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ERJ > Ground Practice Questions > Flashcards

Ground Practice Questions Flashcards

1
Q

After starting the left engine with the APU on, what generator will power AC BUS 2?

A

APU

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2
Q

What memory aid is used to remember the AC electrical power priority?

A

Onside, Inside, Outside, Cross-side

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3
Q

Items on HOT BAT BUS 1 and 2 include:

A

Engine Fire extinguishing, Pressure Refueling panel

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4
Q

Leaving the GPU button pressed in after being disconnected from AC external power will…

A

Not allow you to re-connect to AC power until first pushing out the button

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5
Q

With a non-annunciated aft cargo fire on the ground, how many times do you need to press the AFT cargo button to discharge the low-rate fire bottle?

A

3

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6
Q

With an annunciated aft cargo fire in the air, how many times do you need to press the AFT cargo button to discharge the low rate bottle?

A

1

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7
Q

Upon aircraft startup, you notice BAT 1 voltage of 20.7 and BAT 2 voltage of 23.1. You should…

A

Call maintenance

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8
Q

Minimum battery voltage for normal operations is ___ volts.

A

22.5

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9
Q

Before pressing the fire test button…

A

Wait for EICAS population

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10
Q

The primary purpose of the TRU is to convert ___ power to ___ power.

A

AC, DC

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11
Q

The primary purpose of the Inverter is to convert ___ power to ___ power.

A

DC, AC

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12
Q

What areas have fire protection and detection?

A

Engines, APU, Cargo, Lavatory

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13
Q

Which of the following flight control surfaces are “fly-by-wire?”

A

Rudder, elevator, and flaps

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14
Q

Pushing these red guarded buttons on the Flight Control Mode panel does what?

A

Inhibits the respective FCM, enabling DIRECT mode.

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15
Q

What is the primary purpose of the FCM?

A

Provide software-based assistance to the P-ACE and is required for NORMAL mode operation.

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16
Q

Speed Brakes/Spoilers are _____ activated and ____ actuated.

A

Electrically activated and hydraulically actuated

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17
Q

T/F: The ERJ170 has a “stick pusher”?

A

FALSE

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18
Q

Automated stall recovery is accomplished by

A

AOA limiting

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19
Q

What is the primary purpose of the PTU?

A

Assist in landing gear extension EDP2 or Engine driven pump 2 failure.

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20
Q

The PTU will automatically start in flight when engine 2 or EDP 2 fails and…

A

Hydraulic reservoir 2 quantity above 12%
Flaps not set to zero or landing gear not up and locked
EDP1 Not failed

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21
Q

When conducting single engine taxi on engine two, _____.

A

ACMP 1 Must stay ON for taxi

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22
Q

When conducting single engine taxi on engine one, _____.

A

No action is necessary

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23
Q

11.When will ACMP 2 turn on with the knob in AUTO?

A

In flight when the flaps are greater than zero
On the ground with flaps greater than zero and Thrust set to TOGA or ground speed greater than 50kts
In flight when EDP2 or Engine 2 fails
On the ground when EDP 1 is running and the parking brake is not set.
On the ground when EDP 1 is running and the parking brake is not set.

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24
Q

What is the FO originating flow?

A 
Airworthiness Acceptance - COMPLETE
Display Controller Unit - SET
GLARESHEILD lights control panel - As required
ADS probe heaters - As required
Reversionary panel - Checked
PRD - Checked
MFD - Set
Audio Panel - Set for 02 Test
02 and interphone - Checked
Alt gear extension - Checked
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25
Q

What number should be entered in the MTOW box?

A

77,985

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26
Q

Actual GTOW is 72927. V1 is ____kts

A

130kts

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27
Q

Actual GTOW is 73300. V1 is ___ kts.

A

131kts

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28
Q

Above what weight must new takeoff data be acquired?

A

74,290

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29
Q

Is takeoff permitted?

A

Yes, however the flight deck jumpseat cannot be occupied

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30
Q

The approved weight of an adult male in the summer for weight and balance calculations is ____ pounds.

A

190lbs

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31
Q

A Ticketed Bag is entered into the manifest by:

A

Entering the weight of a child for the appropriate season in the “Non-Std Wt” column to the appropriate zone

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32
Q

The APU should be ___ for this departure.

A

OFF

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33
Q

In Flight, the APU will automatically shut down for ____. (3 things)

A

Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC critical fault

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34
Q

On the ground, the APU will automatically shut down for ____. (8 things)

A 
Overspeed
Underspeed
FADEC critical fault
APU fire
APU EGT overtemperature
APU high oil temperature
APU low oil pressure
Sensor Fail
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35
Q

Systematically, with battery 1 missing, what is needed to start the APU?

A

APU cannot be started

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36
Q

What are the FO Before Start To and Below the Line Flows?

A

To the line:
CREW 02 - CHECK
PFD - CHECK
MFD - SET

Below the line:
SEATBELT/SHOULDER HARNESS - ON
BEACON - ON
HYDRAULIC PUMP 3A and 1 - ON
DOORS/WINDOWS - CLOSED & LOCKED
TRANSPONDER - ON
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37
Q

What is the probable cause of this message? How is it fixed?

A

Pushback greater than 5kts. The message should extinguish automatically.

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38
Q

When will the thrust mode automatically change from TO1/2 to CLB1/2?

A

Landing gear retracted, airplane above 400ft AGL, and any change in vertical mode.

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39
Q

When will the thrust mode automatically change from CLB1/2 to CRZ?

A

Airplane is level at preselected altitude for 90 seconds and the airspeed is within 5kts (or .01 Mach) from preselected airspeed.

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40
Q

When will the thrust mode automatically change to CON?

A

Engine failure above 3,000AGL, or manually selected in the MCDU TRS menu

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41
Q

When will the thrust mode automatically change to GA?

A

Flaps are greater than zero and gear down or by pressing TOGA

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42
Q

ATTCS automatically commands RSV thrust when it is engaged, the thrust levers are at TOGA, and: (5 things)

A 
Difference between both engine N1 values greater than 15%
Engine failure during takeoff
Engine failure during go-around
Windshear detection on takeoff
Windshear detection on go-around
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43
Q

Why is it important to set the thrust lever to MAX during a winshear escape maneuver?

A

On takeoff, TOGA will provide TO-X Reserve, MAX will provide GA RSV (possibly more thrust)

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44
Q

T/F: RTO and HI autobrake settings provide the same deceleration.

A

FALSE

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45
Q

Prior to a single engine taxi using engine number 2, how must we configure the aircraft?

A

Leave ACMP1 ON after starting engine two

46
Q

When will ADSP 1 and 2 become heated automatically?

A

After one engine start

47
Q

What A/I setting is required for takeoff with the following ATIS?

DEN 0053Z 14013KT 10SM CLR 03/M08 29.92 RMK ALL RAMPS, TAXIWAYS, RUNWAYS 1/2 INCH WET SNOW.

A

ALL

48
Q

What A/I setting is required for takeoff with the following ATIS?

DEN 0053Z 14013KT 5SM BR OVC100 03/M08 29.92

A

ALL

49
Q

What A/I setting is required for takeoff with the following ATIS?

DEN 0053Z 14013KT 10SM FEW015 03/M08 29.92

A

ALL

50
Q

At what phase of flight would you see an FMA like this?

A

After pressing the TOGA button at the gate

51
Q

At what phase of flight would you see an FMA like this?

A

Lined up on the runway after the CA announces “heading checked” and arms the AT

52
Q

Your FMA just changed to this. What is your current indicated airspeed?

A

60kts

53
Q

At what altitude will HOLD be replaced with TO on the FMA?

A

400ft

54
Q

Is VNAV engaged? How do you know?

A

Yes. FLCH is magenta denoting VNAV is ON

55
Q

Is VNAV engaged? How do you know?

A

No. FPA is green denoting VNAV is OFF

56
Q

How do you know if VNAV is engaged?

A

The active vertical mode is magenta

57
Q

What is FLCH?

A

Can be used with VNAV ON or Maximum performance climbs and descents (TOGA or IDLE)

58
Q

What thrust mode will be engaged after pressing the FPA button on the GP?

A

SPDt

59
Q

When will SPDe become active? (3 conditions)

A

FLCH green
FLCH magenta
OVSP amber

60
Q

What button on the GP is used to turn VNAV on and off?

A

VNAV

61
Q

T/F: If I’m descending through 13,000 on my way to 9,000 at 280KIAS with my speed knob in FMS speeds (no speed intervention), the aircraft will automatically slow to 250 prior to reaching 10,000.

A

TRUE

62
Q

T/F: If I’m descending through 13,000 on my way to 9,000 at 280KIAS with my speed knob in Manual Speeds and VNAV ON, the aircraft will automatically slow to 250 prior to reaching 10,000.

A

FALSE

63
Q

T/F: If I’m descending through 13,000 on my way to 9,000 at 280KIAS with my speed knob in FMS Speeds (no speed intervention) and VNAV OFF, the aircraft will automatically slow to 250 prior to reaching 10,000.

A

TRUE

64
Q

What is the proper windshear escape maneuver steps?

A

Apply MAX thrust
Follow FD guidance
No configuration changes until the wind shear warning message extinguishes
No configuration changes until terrain clearance is assured.

65
Q

Is strict adherence to a Resolution Advisory always mandatory?

A

NO

66
Q

Minimum fuel provides 45 minutes of fuel endurance based upon _____________.

A

1,500ft, Green Dot, Clean Configuration

67
Q

Each of the two main fuel tanks is broken into three parts: the main compartment where fuel is stored and __. (2 things)

A

Surge

Collector

68
Q

When set to AUTO, when will AC Fuel Pump 2 turn on? (4 things)

A

Engine 2 Start
APU Start
XFEED LOW 1
Main Ejector 2 Fai

69
Q

When set to AUTO, when will AC Fuel Pump 1 turn on? (3 things)

A

Engine 1 Start
XFEED LOW 2
Main Ejector 1 Fail

70
Q

Describe how fuel XFEED works?

A

Energizes the high side ACFP and sends that fuel to both engines

71
Q

Systematically, what causes a FUEL LO LEVEL Warning message?

A

Any time the fuel sensor in the collector tank does not detect fuel

72
Q

T/F: The ELECTRICAL EMERGENCY EICAS message will extinguish after the RAT is deployed.

A

FALSE

73
Q

After the RAT is deployed, it takes control of the AC ESS BUS. What items are on this bus? (4 items)

A

ACMP 3A
ACFP 2
Slat Channel 2
Flap Channel 1

74
Q

If the LFE is not in the database, how does the pilot set landing field elevation for pressurization?

A

Move the MODE Selector to LFE CTRL and move the LFE knob DOWN or UP. This changes the LFE indication on the EICAS

75
Q

With the Pressurization MODE Knob in AUTO, pressing the DUMP button will ____. (4 things)

A

Turn the Re-circulation Fans OFF
Turn PACK 1 OFF
Turn PACK 2 OFF
Modulate the outflow valve to maintain a cabin altitude climb to 12,400ft at a rate of 2,000fpm

76
Q

With the Pressurization MODE Knob in MAN, pressing the DUMP button will ____. (3 things)

A

Turn the Re-circulation Fans OFF
Turn PACK 1 OFF
Turn PACK 2 OFF

77
Q

The positive pressure relief valve will open when differential pressure reaches ___ so as to not reach the maximum differential pressure of ___.

A

8.6, 8.8

78
Q

Each PSU (passenger Service Unit) contains ___ masks that supply oxygen for approximately ___ minutes.

A

3, 12

79
Q

SkyWest minimum holding speed 6,000 feet and below is ____kts. Minimum hold speed 6,001 and above is ___kts.

A

200, 210 or green dot, whichever is higher

80
Q

Vref is 130 without Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓5
→15
Calculate Vapp

A

135

81
Q

Vref is 139 with Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓6
→15
Calculate Vapp

A

142

82
Q 
Vref is 130 without Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓40
→7
Gust Increment 8
Calculate Vapp
A

150

83
Q 
Vref is 130 with Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓24
→7
Gust Increment 8
Calculate Vapp
A

150

84
Q

Vref is 130 with Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓0
→0
Calculate Vapp

A

130

85
Q 
Vref is 130 without Stall Prot Ice Speeds
↓0
→35
Gust Increment 7
Calculate Vapp
A

137

86
Q

The easiest and most preferred method for performing a Landing Performance Assessment is:

A

Using ACARS

87
Q

Should ACARS fail, the next best option for calculating landing distance and approach speeds are

A

Using the TLR on the Release and the QRH

88
Q

Should ACARS Fail and we divert to an unplanned airport, what resources should we use to calculate landing speeds and distance?

A

QRH Operational Landing Distance

QRH Approach Speeds

89
Q

If we were to run a QRH procedure for an Electrical Emergency, the QRH will tell us to multiply the _______ by 1.31 (Dry) to calculate a landing distance for landing Flaps 3.

A

Unfactored landing distance

90
Q

What resource do you have on your EFB to help determine Landing Legalities, promote communication with the dispatcher, and aid in the decision to land on a particular contaminated runway and where can you find this resource?

A

Runway Condition Decision Matrix, Company Manuals>Quick Reference Library

91
Q

Should the CA’s ADS system fail, the system will automatically revert to system ___. If that fails, the system will revert automatically to system ___.

A

3, 2

92
Q

The primary navigation system in the ERJ is:

A

FMS

93
Q

What are the lowest minimums allowed for this GPS approach? (enter numbers only; no MSL, Ft, AGL)

A

910

94
Q

How many methods exist to lower the landing gear from the flight deck?

A

3

95
Q

What does the Electrical Override Switch do?

A

Bypasses the PSEM and commands gear extension in the same sequence as normal operation

96
Q

What does the Alternate Gear Extension lever do?

A

Releases residual hydraulic pressure in the landing gear lines and opens all landing gear uplocks

97
Q

T/F: Pulling the Alternate Gear Extension lever will release all hydraulic pressure in HYD SYS 2.

A

FALSE

98
Q

T/F: Autobrakes HI and RTO are equal in deceleration rates

A

FALSE

99
Q

Two ERJs are flying parallel approaches in SFO. They see each other so they do not react to the inevitable RA. They are wingtip to wingtip and have the same Vapp. Both planes round out, flare, and touch down at similar points on their respective runways. One plane uses autobrake MED and FULL REV thrust all the way to a stop. The other plane uses autobrake MED all the way to a stop. Which aircraft will use more distance to stop?

A

Both aircraft stop in the same distance

100
Q

Two ERJs are flying parallel approaches in SFO. They see each other so they do not react to the inevitable RA. They are wingtip to wingtip and have the same Vapp. Both planes round out, flare, and touch down at similar points on their respective runways. One plane uses autobrake MED and FULL REV thrust all the way to a stop. The other plane uses autobrake MED all the way to a stop. which one will have higher brake temperatures?

A

The aircraft with autobrake MED

101
Q

What is automatic wheel braking?

A

A feature that prevents the main landing gear from being retracted with the wheels spinning

102
Q

What is Antiskid Protection?

A

A feature available above 10kt that controls the amount of hydraulic pressure applied to the brakes and, if necessary, reduces the wheel brake pressure in order to recover wheel speed and prevent skidding

103
Q

What is Locked Wheel Protection?

A

A feature available above 30kt that compares wheel speed signals in the main gear. If there is a difference in wheel speeds greater than 33%, it commands zero brake pressure to the slower wheel

104
Q

What is Touchdown Protection?

A

A feature that prevents the aircraft from touching down with the main landing gear brakes applied

105
Q

After a complete loss of HYD SYS 1 and HYD SYS 2, how should the aircraft be stopped after landing?

A

Emergency/Parking Brake

106
Q

When shutting down Engine 2 on taxi-in, ____.

A

Ensure the aircraft is straight

107
Q

During a ferry flight, what manual do you have available to you to ensure all cabin tasks are completed correctly including door operations?

A

NRFO

108
Q

T/F: With a jet bridge available and connected, you are permitted to conduct a single engine turn with the left engine running.

A

TRUE

109
Q

With a jet bridge available and connected, during a single engine turn with the left engine running, may boarding commence during fueling operations?

A

NO

110
Q

Who is permitted to be onboard the aircraft during refueling operations with an engine running?

A

Captain
First Officer
Flight Attendants

ERJ (24 decks)

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