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ERJ > Ground School Review > Flashcards

Ground School Review Flashcards

1
Q

List all Flight Deck emergency Equipment Procedural

A 
3553
Flashlight CP/FO
Life Vest CP/FO/JS
Circuit breakers
Escape rope CP/FO
Landing gear/RAT pins (4 total) FO
PBE 
Fire Extinguisher
Crash AXE
Observer Seat/O2/headset
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2
Q

After turning Batteries 1 and 2 to “ON” and “AUTO,” what three things are we looking for?

A

Displays 2 and 3 and IESS

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3
Q

Under what voltage must a“battery recharge procedure”be accomplished? Under what voltage must maintenance be called?

A

Under 22.5v must be recharged.

Under 21.0v Mx must be called.

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4
Q

Why is it important to wait approximately 30 seconds after energizing the batteries before running the fire extinguisher panel test?

A

To allow the EICAS to populate, to check for any fire faults.

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5
Q

List all items that are part of the fire extinguisher panel test.

A 
6- Handles and extinguishing buttons
5- EICAS messages 
2- Aural/ Master warning triple chime
2- Master warning buttons
2- FIRE on ITT
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6
Q

How do you know your DVDR test is a “good test?”

A

Green light on DVDR panel and No fail EICAS message.

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7
Q

What test begins when AC power is applied to the aircraft?

A

E-PBIT

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8
Q

How do you know the E-PBIT is running?

A

WHITE “ FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG” EICAS

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9
Q

How long is the E-PBIT?

A

3 minutes

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10
Q

What does the E-PBIT check

A

All of the Electrical components of the FBW system, FCMs, P-ACE,s and SF-ACEs.

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11
Q

What will interrupt the E-PBIT?

A

Any hydraulic system pressurized
Any Flight Control Mode Panel button cycled
AC power interrupted

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12
Q

What test begins when all three hydraulic systems are pressurized in the order 3A, 1, 2?

A

H-PBIT

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13
Q

When will the H-PBIT run automatically.

A

When both engines are started.

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14
Q

How do you know the H-PBIT is running?

A

WHITE “ FLT CTRL TEST IN PROG” EICAS

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15
Q

How long does the H-PBIT take?

A

1 minute

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16
Q

What does the H-PBIT check?

A

The hydraulic systems test, functional test of all FBW actuators.

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17
Q

What interrupts the H-PBIT?

A

Any movement of the flight controls

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18
Q

How many halon bottles serve engine fire suppression?

A

2 bottles

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19
Q

What does pulling the fire handle do?

A

Commands the FUEL SOV, BLEED SOV, and HYD SOV closed.

Also closes the Xbleed valve

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20
Q

What does rotating the fire handle do?

A

Discharges the respective bottle into the respective engine

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21
Q

How many halon bottles serve APU fire protection?

A

1 bottle

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22
Q

What does pressing the APU EMER STOP button do?

A

Stops the APU without a cool down period. Closes the fuel SOV.

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23
Q

What button do I press to discharge halon to the APU?

A

EMER STOP and APU fire extinguisher

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24
Q

When will the APU automatically shut down on the ground?

A 
Underspeed 
FADEC fault
Overspeed
Sensor fail
High Oil temp
EGT overtemp
Low oil pressure 
FIRE
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25
Q

When will the APU automatically shut down, in the air?

A

Underspeed
FADEC fault
Overspeed

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26
Q

Will the APU automatically shutdown for fire? If so, when?

A

Yes, 10 sec on the ground it will shutdown and 1 minute after the detection the APU fire extinguisher light will begin to flash.

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27
Q

How many fire detectors are in each cargo bin? Smoke detectors?

A

No fire detectors.
3 smoke detectors in FWD
2 smoke detectors in AFT

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28
Q

How many halon bottle(s) serve Cargo fire suppression?

A

2

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29
Q

Will any cargo bottle automatically discharge at any time?

A

No, it always requires at least one press.

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30
Q

How do I discharge the low-rate bottle for a non-annunciated forward cargo fire on the ground?

A

1 : arm system

2: discharge high rate
3: discharge low rate

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31
Q

Briefly explain how a LAV SMOKE EICAS message would appear.

A

Smoke detected in either LAV.

Red LAV SMOKE EICAS and flashing amber light on FA panel.

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32
Q

Does LAV SMOKE mean the halon bottle has discharged?

A

No

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33
Q

What are two main components on the DC HOT BAT BUS 1 and 2 that we, as pilots, care about?

A

Pressure refueling panel

Fire Extinguishing system


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34
Q

What type(s) of circuit breakers do(es) the E170 have? How do I access them?

A

Thermal and Electronic, Some thermals are in the cockpit and the remaining CB are remote and must be accessed on the MCDU.

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35
Q

What is the primary purpose of a TRU?

A

Convert AC to DC

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36
Q

In an electrical emergency, the batteries will provide at least ___ minutes of electrical power.

A

10 minutes

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37
Q

Briefly explain the purpose of the RAT

A

Powers aircraft essential systems in an electrical emergency, may or may not charge the batteries.

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38
Q

A DC GPU can replace battery ___ in the event it is inoperative for APU starts.

A

battery 2

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39
Q

What are our sources of AC power?

A

IDG
APU
AC GPU
RAT

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40
Q

What is AC “Electrical Power Priority?”

A

Onside
Inside
Outside
Crossside

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41
Q

After starting the left engine with the APU on, what generator will power AC BUS 2?

A

Onside? No
Inside? Yes, I’ll take it.
The APU

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42
Q

All primary flight controls except for ailerons are ____?

A

Fly-by-wire

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43
Q

Briefly explain the signal path for a pitch change from control column to elevator in normal mode? Direct mode?

A

Column to the ACE to FCM and back to ACE then to control surface
Column to the ACE to control surface

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44
Q

What is the purpose of the ACE?

A

Actuator Control Electronics- connect the control column electronically to the respective control surface.

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45
Q

What is the purpose of the FCM?

A

Flight Control Module- Augments pilot inputs in normal mode to provide higher level functions

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46
Q

Name a few important Higher level Functions

A

Elevator control laws scheduling with airspeed
Auto-thrust compensation with elevator
AOA limiting with elevator offset
Rudder airspeed gain scheduling and stroke limiting
YD and Turn coordination via AFCS
Rudder flight authority
Roll spoiler scheduling with airspeed and speed brake deployment
Configuration change compensation with horiz. Stab. due to speed brake actuation

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47
Q

Flaps are _________actuated through the SF-ACE?

A

Electrically

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48
Q

What is the difference between Flaps 4 and Flaps 5?

A

4 is used for T.O and 5 is used for LNG

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49
Q

What flap settings are used for takeoff? Landing? Go-around?

A

T.O: 1, 2, or 4
Landing: 5 or FULL
Go-around: 2 or 4

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50
Q

What are maximum flap speeds?

A

1: 230
2: 215
3: 200
4/5:180
FULL: 165

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51
Q

Speed brakes are _____ activated and _____ actuated.

A

Electrical activated and hydraulically actuated.

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52
Q

What is the difference between ground Spoilers and Multifunction spoilers?

A

Ground spoilers only deploy on the ground

Multifunction deploy inflight and on the ground

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53
Q

Under what three scenarios will the speed brakes automatically retract in flight?

A

Below 180kts
Flaps > 1
TLA > 70°

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54
Q

What are the “functions” of multifunction spoilers?

A

Roll spoilers
Speed brakes
Ground spoilers

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55
Q

All pilot trim commands are limited to ____ seconds before the arm cuts out.

A

3 seconds

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56
Q

What does pressing SYS 1 CUTOUT and SYS 2 CUTOUT buttons do?

A

Disable the respective HS-ACE channel 1 or 2

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57
Q

What type of hydraulic pumps are in system 1?

A

Mechanical and electrical

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58
Q

When will EDP 1 begin pumping hydraulic fluid? Is this automatic?

A

When the Engine is started, YES

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59
Q

When will ACMP 1 turn on automatically

A

Ground: flaps > 0° AND T.O. Thrust OR ground speed> 50kt
Engine 1, Single engine taxi
Flight: EDP failure or Engine failure or FLAPS > 0°

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60
Q

What type of hydraulic pumps are in system 2?

A

Mechanical and electrical

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61
Q

When will EDP 2 begin pumping hydraulic fluid? Is this automatic?

A

When the Engine is started, YES

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62
Q

When will ACMP2 turn on automatically?

A

Ground: flaps > 0° AND T.O. Thrust OR ground speed> 50kt
Engine 1, Single engine taxi (Engine 1 running and parking brake released)
Flight: EDP failure or Engine failure or FLAPS > 0°

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63
Q

Which hydraulic system controls nose wheel steering? Landing gear?

A

System 2

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64
Q

What type hydraulic pumps are in system 3?

A

Electrical

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65
Q

When will ACMP 3A begin pumping hydraulic fluid? Is this automatic?

A

When in the ON position. NO.

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66
Q

When will ACMP 3B turn on automatically?

A

When 3A fails, in flight only.

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67
Q

What is the primary purpose of the PTU

A

To assist the landing gear in retraction and extension, should EDP 2 fail.

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68
Q

Will the PTU run on the ground in AUTO?

A

NO, will only run in flight

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69
Q

When will the PTU run in flight (knob in AUTO)?

A

Automatically if engine 2 or EDP 2 fails.
Flaps not 0° or landing gear not up and locked when weight NOT on wheels, EDP 1 not failed and Hydraulic reservoir 2 is above 12%

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70
Q

What functions are found in the NAV menu on the MCDU?

A

Function used to alter the FPL.

DEP./ARR/HOLD etc.

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71
Q

What functions are found in the PERF menu on the MCDU?

What is meant by “Bug It?”

A

CASSH, set the FGP, to set the FMA to any assigned heading/altitudes/speeds

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72
Q

Where do I find the ADSB Code to enter in FLT ID on RTE page 1?

A

PDC

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73
Q

What are the three ways to generate a manifest?

A

Dispatch/ ACARS/Flight view

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74
Q

What tolerance does the target N1 have to fall within compared to the Manifest Projected N1?

A

-.1 - +.5

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75
Q

How does the CA “Copy” the flight plan?

A

NAV > R3 > L4

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76
Q

When should the Before Start BTL flow begin?

A

When FA closes door and verifies cabin is ready.

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77
Q

According to the SOPM, when should the APU be turned on?

A

10 minutes prior to pushback

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78
Q

ECS ON, APU

A

OFF

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79
Q

ECS OFF, APU

A

ON

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80
Q

Recite APU Starter Duty Cycle Limits

A

1&2 - 60 Seconds OFF

3 - 5 minutes OFF

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81
Q

Where does the APU receive fuel from? Which pumps?

A

Right wing tank, AC or DC fuel pump

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82
Q

How do I shut the APU off? Is there a cooldown period? What happens during the cooldown period?

A

By switching to OFF. 1 minute cool down period. Pneumatic power is removed immediately and electrical power is maintained through the cool down period.

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83
Q

Can the cooldown period be canceled systematically? Operationally?

A

Yes, if turned back to ON it cancels the shutdown sequence, or will bypass it by pressing EMER STOP

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84
Q

Can I turn the APU back ON during the cooldown period? Spooldown period?

A

Yes.

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85
Q

What conditions must be met for a green light to illuminate on the nose wheel?

A

STEER OFF EICAS
Brakes OFF
AC Ground Power Panel switch in DISENGAGE

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86
Q

What would cause a BRK LH FAULT or BRK RH FAULT EICAS message?

A

Pushback greater than 5kts should extinguish automatically. RTO must be reset.

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87
Q

Where do I find the procedure for starting the engine with a Ground Pneumatic Cart?

A

QRH

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88
Q

Where do I find the procedure for starting the engines with no AC source (Battery Start)?

A

QRH

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89
Q

What is the process should you encounter an engine start malfunction?

A

START/STOP SELECTOR TO STOP

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90
Q

How do I cross-bleed start an engine?

A 
BY USING THE CROSSBLEED VALVE 
REAR OF AIRCRAFT -CLEAR
TL - ADVANCE
DUCT PRESSURE 40-45PSI
START/STOP - START THEN RUN
TL- IDLE 
N1 TARGET - VERIFY
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91
Q

What type of engine does the ERJ have?

A

High bypass turbofans

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92
Q

When will TO switch to CLB thrust mode?

A

Landing gear retracted/ above 400AGL/Change in Vert. Mode

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93
Q

When will CLB switch to CRZ thrust mode?

A

Level of preselect alt. for 90 seconds and airspeed is within 5 kts of preselect

94
Q

When will the CON thrust mode engage?

A

Engine failure at or above 3,000AGL OR Manually in MCDU TRS menu

95
Q

When will CRZ switch to GA?

A

Flaps > 0 or when TOGA is pressed

96
Q

Can you change the thrust mode manually?

A

Yes, on the TRS page of the MCDU

97
Q

Name a few Thrust Modes the airplane has.

A

TO/CLB/CRZ/CON/GA

98
Q

What is ATTCS?

A

AUTOMATIC TAKEOFF THRUST CONTOL SYSTEM

99
Q

When will ATTCS provide reserve thrust automatically?

IN TOGA AND:

A

Difference between N1s is greater than 15%
One engine failure during takeoff
Windshear warning
Windshear Caution when TO/GA is selected and MAX thrust is set

100
Q

What is the difference between MAX and TOGA?

A

MAX is the highest thrust available.

TOGA is normal operating maximum thrust

101
Q

What type of brakes does the ERJ have?

A

Hydraulically actuated carbon brakes

102
Q

How can you activate the brakes?

A

Hands/Feet/Automatic

103
Q

What is the difference between HI and RTO?

A

HI is slowing 8kts/sec

RTO is MAXIMUM braking

104
Q

What conditions must be met for the autobrakes to be ARMED to RTO?

A
  • RTO
  • W.O.W. in ground
  • <60kts wheel speed
  • Any brake pedal position
  • TL IDLE or REV
105
Q

What conditions must be met for the autobrakes to be APPLIED in RTO?

A
  • Armed in RTO
  • on ground
  • > 60kts wheel speed
  • No faults
  • No brake pressure
  • TL IDLE or REV
106
Q

What conditions must be met for the autobrakes to be DISARMED from RTO?

A 
-Knob to OFF,MED,HI
in fight
- No faults
- <60kts wheel speed
- brakes applied during auto brake
- Above Idle with brakes
107
Q

What areas on the 175 are protected with Anti-Ice?

A

Windshields, Wings, Nacelles, and Probes

108
Q

When will the ADSP heat turn on automatically?

A

Whenever an engine is running or airborne.

109
Q

When will the windshield heat turn on automatically?

A

When 2 separate AC power sources are available

110
Q

When will the windshields run their PBIT?

A

when ever AC power is established for 120 seconds then turn off.

111
Q

What happens when the windshield is single source AC power in flight?

A

R. windshield is shed in flight

112
Q

When will ENG A/I turn on automatically?

A

MCDU TO Dataset OFF/ENG: Only the Engine will come on when Engine is running
In flight: Anytime ice detected,1700 ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff

113
Q

When will ALL A/I turn on automatically?

A

MCDU TO Dataset OFF/ALL: Engine while it is running, Wing > 40kts airspeed
In flight: Anytime ice detected, 1700 ft AGL or 2 min after liftoff

114
Q

What is a green ROLL mode indicate?

A

The AP will hold the wings level/specified bank angle 6 to 35 degrees, if less than 6 the AP with level the wings. if greater than 35, it will hold 35.

115
Q

What does a green TRACK indicate?

A

AP will Intercept and maintain IRS track (used for TO/GA).

116
Q

What does green HDG indicate?

A

AP will follow the heading bug

117
Q

What does magenta LNAV indicate?

A

Lateral navigation from the FMS

118
Q

What does green LOC indicate?

A

Ground based navigation from ILS/VOR.

119
Q

What does green FPA indicate?

A

The pilot selects the flight patch relative to the horizon

120
Q

What does the green TO indicate?

A

Dual cue FD for takeoff

121
Q

What is a green ASEL?

A

Altitude select with VNAV off

122
Q

What does magenta ASEL indicate?

A

Altitude select with VNAV on

123
Q

What does green FLCH indicate?

A

Flight level change with VNAV off

124
Q

What does magenta FLCH indicate?

A

Flight level change with VNAV on, will acknowledge all programmed restrictions.

125
Q

What does green ALT indicate?

A

Altitude capture VNAV off.

126
Q

What does magenta ALT indicate?

A

Altitude capture with VNAV on.

127
Q

What is green VS indicate?

A

Vertical speed mode

128
Q

What does yellow OVSP indicate?

A

Overspeeding and airplane either correcting or cannot

129
Q

What does a green GS indicate?

A

Glide slope for ILS

130
Q

What does green GA indicate?

A

TO/GA selected and FMS should automatically sequence

131
Q

What does magenta GP indicate?

A

Glide Path with a FMS rnav/rnp approach

132
Q

What does magenta PTH indicate?

A

MCDU has built and is following a descent profile to comply with all restrictions. Requires LNAV/VNAV/ and lower altitude.

133
Q

What does SPDe mean?

A

Speed on Elevator IDLE or MAX thrust. Max performance climb or descent.

134
Q

What does SPDt mean?

A

Speed on thrust, power for airspeed.

135
Q

What does amber LIM mean?

A

The airplane can not maintain the desired airspeed and the pilot must intervene.

136
Q

Difference between Manual Speeds vs FMS speeds

A

Manual - set speed using speed bug

FMS - set in perf profile or SID/STARs

137
Q

How does FMS speeds pick which speed to fly?

A

Picks the lowest of the applicable speed.

138
Q

Where does the FMS tell you what speed is selected?

A

Above the airspeed tape.

139
Q

What is green dot? What is it used for?

A

1.3 over stick shaker speed. Used as a reference for safe operating speed.
Flaps retraction/extension speed. Or emergency return landing speeds

140
Q

When would you press the DN LOCK REL button?

A

When the gear need to be raised immediately for climb performance. Or landing gear lever malfunction, prevent the level from being raised

141
Q

How many ways are there to lower the landing gear?

A

3

142
Q

What does the electrical override switch do?

A

Electrically bypasses the gear lever commanding gear down.

143
Q

What does the Alternate Gear Extension lever do?

A

Release hydraulic pressure and mechanically releases uplock hooks.

144
Q

What is a WARNING EICAS message?

A

RED- Immediate crew action required.

145
Q

What is a CAUTION EICAS message?

A

AMBER - Requires immediate attention, action likely required.

146
Q

What is an ADVISORY EICAS message?

A

CYAN - Attention may be required

147
Q

What is a STATUS EICAS message?

A

WHITE- airplane configuration

148
Q

How can I “scroll through” EICAS messages?

A

Using the CCD by selected the appropriate screen.

149
Q

When will a windshear warning appear? Caution? Will a caution provide
escape guidance?

A

Warning is decreasing performance windshear and a caution is an increasing performance windshear.
A warning will automatically provide guidance (GA is required), A Caution will provide guidance once TOGA is pressed.

150
Q

Define Upset

A

Any flight condition outside of the normal operating window

151
Q

What is upset criteria?

A

-10°/+25 pitch
45° of bank
Inappropriate airspeed

152
Q

Upset recovery procedure

A

PUSH ROLL THRUST STABILIZE

153
Q

When will and EGPWS warning occur?

A

When a terrain conflict is present.

154
Q

What is proper EGPWS recovery technique?

A
  • MAX thrust and 20° degree nose high until clear

- Maintain configuration

155
Q

When will a Traffic Advisory populate?

A

When traffic enters the protected range (about 20-48 seconds)

156
Q

Resolution Advisory PF duties during TA and RA

A

Autopilot - Disconnect
Autothrust -Disconnect
Pitch - Fly-TO/Zone
Thrust - As required

157
Q

Resolution Advisory PM duties during TA and RA

A

Monitor flight path
Scan for visual traffic
Advises ATC asap

158
Q

What is minimum fuel?

A

2250 lbs

45 minutes 1,500afe at green dot

159
Q

What is Emergency Fuel?

A

1500 lbs 30 minutes

160
Q

What are the minimum holding speeds?

A

200kts 6000’ and below

210kts 6,001’ and above

161
Q

What are maximum holding speeds?

A

6000’ 200kts
6,001’ - 14,000 230kts
14,001 and above 265kts

162
Q

What are some techniques to help in turbulence?

A

Do not exceed Vb, adjust airspeed as necessary to avoid stalling.
Do not chase airspeed.
Maintain constant attitude
Establish pitch trim and do not adjust
Allow altitude and airspeed variations
Disconnect A/T, set thrust, and adjust as necessary

163
Q

What are the different compartments of each main fuel tank?

A

Main, collector, surge.

164
Q

How many AC fuel pump are their?

A

1 in each wing.

165
Q

Where are the ACFPs located?

A

In the collector tank

166
Q

What does XFEED do?

A

Turns on opposite side ACFP and feeds one engine from both tanks.

167
Q

Where is the DC fuel pump?

A

In the right collector tank.

168
Q

When would we use the DC pump?

A

For APU start or to start engine 2 on battery power.

169
Q

Where are the main ejector pumps? What do they do?

A

In the collector tanks, uses motive flow of the engines to maintain fuel pressure to the engines.

170
Q

How can the aircraft be refueled?

A

Pressure refueling, or gravity over wing.

171
Q

What causes a FUEL LO LEVEL EICAS message?

A

Sensors indicate 660lbs of fuel in respective tank.

172
Q

When will the fuel quantity on the EICAS turn Amber? Red?

A

RED: 660 one side or 1320 total
AMBER: 1320 oneside or 2640 total

173
Q

What causes an electrical emergency?

A

Loss of normal AC power

174
Q

How long does it take the RAT to deploy?

A

8 seconds

175
Q

What AC BUS does the RAT connect to?

A

The AC ESSN bus.

176
Q

What items are on the AC essential bus?

A

Screen 2 and 3
IESS
Essential inverter (ignitors)

177
Q

What EICAS message should disappear when the RAT is deployed?

A

Battery discharging, does not indicate that the batteries are charging.

178
Q

What speeds are required to get the RAT spinning and to keep it spinning?

A

Requires 150 kts to start and 130 kts to maintain.

179
Q

What are the components of the pressurization system?

A 
CPC
OFV
NPRV
Safety Valve
Static port
180
Q

What is the purpose of the CPC?

A

Cabin pressure control system, controls pressurization for comfort.

181
Q

What is the purpose of the OFV?

A

Outflow valve, modulates the pressure of the cabin

182
Q

What is the purpose of the NPRV?

A

Negative pressure relief valve when psid is -.5

183
Q

What is the purpose of the safety valve?

A

Positive pressure relief valve, opens at 8.6 psid

184
Q

What is the purpose of the pressurization static port?

A

Environmental static pressure, mechanically transmit to safety valve, electrically heated.


185
Q

What are the modes of the pressurizaiton knob?

A

MAN
AUTO
LFE CONTROL

186
Q

What does MAN mean on the pressurization panel?

A

The outflow valve is directly modulated by the pilots.

187
Q

What does AUTO mean on the pressurization panel?

A

The airplane will build a pressurization schedule based on T.O. FE/ CRZ ALT/ LFE.

188
Q

What does LFE CONTROL mean on the pressurization panel?

A

The pilots manually set the LFE. Airplane still controls pressurization.

189
Q

What is the CABIN ALT knob for?

A

Used to modulate cabin altitude (outflow valve)

190
Q

What happens when I press the dump button with the mode selector in 
AUTO? LFE CTRL? MAN?

A

Closes bleeds and PACKS and commands outflow valve to a 2,000 fpm climb in cabin altitude up to 12,400’ in AUTO/LFE
In MAN the outflow valve must be opened manually

191
Q

Where is the crew oxygen tank located?

A

Forward cargo compartment

192
Q

Where is the crew oxygen pressure read out on the airplane?

A

System status page

193
Q

What O2 color indications are required for dispatch?

A

Green or Cyan

3 or 2 crew

194
Q

What settings are available to you on your oxygen mask?

A

Norm/100%/EMER

195
Q

What happens to the speaker and internal mask mic when you take the mask out 
of the holder?

A

MIC goes to Mask and respective Speaker turns on

196
Q

How many masks are in each PSU?

A

3 masks

197
Q

How long can each PSU provide oxygen to passengers?

A

About 12 minutes

198
Q

Can I manually deploy the oxygen masks?

A

Yes, set knob to OVRD

199
Q

When will oxygen masks deploy automatically?

A

When cabin altitude is 14,000 to 14,750’

200
Q

How do I know if the masks are deployed?

A

Switch located next to the knob lights up

201
Q

Define all four landing “v” speeds.

A

Vref- Normal speed over threshold
Vap- Target speed in landing go configurations
Vac- Approach climb OEI GA (flaps 2/4)
Vfs- Final segment climb OEI GA (clean)

202
Q

What is the formula for calculating Vap?

A

1/2 of steady state + all of the gust factor

203
Q

How do you calculate Vap without Stall Protection Ice Speeds?

A

+5min - +20max

204
Q

How do you calculate Vap without Stall Protection Ice Speeds?

A

+5min - + 20max

205
Q

What is the stabilized approach criteria?

A

1500 - Flaps 3, gear down less than 180kts
1000- Fully configured, before landing configuration, on speed Vap +15kts - -5kts
500- On slope on path, thrust levers above IDLE

206
Q

What is the function of preview needles?

A

To show you a preview of the final approach course. Automatically at 150 miles

207
Q

How many air data systems does the ERJ have?

A

4 air data systems

208
Q

Which ADS is associated with which instruments?

A

ADS1 - Captain
ADS2- FO
ADS3- Backup
ADS4- IESS

209
Q

What are the components of the ADS?

A

Air Data Smart Probes
Total Air Temperature Probes
Air Data Applications

210
Q

How does the airplane calculate AOA?

A

Using the Air Data Smart Probes

211
Q

What is the primary navigation system of the ERJ? What are the components?

A

The MCDU FMS
GPS
IRS
VOR

212
Q

How long does it take the IRS to allign?

A

Up to 17 minutes

213
Q

What is the automatic reversion priority?

A

Always wants PFD
Always wants EICAS
Always wants CP side

214
Q

What is the difference between rectangles and circles on the audio control panel (ACP)?

A

Talk on rectangle

Listen on circles

215
Q

How many rectangles along the top row of the ACP can be illuminated at once?

A

1

216
Q

How many circles on the ACP can be illuminated at once?


A

All

217
Q

What does the MIC button do?

A

Cycle between auto and mask

218
Q

What is the function of the EMER, RAMP, and CAB buttons on the ACP?

A

EMER- Sends triple chime to the FA and lights up rainbow bar
RAMP- Talks to rampers on the ground
CAB- Used for normal cabin communication

219
Q

How many VHF (com) radios does the ERJ have? Can you use all three for voice?

A

3, yes you can.

220
Q

Can the aircraft be towed to the gate? Where is the procedure found?

A

Yes, in the QRH

221
Q

What causes a LG LEVER DISAG message? How is this fixed?

A

The landing gear level position, is not the same as the EICAS indication.

222
Q

When would someone use the DN LOCK REL button?

A

When the gear lever is stuck in the down position and you’re attempting to clear terrain.

223
Q

What criteria must be met for the autobrake to be armed to Low, medium, or high?

A 
W.O.W in flight
Wheel speed < 60kts
No faults
Brakes not pressed
Any
224
Q

What criteria must be met for the autobrake to be applied to low, medium, or high?

A 
Armed
W.O.W. in ground
Wheel speed > 60kts
No faultss
Brakes not pressed
Idle or REV
225
Q

What can be done to disarm the autobrake from low, medium, or high?

A

W.O.W. in flight
No faults below 60kts wheel speed
Brakes pressed while Autobrakes applied
Above IDLE while autobrakes applied

226
Q

Describe touchdown protection.

A

Brakes can not be applied until 3 seconds after W.O.W or Wheel speed above 50kts

227
Q

Describe locked wheel protection.

A

Active above 30kts
Wheel speed difference of 33% or below its paired wheel the brake is released.
Inboard and Outboard brakes are paired together.

228
Q

Describe automatic wheel braking protection.

A

Prevents the gear from being retracted while the wheels are spinning.
Nose gear has dedicated device.

229
Q

Can the Emergency/Parking Brake be used to stop the aircraft after landing? When would a pilot need to do this?

A

Yes, 6 applications.

Used in the event of loss of normal braking.

230
Q

After landing, when will the GLD spoiler panels rise? When will they retract? How about in direct mode?

A

Deployed when W.O.W. on ground AND
Wheel speed above 45 kts or airspeed above 60kts AND
TLA below 26°
Unavailable in direct mode.

231
Q

At what speed should the reverse thrust be set back to MIN REV? FWD Idle thrust?

A

MIN - 60kts

FWD Idle - 40kts

ERJ (24 decks)

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