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PPQ Learning > Full Send Shuffle Passmed > Flashcards

Full Send Shuffle Passmed Flashcards

1
Q

Pregnant patients with BMI over 40 are grade ASA what?

A

ASA III

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2
Q

If patient has brain injury and brain seems to be oedema–ing what should you do?

A

IV mannitol

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3
Q

When is the time out period in sugery?

A

Before first skin incision is made

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4
Q

30 y/o man. asthma, 5 day cough and wheeze. Takes salbutamol and beclametasone. Peak flow 70% of normal what you want to give him?

A

Prednisolone days

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5
Q

In ALS if iV access can’t be achieved what route and where should you give drugs?

A

I0 interosseous (proximal tibia)

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6
Q

Neo-adjuvant = to dp what

A

SHRink Tmour before sug

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7
Q

Bleeding risk of anti-coags in AF scoring system?

A

orbit score

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8
Q

Patient with hyprcalciuria and renal stones, how can you treat?

A

Hydrochlorothiazide

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9
Q

Uncomplicated dissection of descending aorta?

A

BP control

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10
Q

Mitral stenosis patients, asymptomatic, what management should they have?

A

Regular echo every 6-12 months

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11
Q

ROGUE but passmed:
Famer, found with empty bottle, found unconscious, GCS 11 in hospital, eyes/nose watering, bradycardia, dried vomitus around mouth, RR: 9, muscle fasics.

What happened here?

A

CLEARLY
Oganophosphate insecticide poisoning

Farmer> access o insecticides

These inhibit action of ACh ase

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12
Q

Precocious pberty in males age?

A

Before 9 y/o

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13
Q

Moderate-severe Aortic stenosis is a CI for what Heart drug?

A

ACEi

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14
Q

If 2 pills missed between days 8-14 of menstrual cycle and sex be had, whats the emergency contraception situ?

A

None
2 pills that day, continue as normal

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15
Q

What type of exudate in mets to lungs?

A

Exudative (high in protein)

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16
Q

Small testes in precocious puberty?

A

Adrenal cause of symptoms

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17
Q

Test for comparing the means of 2 group subjects?

A

Two-sample T test

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18
Q

If you hear tinkling sounds in a neonate what do you think? Management?

A

Diaphragmatic hernia

Intubation and ventilation

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19
Q

Murmur which becomes louder in inspiration?

A

Tricuspid regurg

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20
Q

Hypokalaemia with alkalosis causes?

A

Vomiting
Thiazide loop diuretics
Cushing’s syndrome
Conn’s syndrome

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21
Q

What classic red flag can come second to mitral stenosis?

A

Haemoptysis

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22
Q

Primary prevention of CVD using statins aim for a reduction in non-HDL cholesterol of how much?

A

> 40%

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23
Q

Occupational asthma test?

A

Serial peak flow measurements at work and home

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24
Q
A
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25
Q

Recent sore throat + rash + arthritis + murmur =?

A

Rheumatic fever

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26
Q

RFs for ectopics?

A

Anything slowing ovum’s passage uterus

-Damaged tubes
- Previous ectopic
-Endometriosis
-IUCD
-POP
-IVF

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27
Q

Initial management of heart failure with reduced ejection fraction?

A

B blocke
ACEi

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28
Q

Type of diuretic in HF?

A

Loop (furosemide)

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29
Q

Tetralogy of fallot?

A

Pulmonary stenosis
RVH
Ventricular septal defect
Overriding aorta

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30
Q

What invgX should all TIA patients recieve?

A

Carotid artery doppler

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30
Q

What ABG does hyperventilation cause?

A

Respiratory alkalosis

O2 normal because no problems with gas exchange, no metabolic comp as panic attack resolves rapidly

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31
Q

Most common site affected by ischaemic colitis?

A

Splenic flexure

or
Rectosigmoid junction

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32
Q

What artery does amaurosis fugax affect?

A

Central retinal Artery

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33
Q

How long after giving birth can you not take contraception?

A

21 days

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34
Q

Patient, 21 days post-partum, majority breast feeding what contraception shall you give her?

A

POP
UKMEC1

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35
Q

COCP and post-partum?

A

CI during breast feeding for first 6 weeks post-partum

(potential transfer of hormones to child, + elevated VTE risk)

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36
Q

Copper coil and post-partum?

A

Discouraged (UKMEC3)
FROM 48 HOURS UP TO 4 WEEKS POST-CHILDBIRTH DUE TO LIKELIHOOD OF EXPULSION

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37
Q

First line management of acute pericarditis?

A

Combination NSAIDs + colchicine

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38
Q

Most common organism in YA with septic arthritis?

A

Neisseria gonnorhoeae

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39
Q

Time frame to classify a death as neonatal?

A

Within 0-28 days of birth

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40
Q

Diabetic patients who have reasonable glycaemic control + are having minor surgery…what you do with their insulin?

A

Reduce morning dose by 50% and leave evening unchanged

If on SGLT2 inhibitor omit for 2 days pre-surgically

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41
Q

Management for woman with breast cancer + no obvious lymphadenopathy?

A

Sentinel node biopsy to assess nodal burden

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42
Q

What does high SAAG gradient (>11g/L) indicae?

A

Portal HT

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43
Q

Treatment for ingestion of ethylene glycol toxicity?

A

Fomepizole

44
Q

IECOPD prophylaxis in patients who meet criteria?

A

Azithromycin

45
Q

What AB can cause torsades de pointes?

A

Clarithromycin

46
Q

Rose spots on abdo organism?

A

Salmonella typhi

47
Q

Wide based gait with loss of heel-toe walking is called what?

A

Ataxic

48
Q

What level of magnesium would result in the patient being treated for hypomagnesia?

A

IV mg if <0.4mmol/L or
Tetany
Arrhythmias
Seizures

49
Q

V1-4 Changes ECG?

A

LAD
Anteroseptal

50
Q

II, III, aVF changes ECG?

A

Inferior
Right coronary

51
Q

Antero lateral leads and artery ECG?

A

v1-6, I, aVL
Proximal LAD

52
Q

Leads and artery for lateral ECG?

A

I
aVL
V5-6

Left circumflex

53
Q

Cardiac catheterisation results show you a jump in O2 sats from right atrium to right ventricle…what do you think it is?

A

VSD

54
Q

Aims of acute glaucoma treament?

A

Reducing Aq secretion + inducing pupillary constriction

This helps to open up the drainage angle and promote outflow

55
Q

Wat do you want to give a lil baby who has patent ductus arteriosus?

A

Indomethacin or ibuprofen to promote duct closure

This blocks Prostaglandin production which keep the duct open

56
Q

What cancer marker can be seen in cholangiocarcinoma?

A

Ca 19-9

57
Q

What GCS do you intubate at?

A

<8

58
Q

In renal colic what do you give if NSAIDs are CI?

A

IV Paracetamol

59
Q

What surgery would you do for distal transvese or descending colon cancer?

A

Left hemicolectomy

60
Q

What anti-psychotic is CIed in Parkison’s patients?

A

Haloperidol

61
Q

Mechanism of lidocaine?

A

Blockage of sodium channels

62
Q

What eye condition is red desaturation affected in?

A

Optic neuritis

63
Q

Treatment of acute dystonia secondary to antipsychotics?

A

Procyclidine

64
Q

Management of patient with sigmoid volvulus who have Bowel obstruction with symptoms of peritonitis

A

Skip flexible sigmoidoscopy and perform urgent midline laparotomy

65
Q

Gram negative rod, non-lactose fermenting, oxidase positive?

A

Pseudomonas aeruginosa

66
Q

What does Wilcoxon signed-rank test look at?

A

Before and after data of same population

67
Q

When should metformin be stopped?

A

Patient who is septic or critically ill
(assoc risk of lactic acidosis)

68
Q

Initial management of acute angle closure glaucoma?

A

IV acetazolamide
Eye drops

69
Q

Epigastric pain several hours after eating?

A

Duodenal

70
Q

New onset flashers and floaters in eyes management?

A

Referred urgently for assessment by an ophthalmologist within 24 hours

71
Q

Common SE of ciclosporin?

A

Nephrotoxicity

72
Q

WHat type of vein should TPN be given through?

A

Central vein (strongly phlebitic)

73
Q

VTE prophylaxis for hip replacements?

A

TED stockings
Dalteparin sodium at least 6 hours post operation

74
Q

Hyaline casts seen in patient taking what?

A

furosemide

75
Q

Non-fluent speech, comprehension normal, repetition impaired…what area of the brain?

A

Broca’s dysphagia

76
Q

Displaced hip fracture treatment?

A

Hemiarthroplasty
THR

77
Q

Management of inter trochanteric proximal femoral fractures?

A

Dynamic hip screws

78
Q

Likely site of early rupture of ectopic pregnancy?

A

Isthmus

79
Q

Treatment of chlamydia in pregnancy?

A

Erythromycin
Azythromycin
Amoxicillin

80
Q

PID can progress to what?

A

Perihepatitis (Fitz-Hugh Curtis syndrome)

81
Q

Erythromycin + what = BAD INTERACTION?

A

Atorvastatin

82
Q

Methotrexate and looking to conceive?

A

Use contraception and wait for 6 months after stopping treatment for either parents

83
Q

HIV + diarrhoea + ziejl-Neelsen stain showing protozoa?

A

Cryptosprodium parvum

84
Q

Prescribe what to women with high risk of pre-eclampsia?

A

Los dose aspirin should be prescribed from 12 weeks

85
Q

Human bit etreatment?

A

Co-amoxiclav

86
Q

Oral to SC morphine transfer?

A

divide by 2

87
Q

Rectal cancer on anal verge treatment>

A

Abdominal perineal excision of rectum

88
Q

Describe meaning of forrest plots?

A

Sze of square = weight of study in meta-analysis
Line running through square = confidence interval

89
Q

What electrolyte abnormality predisposes patients to digoxin toxicity?

A

Hypokalaemia

90
Q

If an anal fissure hasn’t responded to initial treatments what do you want to do?

A

Sphincterotomy

91
Q

If an anal fistula wasn’t healing with treatment what would you like to do?

A

Seton insertion

92
Q

Best stoma if you are defunctioning the colon to protect an ileostomy?

A

Loop ileostomy

93
Q

Potassium requirement per mmol/kg/day?

A

1mmol/Kg/day

94
Q

Guillain-Barre diagnostic invgX?

A

LP

95
Q

Triangle of safety?

A

Base of axilla
Lateral pectoralis major
5TH ICS
Anterior latissimus dorsi

96
Q

High anterior resection is for?

A

Upper rectal tumours

97
Q

Left hemicolectomy is used to excise tumours where?

A

Distal 2/3rds of transverse colon and descending colon + sigmoid colon

98
Q

Low anterior resection is for tumours where?

A

Less than 5cm from anus
Involves excision of distal colon rectum and anal sphincters

99
Q

Right hemicolectomy is for surgical removal of tumours in what locations?

A

Caecum
Ascending or proximal third of transverse colon

100
Q

DKA management of insulin?

A

FIXED-RATE IV INSULIN
+
Injectable long acting insulin only

101
Q

Upper GI bleed score used to predict rebleeding and mortality?

A

Rockall score

102
Q

Most common cause of peritonitis secondary tp peritoneal dialysis?

A

Staph epidermis

103
Q

What can corticosteroids do to the blood count

A

Neutrophilia

104
Q

How long does finasteride take to work?

A

6 months

105
Q

What type of renal cancer is polycythaemia associated with?

A

Renal adenocarcinoma

106
Q

Svereity of C Difficicile is measured how?

A

WBC count

107
Q

Hyaline casts on urine?

A

Loop diuretic cause

108
Q
A

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