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B1 > Gross Anatomy #1 > Flashcards

Gross Anatomy #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which plane would you find the lumbar facets?

A. Coronal

B. Sagittal

C. Transverse

D. Frontal

A

Sagittal
(limit rotation, and allow flexion and extension)

** C2-T12= coronal

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2
Q

The vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?

A. C6

B. C7

C. C3

D. T2

A

C6

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3
Q

What is the correct shape of the tracheal cartilage rings?

A. C shaped; open at posterior aspect

B. C shaped; open at anterior aspect

C. Round and rigid; closed posteriorly

D. Round and flexible; closed posteriorly

A

C shaped, open at the posterior aspect

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4
Q

The apex of the lung is located:

A. At rib #3

B. Above the 1st rib

C. At the 1st intercostal space

D. Below the 1st rib

A

Above the first rib

  • the apex on the lung is located superiorly
  • the apex aka name= cupola
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5
Q

Where is the carotid tubercle located?

A. C1

B. C2

C. C6

D. C7

A

C6

*Cricoid cartilage is also found at C6

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6
Q

In which part of the spine are the accessory processes located?

A. Cervicals

B. Thoracics

C. Lumbars

D. Sacrum

A

Lumbars

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7
Q

The umbilicus is part of which dermatome?

A. T9

B. T10

C. T11

D. T12

A

T10

  • Nipples=T4
  • Xyphoid=T7
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8
Q

Which of the following makes up the superior 2/5 of acetabular fossa?

A. Pubis

B. Ischium

C. Femur

D. Ilium

A

Ilium

  • pubis= anterior superior 1/5
  • Ischium= fossa floor & posterior 2/5
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9
Q

Where is the horizontal transpyloric plane located?

A. T3

B. T7

C. T9

D. T11

A

T11

*transpyloric means kidney

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10
Q

What is directly distal to the coronoid fossa on the humerus?

A. Olecranon fossa

B. Capitium

C. Trochlea

D. Olecranon process

A

Trochlea

  • Olecranon fossa= posterior humerus
  • Capitium= later and inferior coronoid fossa
  • Olecranon process= on ulna
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11
Q

Which carpal bone has the most articulations?

A. Lunate

B. Capitate

C. Scaphoid

D. Hamate

A

Capitate

“some lovers try positions, that they cant handle”

Clinical

  • Lunate entraps the Median N
  • Hamate entraps Ulnar N
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12
Q

The epithelial later of the cornea and the lens are both derived from:

A. Ectoderm

B. Endoderm

C. Mesoderm

D. Sixth pharyngeal pouch

A

Ectoderm

  • nerve + Skin= ectoderm
  • Lungs + GI= Endoderm
  • every other tissue= mesoderm
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13
Q

Which of the following best describes a “dermatome?”

A. A segmental band of dermis supplied by a motor spinal nerve

B. A segmental band of dermis supplied by a sensory spinal nerve

C. A segmental band of muscle supplied by a motor spinal nerve

D. A segmental band of muscle supplied by a sensory spinal nerve

A

A segmental band of DERMIS supplied by a SENSORY spinal nerve

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14
Q

On which bone is the trochlear notch?

A. Femur

B. Temporal

C. Ulna

D. Tibia

A

Ulna

*Articulates with the Humerus

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15
Q

The conoid process is located on:

A. Radius

B. Scapula

C. Clavicle

D. Ulna

A

Clavicle= Conoid

  • CoroNoid= ulNa
  • CoroCoid= sCapula
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16
Q

The most commonly fractured carpal bone is the:

A. Lunate

B. Scaphoid

C. Pisiform

D. Triquetrum

A

Scaphoid

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17
Q

The groove for the radial nerve is located on the:

A. Posterior humerus

B. Posterior radius

C. Posterior scaphoid

D. Medial ulna

A

Posterior Humerus

*Entrapment of the Radial nerve in the spiral groove of the Humerus causes: “crutch palsy” or “Saturday night palsy.”

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18
Q

On which tubercle is the origin of the long head of the triceps brachii muscle?

A. Trapezoid

B. Infraglenoid

C. Conoid

D. Supraglenoid

A

Infraglenoid tubercle

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19
Q

The soleal line is on:

A. Tibia

B. Fibula

C. Femur

D. Humerus

A

Tibia

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20
Q

The trochanteric fossa is located on the:

A. Greater trochanter

B. Lesser trochanter

C. Intertrochanteric line

D. Intertrochanteric crest

A

Greater Trochanter

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21
Q

The sustentaculum tali is located on which bone?

A. Talus

B. Navicular

C. Calcaneus

D. Tibia

A

Calcaneus

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22
Q

On which bone is the lesser sciatic notch located?

A. Pelvis

B. Ilium

C. Ischium

D. Sacrum

A

Ischium

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23
Q

Development of the upper limb, beginning with the appearance of the limb bud and ending with the separation of the digits occurs _____ days after fertilization?

A. 14-21

B. 26-52

C. 60-90

D. 120-160

A

26-52

*26x2= 52

24
Q

Which structure has a primary ossification center that appears after birth?

A. Clavicle

B. Scapula

C. Humerus

D. Scaphoid

A

Clavicle

25
Q

The primary ossification centers develop from the:

A. Metaphysis

B. Epiphysis

C. Diaphysis

D. Epiphyseal plate

A

Diaphysis

SHAFT

26
Q

What is the primary purpose of the epiphyseal plate?

A. Longitudinal growth

B. Resistance to compression

C. Circumferential growth

D. Ligamentous attachment

A

Longtidunal growth

  • this is why ppl midgets are short
27
Q

_______bone develops from membranous bone formation:

A. Parietal

B. Hyoid

C. Scaphoid

D. Radius

A

Parietal

28
Q

Which reabsorbs bone matrix?

A. Osteocyte

B. Osteogenic cells

C. Osteoblasts

D. Osteoclasts

A

Osteoclast

  • Clasts=resorb
  • Blasts=Build or create

**Pagets disease= caused by increased Osteoclast activity

29
Q

The tensile strength of bone comes from :

A. Minerals

B. Amorphous ground substance

C. Collagen fibers

D. Elastic fibers

A

Collagen Fibers

30
Q

Mineralization of the bone matrix occurs with which of the following activities?

A. Osteogenic

B. Osteoblastic

C. Osteoclastic

D. Fibroblastic

A

osteoblastic

*mineralization=buliding

31
Q

Which of the following produces osteoid?

A. Osteocyte

B. Osteoclast

C. Osteoid

D. Osteoblast

A

Osteoblast

32
Q

What separates the Haversian systems found in bone?

A. Interstitial lamellae

B. Volkmann’s canals

C. Bony trabeculae

D. Canaliculi

A

Interstital lamellae

33
Q

What is the action of a trochoid joint?

A. Abduction/adduction

B. Flexion/extension

C. Rotation

D. Supination/pronation

A

rotation

  • C1/C2 and proximal radioulnar joints are examples
  • trochoid aka pivot
34
Q

A fibrous joint is classified as:

A. Synchondrosis

B. Syndesmosis

C. Synostosis

D. Ginglymus

A

Syndesmosis

*sutures, gomphosis, syndesmoses

35
Q

Which is an immoveable joint?

A. Arthrodial

B. Synarthrodial

C. Amphiarthrodial

D. Diarthrosis

A

Synarthrodial

36
Q

What joint is responsible for circumduction?

A. Ginglymus

B. Ellipsoid

C. Trochoid

D. Spheroid

A

Spheroid

aka Ball & Socket

37
Q

The epiphyseal plate is classified as a _____ joint.

A. Synchondrosis

B. Syndesmosis

C. Symphysis

D. Synovial

A

Synchondrosis

38
Q

The articulation of the tooth with the jaw is classified as a _____ joint:

A. Suture

B. Schindylesis

C. Syndesmosis

D. Gomphosis

A

Gomphosis

“hold your teeth with your GOMS”

*syndesmosis is the classification is not as specific for the teeth

39
Q

With which structure does the head of the fibula articulate?

A. Tibia

B. Fibula

C. Patella

D. Cuboid

A

Tibia

40
Q

Which joint has an articular disc which completely divides the joint into two cavities?

A. Knee

B. Acromioclavicular

C. Radiocarpal

D. Temporomandibula

A

Temporomandibula

41
Q

What articulates with the sternal angle?

A. Scapula

B. First rib

C. Clavicle

D. Second rib

A

Second rib

*aka sternal angle of Louis
where the sternum and manubrium meet

42
Q

The acetabular labrum is made up of:

A. Bone

B. Fibrocartilage

C. Elastic cartilage

D. Hyaline cartilage

A

Fibrocartilage

43
Q

The primary joint of the ankle is:

A. Calcaneocuboid

B. Talocrural

C. Talocalcaneal

D. Cuneonavicular

A

Talocrural

44
Q

The _____ and _____ bones are connected by the spring ligament:

A. Talus and cuboid

B. Calcaneus and talus

C. Navicular and cuboid

D. Calcaneus and navicular

A

Calcaneus and Navicular

“the heel and the boat take sea in the spring”

45
Q

What type of movement is in the wrist?

A. Gliding

B. Pivot

C. Circumflex

D. Hinge

A

Circumflex

46
Q

Movement of an ellipsoid joint would occur in how many axes?

A. One

B. Two

C. Three

D. More than three

A

2

47
Q

The femoral head is directed medially ____ and ____:

A. Superiorally; anteriorally

B. Inferiorally; anteriorally

C. Superiorally; posteriorally

D. Inferiorally; posteriorally

A

Superiorally, anteriorally

48
Q

The subtalar joint allows the foot to perform which movements?

A. Flexion and extension

B. Inversion and eversion

C. Inversion and external rotation

D. Internal and external rotation

A

Inversion and Eversion

*most common ankle sprain is via forceful inversion

49
Q

Flexion of the head occurs primarily at:

A. C4-C5

B. C1-C2

C. C2-C3

D. Occiput-C1

A

Occiput - C1

*Ellipsoidal/condylar joint

50
Q

The distal part of the triceps brachii is on the:

A. Tuberosity of the ulna

B. Trochlea

C. Decranon

D. Coronoid process

A

Decranon

51
Q

The pisiform bone lies within the tendon of which muscle?

A. Flexor digitorum superficialis

B. Flexor carpi ulnaris

C. Flexor digitorum profundus

D. Flexor pollicus longus

A

Flexor Carpi Ulnaris

52
Q

Which muscle would be most affected if there was damage to the ventral ramus of the C5 nerve?

A. Serratus anterior

B. Rhomboids

C. Deltoids

D. Extensor carpi ulnaris

A

Deltoids

*remember your dermatomes

53
Q

Which nerve innervates the muscle of the hypothenar eminence?

A. Radial

B. Medial

C. Ulnar

D. Musculocutaneous

A

Ulnar (hypothenar)

**Median nerve innervates thenar eminence muscles

54
Q

Which structure passes lateral to the antecubital fossa?

A. Median nerve

B. Radial artery

C. Radial nerve

D. Ulnar nerve

A

Radian Nerve

*Radial nerve innervates extension of the phalanges, wrist and elbow, and is entrapped in the base of the snuff box.

55
Q

What nerve innervates the supraspinatus muscle?

A. Subscapular

B. Radial

C. Axillary

D. Suprascapular

A

Suprascapular

  • Subscapular= teres major
  • Radial= Extensors
  • Axillary= Deltoid & teres minor

B1 (17 decks)

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