Gross Anatomy #1 Flashcards

1
Q

Which plane would you find the lumbar facets?

A. Coronal

B. Sagittal

C. Transverse

D. Frontal

A

Sagittal
(limit rotation, and allow flexion and extension)

** C2-T12= coronal

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2
Q

The vertebral artery enters the transverse foramen at which cervical level?

A. C6

B. C7

C. C3

D. T2

A

C6

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3
Q

What is the correct shape of the tracheal cartilage rings?

A. C shaped; open at posterior aspect

B. C shaped; open at anterior aspect

C. Round and rigid; closed posteriorly

D. Round and flexible; closed posteriorly

A

C shaped, open at the posterior aspect

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4
Q

The apex of the lung is located:

A. At rib #3

B. Above the 1st rib

C. At the 1st intercostal space

D. Below the 1st rib

A

Above the first rib

  • the apex on the lung is located superiorly
  • the apex aka name= cupola
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5
Q

Where is the carotid tubercle located?

A. C1

B. C2

C. C6

D. C7

A

C6

*Cricoid cartilage is also found at C6

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6
Q

In which part of the spine are the accessory processes located?

A. Cervicals

B. Thoracics

C. Lumbars

D. Sacrum

A

Lumbars

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7
Q

The umbilicus is part of which dermatome?

A. T9

B. T10

C. T11

D. T12

A

T10

  • Nipples=T4
  • Xyphoid=T7
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8
Q

Which of the following makes up the superior 2/5 of acetabular fossa?

A. Pubis

B. Ischium

C. Femur

D. Ilium

A

Ilium

  • pubis= anterior superior 1/5
  • Ischium= fossa floor & posterior 2/5
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9
Q

Where is the horizontal transpyloric plane located?

A. T3

B. T7

C. T9

D. T11

A

T11

*transpyloric means kidney

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10
Q

What is directly distal to the coronoid fossa on the humerus?

A. Olecranon fossa

B. Capitium

C. Trochlea

D. Olecranon process

A

Trochlea

  • Olecranon fossa= posterior humerus
  • Capitium= later and inferior coronoid fossa
  • Olecranon process= on ulna
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11
Q

Which carpal bone has the most articulations?

A. Lunate

B. Capitate

C. Scaphoid

D. Hamate

A

Capitate

“some lovers try positions, that they cant handle”

Clinical

  • Lunate entraps the Median N
  • Hamate entraps Ulnar N
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12
Q

The epithelial later of the cornea and the lens are both derived from:

A. Ectoderm

B. Endoderm

C. Mesoderm

D. Sixth pharyngeal pouch

A

Ectoderm

  • nerve + Skin= ectoderm
  • Lungs + GI= Endoderm
  • every other tissue= mesoderm
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13
Q

Which of the following best describes a “dermatome?”

A. A segmental band of dermis supplied by a motor spinal nerve

B. A segmental band of dermis supplied by a sensory spinal nerve

C. A segmental band of muscle supplied by a motor spinal nerve

D. A segmental band of muscle supplied by a sensory spinal nerve

A

A segmental band of DERMIS supplied by a SENSORY spinal nerve

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14
Q

On which bone is the trochlear notch?

A. Femur

B. Temporal

C. Ulna

D. Tibia

A

Ulna

*Articulates with the Humerus

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15
Q

The conoid process is located on:

A. Radius

B. Scapula

C. Clavicle

D. Ulna

A

Clavicle= Conoid

  • CoroNoid= ulNa
  • CoroCoid= sCapula
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16
Q

The most commonly fractured carpal bone is the:

A. Lunate

B. Scaphoid

C. Pisiform

D. Triquetrum

A

Scaphoid

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17
Q

The groove for the radial nerve is located on the:

A. Posterior humerus

B. Posterior radius

C. Posterior scaphoid

D. Medial ulna

A

Posterior Humerus

*Entrapment of the Radial nerve in the spiral groove of the Humerus causes: “crutch palsy” or “Saturday night palsy.”

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18
Q

On which tubercle is the origin of the long head of the triceps brachii muscle?

A. Trapezoid

B. Infraglenoid

C. Conoid

D. Supraglenoid

A

Infraglenoid tubercle

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19
Q

The soleal line is on:

A. Tibia

B. Fibula

C. Femur

D. Humerus

A

Tibia

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20
Q

The trochanteric fossa is located on the:

A. Greater trochanter

B. Lesser trochanter

C. Intertrochanteric line

D. Intertrochanteric crest

A

Greater Trochanter

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21
Q

The sustentaculum tali is located on which bone?

A. Talus

B. Navicular

C. Calcaneus

D. Tibia

A

Calcaneus

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22
Q

On which bone is the lesser sciatic notch located?

A. Pelvis

B. Ilium

C. Ischium

D. Sacrum

A

Ischium

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23
Q

Development of the upper limb, beginning with the appearance of the limb bud and ending with the separation of the digits occurs _____ days after fertilization?

A. 14-21

B. 26-52

C. 60-90

D. 120-160

A

26-52

*26x2= 52

24
Q

Which structure has a primary ossification center that appears after birth?

A. Clavicle

B. Scapula

C. Humerus

D. Scaphoid

25
The primary ossification centers develop from the: A. Metaphysis B. Epiphysis C. Diaphysis D. Epiphyseal plate
Diaphysis | SHAFT
26
What is the primary purpose of the epiphyseal plate? A. Longitudinal growth B. Resistance to compression C. Circumferential growth D. Ligamentous attachment
Longtidunal growth * this is why ppl midgets are short
27
_______bone develops from membranous bone formation: A. Parietal B. Hyoid C. Scaphoid D. Radius
Parietal
28
Which reabsorbs bone matrix? A. Osteocyte B. Osteogenic cells C. Osteoblasts D. Osteoclasts
Osteoclast * Clasts=resorb * Blasts=Build or create **Pagets disease= caused by increased Osteoclast activity
29
The tensile strength of bone comes from : A. Minerals B. Amorphous ground substance C. Collagen fibers D. Elastic fibers
Collagen Fibers
30
Mineralization of the bone matrix occurs with which of the following activities? A. Osteogenic B. Osteoblastic C. Osteoclastic D. Fibroblastic
osteoblastic *mineralization=buliding
31
Which of the following produces osteoid? A. Osteocyte B. Osteoclast C. Osteoid D. Osteoblast
Osteoblast
32
What separates the Haversian systems found in bone? A. Interstitial lamellae B. Volkmann’s canals C. Bony trabeculae D. Canaliculi
Interstital lamellae
33
What is the action of a trochoid joint? A. Abduction/adduction B. Flexion/extension C. Rotation D. Supination/pronation
rotation * C1/C2 and proximal radioulnar joints are examples * trochoid aka pivot
34
A fibrous joint is classified as: A. Synchondrosis B. Syndesmosis C. Synostosis D. Ginglymus
Syndesmosis *sutures, gomphosis, syndesmoses
35
Which is an immoveable joint? A. Arthrodial B. Synarthrodial C. Amphiarthrodial D. Diarthrosis
Synarthrodial
36
What joint is responsible for circumduction? A. Ginglymus B. Ellipsoid C. Trochoid D. Spheroid
Spheroid aka Ball & Socket
37
The epiphyseal plate is classified as a _____ joint. A. Synchondrosis B. Syndesmosis C. Symphysis D. Synovial
Synchondrosis
38
The articulation of the tooth with the jaw is classified as a _____ joint: A. Suture B. Schindylesis C. Syndesmosis D. Gomphosis
Gomphosis "hold your teeth with your GOMS" *syndesmosis is the classification is not as specific for the teeth
39
With which structure does the head of the fibula articulate? A. Tibia B. Fibula C. Patella D. Cuboid
Tibia
40
Which joint has an articular disc which completely divides the joint into two cavities? A. Knee B. Acromioclavicular C. Radiocarpal D. Temporomandibula
Temporomandibula
41
What articulates with the sternal angle? A. Scapula B. First rib C. Clavicle D. Second rib
Second rib *aka sternal angle of Louis where the sternum and manubrium meet
42
The acetabular labrum is made up of: A. Bone B. Fibrocartilage C. Elastic cartilage D. Hyaline cartilage
Fibrocartilage
43
The primary joint of the ankle is: A. Calcaneocuboid B. Talocrural C. Talocalcaneal D. Cuneonavicular
Talocrural
44
The _____ and _____ bones are connected by the spring ligament: A. Talus and cuboid B. Calcaneus and talus C. Navicular and cuboid D. Calcaneus and navicular
Calcaneus and Navicular "the heel and the boat take sea in the spring"
45
What type of movement is in the wrist? A. Gliding B. Pivot C. Circumflex D. Hinge
Circumflex
46
Movement of an ellipsoid joint would occur in how many axes? A. One B. Two C. Three D. More than three
2
47
The femoral head is directed medially ____ and ____: A. Superiorally; anteriorally B. Inferiorally; anteriorally C. Superiorally; posteriorally D. Inferiorally; posteriorally
Superiorally, anteriorally
48
The subtalar joint allows the foot to perform which movements? A. Flexion and extension B. Inversion and eversion C. Inversion and external rotation D. Internal and external rotation
Inversion and Eversion *most common ankle sprain is via forceful inversion
49
Flexion of the head occurs primarily at: A. C4-C5 B. C1-C2 C. C2-C3 D. Occiput-C1
Occiput - C1 *Ellipsoidal/condylar joint
50
The distal part of the triceps brachii is on the: A. Tuberosity of the ulna B. Trochlea C. Decranon D. Coronoid process
Decranon
51
The pisiform bone lies within the tendon of which muscle? A. Flexor digitorum superficialis B. Flexor carpi ulnaris C. Flexor digitorum profundus D. Flexor pollicus longus
Flexor Carpi Ulnaris
52
Which muscle would be most affected if there was damage to the ventral ramus of the C5 nerve? A. Serratus anterior B. Rhomboids C. Deltoids D. Extensor carpi ulnaris
Deltoids *remember your dermatomes
53
Which nerve innervates the muscle of the hypothenar eminence? A. Radial B. Medial C. Ulnar D. Musculocutaneous
Ulnar (hypothenar) **Median nerve innervates thenar eminence muscles
54
Which structure passes lateral to the antecubital fossa? A. Median nerve B. Radial artery C. Radial nerve D. Ulnar nerve
Radian Nerve *Radial nerve innervates extension of the phalanges, wrist and elbow, and is entrapped in the base of the snuff box.
55
What nerve innervates the supraspinatus muscle? A. Subscapular B. Radial C. Axillary D. Suprascapular
Suprascapular * Subscapular= teres major * Radial= Extensors * Axillary= Deltoid & teres minor