Q

What are stomatocytes associated with?

A

Dwarfism in Alaskan Malamutes, Miniature Schnauzers, Drentse partrijshond

133
Q

What are Heinz bodies associated with?

A

Hemolytic anemia

Especially in Cats

134
Q

Basophilic stippling

A

Blue dots in RBCs that are normal for ruminants

135
Q

What is basophilic stippling associated with in small animals?

A

Lead poisoning

136
Q

Howell Jolly bodies

A

nuclear remnant that did not get extruded when the nucleus got extruded from the RBC

137
Q

What are Howell Jolly bodies associated with

A 
Regenerative Anemia
Non functioning spleens
Splenectomy
Increased Corticosteroids
Lead poisoning
138
Q

What causes the formation of Heinz body

A 
Acetaminophen (cats)
Propylene glycol (cats)
Illness in cats
Onions in all species
Cephalosporins (Dogs)
Zinc toxicosis 
Copper and Selenium deficiency 
Crude oil
Naphthalene (moth balls) 
Kale, Cabbage, Rape
Wilted Red maple leaves
139
Q

What kind of anemia is basophilic stippling associated with?

A

Regenerative Anemia

140
Q

At what stage is an erythrocyte no longer able to divide?

A

Metarubricyte

141
Q

When would you see Prorubricytes and Rubriblasts in the blood?

A

NEVER!

Unless there is leukemia

142
Q

What are the stages of an erythrocyte?

A 
Rubriblast
Prorubricyte
Rubricyte
Metarubricyte
Erythrocyte
143
Q

What does Mycoplasma haemofelis appear like on the RBCs?

A

rod shaped on the periphery of the erythrocyte or as a basophilic ring on the cell

144
Q

what does Cytauzoon felis appear on the RBC?

A

A ring and contains a small basophilic nucleus

145
Q

What does Mycoplasma haemocanis appear like on the RBC?

A

small dots that chain across the surface of the RBC

146
Q

What RBC morphology occurs because of Mycoplasma haemocanis?

A

Spherocytes because of the immune mediated anemia

147
Q

What are the two stages of Cytauxzoon felis?

A 
RBC stage
Tissue stage (macrophages)
148
Q

What does Babesia canis appear like on staining?

A

a teardrop shaped structure

149
Q

What does Babesia gibsoni appear like on staining?

A

small pale ring shape

150
Q

What does Anaplasma appear like on staining?

A

A purple dot on the periphery of the RBC

151
Q

What is Rouleaux formation and what causes it?

A

“coin stacking” of RBCs
Normal in the horse
Associated with increased globulin in small animals
Suggests antibody attachment to RBCs (IMHA)

152
Q

What diseases are associated with Roulaeux formation in small animals?

A

Chronic Ehrlichiosis

FIP

153
Q

What can differentiate between agglutination and rouleaux formation?

A

A drop of saline

154
Q

What is associated with agglutination?

A

Hemolytic anemia

155
Q

What are three causes of anemia?

A 
Increased loss (hemorrhage)
Increased destruction (Hemolysis)
decreased production
156
Q

What are the clinical signs of anemia?

A 
Pale mucous membranes
Lethargy, reduced exercise tolerance
Increased respiratory rate, dyspnea
Increased heart rate
Murmurs
157
Q

What are the clinical signs associated with blood destruction?

A

Splenomegaly
Icterus (Jaundice)
Hemoglobinuria

158
Q

What other laboratory tests can we run for anemia?

A

Serum Iron
Coombs test
Biochemical profile

159
Q

What disease is the Coomb’s Test associated with?

A

IMHA - Immune mediated hemolytic anemia

160
Q

What are the indication of regenerative anemia?

A

Increased polychromasia

Increased reticulocyte concentration

161
Q

What are the two types of Blood destruction?

A

Intrinsic (Primary -Hereditary defects)

Extrinsic (Secondary - parasites or immune mediated destruction)

162
Q

What happens if there is blood loss into the body such as the abdomen?

A

Components of the blood can be reabsorbed

163
Q

What happens if there is blood loss outside of the body such as the GI tract?

A

Components of the blood are lost and NOT reabsorbed

164
Q

What happens to the PCV and TP with acute blood loss?

A

Decreased due to dilution with interstitial fluid

165
Q

What types of RBC morphology are seen with Hemangiosarcoma?

A

Acanthocytes

Schistocytes

166
Q

What is the result of chronic blood loss?

A

Iron deficiency anemia

167
Q

List some examples of Acute blood loss

A

Trauma & Surgery
Coagualation disorders
Bleeding tumors
Thromboocytopenia

168
Q

List some examples of Chronic Blood loss

A

GI Ulcer
Bleeding GI tumor
Blood consuming parasites

169
Q

What life stage of animals are naturally iron deficient?

A

Nursing animals

170
Q

What is a differential diagnosis for microcytosis?

A

Portosystemic shunts

171
Q

What kind of anemia do animals with anemia of inflammatory disease have?

A

normocytic anemia

172
Q

What are the lab findings for iron deficiency anemia?

A 
Microcytosis
Reticulocytes
Decreased MCV
Increased RDW
Normal MCHC
Thrombocytosis
Decreased serum iron concentration
Decreased transferrin saturation
173
Q

What are the two types of Blood destruction?

A

Intravascular hemolysis

Extravascular hemolysis

174
Q

List examples of blood destruction

A

Immune mediated hemeolytic anemia
Heinz body anemia
RBC parasites

175
Q

Clinical Signs associated with blood destruction anemia

A 
Splenomegaly
Hyperbilirubinemia
Icterus
Hemoglobinuria
Hemoglobinermia
176
Q

What are the laboratory findings for IMHA?

A

Thrombocytopenia
Inflammatory Leukogram
Sometimes Azotemic

177
Q

List the characteristics of IMHA

A 
Regenerative
Spherocytosis
agglutination
neutrophilia with left shift 
thrombocytopenia
178
Q

Neonatal Isoerythrolysis

A

Maternal antibodies against the neonates blood group antigen attach to the neonates RBCs with subsequent hemolysis

179
Q

What are the clinical signs of Neonatal Isoerythrolysis?

A 
Hemoglobinemia
Hemoglobinuria
splenomegaly
hepatomegaly
thrombocytopenia 
DIC
180
Q

What two parasites cause intravascular hemolysis?

A

Babesia

Theileria

181
Q

What are the clinical signs for M. haemofelis?

A 
Same as Anemia
Splenomegaly
Fever
Lethargy
Icterus
182
Q

What kind of transmission is commone with M. wenyonii in cattle?

A

Iatrogenic transmission

183
Q

Does M. wenyonii always cause anemia in Cattle?

A

NO!

unless they are splenectomized or immunosuppressed

184
Q

Piroplasmosis in horses

A

Babesiosis

185
Q

What is the stage of Theileria that resides within RBCs?

186
Q

Methemoglobin

A

a form of hemoglobin cannot carry oxygen due to Iron in ferric state

187
Q

What color does blood appear when 30% of hemoglobin is methemoglobin?

A

Chocolate Brown

188
Q

What causes Methemoglobin formation?

A

Acetaminophen toxicity in cats
Nitrate poisoning in cows
Red maple leaf ingestion in horses
congenital deficiency of NADH methemoglobin reductase

189
Q

What two species of bacteria cause hemolytic anemia?

A

Clostridium

Leptospira

190
Q

“yellow lamb disease”

A

Clostridium perfringens Type A in lambs and calves

191
Q

Pyruvate kinase deficiency

A

impaired energy metabolism (decreaased glucose utilization and ATP formation) with increased RBC destruction

192
Q

Phosphofructokinase deficency

A

Hemolytic crisis when they become metabolically or respiratory alkalemic

193
Q

Prophyria - “Pink tooth”

A

deficiency of uroporphyringen III co-synthetase - inability to synthesize hemoglobin with accumulation of uroporphyrin and coproporphyrin in bones and teeth

194
Q

Clinical signs of Porphyria

A

Pink teeth

Photosensitivity

195
Q

What are two ways to tell if anemia is regenerative?

A

Based on the number of circulating immature erythrocytes (Polychromatophilic erythrocytes or reticulocytes)

196
Q

What is another term for general bone marrow suppression?

A

aplastic anemia

197
Q

What causes aplastic anemia?

A 
Infectious agents (Ehrlichia)
Immune mediated destruction 
Drugs and Chemicals
198
Q

What are the infectious agents that cause aplastic anemia?

A

FeLV
Ehrlichia canis
EIA

199
Q

What is immune mediated aplastic anemia?

A

Antibodies directed against stem cells in the bone marrow

200
Q

Erythroid Aplasia

A

Pure red cells aplasia - immune mediated destruction of RBC precursors
RARE!
Ex: FeLV

201
Q

Intrinsic causes of Erythroid hypoplasia

A

Myelodysplasia
Leukemia
Immune mediated destruction of erythroid precursors

202
Q

Extrinsic causes of Erythroid hypoplasia

A

Chronic Renal Disease
Endocrine disorders
inflammatory disease

203
Q

What is the cause of Anemia of chronic renal disease?

A

Lack of production of erythropoietin by the kidney

204
Q

What is the cause of anemia of inflammatory disease?

A

Decreased iron in transport and functional pools, limiting iron for erythropoiesis

Possibly to reduce iron availability for bacterial growth

205
Q

What two diseases are linked with Endocrinopathy-related Anemia?

A

Hypothyroidism

Hypoadrenocorticism

206
Q

List places to take a bone marrow aspirate in each species

A

Proximal end of the femur at the trochanteric fossa, Iliac crest, and Proximal humerus in dogs
trochanteric fossa and humerus in cats
Ilium, ribs and sternum in horses, cattle, and camelids

207
Q

What are the two types of iron stores?

A

Ferritin and Hemosiderin

208
Q

What is the iron store you can see on bone marrow aspirate?

A

Hemosiderin

209
Q

What is the M:E ratio?

A

Number of granulocytes to nucleated erythrocytes

Usually 1:1 up to 3:1 is normal

210
Q

Why is there normally more granulocytes than erythrocytes in the M:E ratio?

A

Erythrocytes have a 120 day life span where granulocytes have a life span of 6-8 hours

211
Q

What does an increased M:E ratio mean?

A

Erythroid hypoplasia/aplasia
Granulocytic hyperplasia
Granulocytic leukemia

212
Q

What does a decreased M:E ratio mean?

A

Regenerative anemia
Erythroid leukemia
Lack of production of neutrophils

213
Q

What is orderliness of maturation?

A

More of the cells present should be the more mature forms because one blast cell produces 16-32 mature cells.

RUSVM Clinical Pathology 2016 (22 decks)

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