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PHARMA > FINALS RECALLS > Flashcards

FINALS RECALLS Flashcards

1
Q

The sum total of the knowledge, skills, and practices based on the theories, beliefs, and experiences indigenous to different cultures, whether explicable or not, used in the maintenance of health as well as in the prevention, improvement, or treatment of physical and mental illness:
Conventional Medicine
Alternative Medicine
Traditional Medicine
Primary Health Care

A

Traditional Medicine

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2
Q

The acute appearance of progressive decrease in response to a given dose after repetitive administration of a pharmacologically active substance:
Tolerance
Refractoriness
Resistance
Tachyphylaxis

A

Tachyphylaxis

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3
Q

A term used to describe the interaction of two drugs whose opposing actions in the body tend to cancel each other:
Physiological Antagonism
Pharmacokinetic Antagonism
Competitive Antagonism
Chemical Antagonism

A

Physiological Antagonism

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4
Q

his is type of chemical bonding usually results in irreversible action:
Hydrogen
Ionic
Hydrophobic
Covalent

A

Covalent

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5
Q

Ability of a drug to activate a receptor and generate a cellular response:
Potency
Specificity
Affinity
Efficacy

A

Efficacy

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6
Q

Refers to the relationship between an effect of a drug and the amount of drug given:
Therapeutic ratio
Threshold
Maximal efficacy
Dose response curve

A

Dose response curve

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7
Q

A drug that has a narrow therapeutic index means that it is:
Safe
Less efficacious
Less potent
Highly potentially toxic

A

Highly potentially toxic

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8
Q

Which statement about the distribution of drugs to specific tissues is correct?

Distribution is increased for drugs that are strongly bound to plasma proteins
Distribution to an organ is independent of blood flow
Distribution is independent of the solubility of the drug
Distribution into tissue depends on the unbound drug
concentration gradient between blood and the tissue

A

Distribution into tissue depends on the unbound drug
concentration gradient between blood and the tissue

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9
Q

A drug is eliminated by first-order kinetics. Which of the following statements best describes the process by which the plasma concentration of this drug declines?

Constant amount of drug metabolized per unit time
Increased rate of metabolism as drug concentration increases
Only one metabolic path for drug elimination
Extensive first-pass effect

A

Increased rate of metabolism as drug concentration increases

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10
Q

This refers to the process of the drug moving from the administration site into the bloodstream:
Distribution
Excretion
Absorption
Metabolism

A

Absorption

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11
Q

Phenomenon of drug metabolism whereby the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation:
Elimination half-life
Bioavailability
First pass effect
Clearance

A

First pass effect

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12
Q

A type of adverse drug reaction that can result from genetic polymorphism:
Idiosyncratic
Allergic
Dose dependent
Drug interaction

A

Idiosyncratic

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13
Q

This type of drug allergic reaction is mediated by sensitized T-lymphocytes and macrophages:
Anaphylaxis
Delayed hypersensitivity
Cytolitic
Arthus

A

Delayed hypersensitivity

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14
Q

Serum sickness-like drug allergic reaction primarily involves:

Production of lymphokines and the subsequent influx of neutrophils and macrophages
Degranulation of mast cells and basophils
Activation of complement in response to immune complexes deposited in tissues
Antibody reactivity against cell membrane-associated antigen that results in cytolysis

A

Activation of complement in response to immune complexes deposited in tissues

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15
Q

Factor which will enhance excretion of drugs and metabolites in the kidneys:
Large molecules
Ionization
Lipid solubility
Protein binding

A

Ionization

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16
Q

Absorption of drug through the skin can be enhanced by the following

Well hydrated skin
Cutaneous inflammation
Presence of confluent abrasions
Topical drug in a water-based vehicle

A

Well hydrated skin
Cutaneous inflammation
Presence of confluent abrasions

FEEL KO. LANG

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17
Q

This is a true statement regarding protein-bound drug molecule:

Is pharmacologically active
Contributes to concentration gradient
Is filtered in glomerulus
Distributes poorly to tissues

A

Distributes poorly to tissues

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18
Q

Which factor can enhance passage of drug molecule through cell membrane:
Water soluble
Albumin bound
Non ionized
Non lipid soluble

A

Non ionized

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19
Q

The chemical structure of a drug determines the following:
Drug specificity
Toxicity
Intrinsic activity
Affinity for its receptor

A

Drug specificity
Intrinsic activity
Affinity for its receptor

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20
Q

Which statement is TRUE regarding specificity?

a. Conformation of ligand is complementary to space defined by receptor’s active site
b. Fewer the type of receptor a drug can bind, the lower the drug’s specificity
c. Specificity is reciprocal
d. Low specificity increases the chance of side effects

A
  • Conformation of ligand is complementary to space defined by receptor’s active site
  • Specificity is reciprocal
  • Low specificity increases the chance of side effects
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21
Q

During surgery under general anesthesia, patient was noted to have muscle rigidity, hyperpyrexia and tachycardia. Which drug is most urgent to administer:
Succinylcholine
Propanolol
Dantrolene
Paracetamol

A

Dantrolene

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22
Q

During administration of succinylcholine, patient was noted to have a PR of 50 bpm. The anesthesiologist will most likely administer which drug to correct the condition:

Ephedrine
Vecuronium
Neostigmine
Atropine

A

Atropine

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23
Q

During endotracheal intubation for general anesthesia, the patient manifested muscle twitching when a muscle relaxant was administered. Which drug was most likely given?

Pancuronium
Tiazinidine
Succinylcholine
Baclofen

A

Succinylcholine

depolarizing NMJ., including decamethonium

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24
Q

A patient has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism but has been noncompliant with her medications. She complained of palpitations which prompted her to seek consult. Upon ECG, she has irregular heart rate and some skip beats. What agent will most likely help her?

Isoproterenol
Propanolol
Salbutamol
Dobutamine

A

Propanolol

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25
Q

A 58-year old male patient has difficulty in urination. He is diagnosed to have benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which drug can promote urination?
Tamsulosin
Sildenafil
Clonidine
Ergometrine

A

Tamsulosin

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26
Q

A 23-year old female patient has suddenly experienced difficulty of breathing, cold clammy skin and hypotension after intake of an antibiotic. Which agent is best to administer?

Phenylphrine
Ephedrine
Epinephrine
Atropine

A

Epinephrine

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27
Q

Ipratropium is indicated in which of the following clinical conditions?

Peptic ulcer disease
Bronchial asthma
Hypertension
Heart failure

A

Bronchial asthma

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28
Q

This drug is an analog of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA that acts on reducing nerve impulses from the spinal cord to skeletal muscle causing muscle relaxation:

Baclofen
Tizanidine
Mephenesin
Dantrolene

A

Baclofen

  • Tizanidine - agonist at alpha 2-adrenergic receptor sites and presumably reduces spasticity by increasing presynaptic inhibition of motor neurons
  • Mephenesin - blocks both inward sodium and inward calcium currents in neurons
  • Dantrolene - interferes with the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle cells
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29
Q

A 50 year old patient was brought to the ER due to sudden onset of cold clammy skin and confusion. His BP was 70/40 and HR was 43. He was just resting after doing his routine exercise when it happened. Which agent can be given intravenously to enhance myocardial activity?

Dobutamine
Metoprolol
Isoproterenol
Dopamine

A

Dobutamine
Isoproterenol
Dopamine
????

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30
Q

A known asthmatic patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which antihypertensive drug is appropriate for her?

Propranolol
Enalapril
Amlodipine
Losartan

A

Amlodipine
Losartan

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31
Q

A 25 year old female patient has been experiencing weakness of extremities, ptosis of her right eye and difficulty of breathing. She is suspected to have Myasthenia Gravis (MG). Which drug can be used to test for MG?
Atropine
Pralidoxime
Edrophonium
Physostigmine

A

Edrophonium

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32
Q

This drug can inhibit the sodium-potassium- chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of a nephron:

Acetazolamide
Hydrochlorothiazide thiazide
Spironolactone
Furosemide

A

Furosemide

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33
Q

Which statement is FALSE regarding dopamine:
At higher doses can increase blood pressure
At 5 ug/kg/min or 35 ug/kg/min can be used to improve blood flow to the kidneys
Has both direct and indirect actions
Can effectively cross the blood-brain barrier

A

Can effectively cross the blood-brain barrier

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34
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of acute angina:
Sodium nitroprusside
Isosorbide mononitrate
Nitroglycerine
Isosorbide dinitrate

A

Isosorbide mononitrate
Nitroglycerine

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35
Q

This drug is a vasodilator but is more commonly used for treating baldness:
Prazosin
Minoxidil
Tamsulosin
Tadalafil

A

Minoxidil

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36
Q

This substance is commonly associated with cough as an adverse effect
Captopril
Bradykinin
Losartan
Candesartan

A

Captopril
Bradykinin

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37
Q

Which drug is being employed in balanced anesthesia to decrease the chance of allergic reaction and help dry up secretions?
Atropine
Metoclopramide
Diphenhydramine
Omeprazole

A

Diphenhydramine

diba apil ang atropine???

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38
Q

The anesthetic action of intravenous anesthetics is primarily terminated by:
Redistribution
Inactivation by enzymes
Elimination via the kidneys
Hepatic metabolism

A

Redistribution

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39
Q

This analgesic drug has the least chance of causing gastric irritation:

Celecoxib
Meloxicam
Ketoprofen
Acetaminophen

A

Celecoxib

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40
Q

Which drug has anti-platelet and anti-inflammatory effects?
Acetylsalicylic acid
Rofecoxib
Paracetamol
Tramadol

A

Acetylsalicylic acid

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41
Q

Misoprostol has the following effects:
Prokinetic effect on stomach
Decrease in gastric acid secretion
Uterine contraction
Increase in mucous and bicarbonate secretion

A
  • Decrease in gastric acid secretion
  • Uterine contraction
  • Increase in mucous and bicarbonate secretion
42
Q

A passenger jeepney driver complains of urticaria. Which drug can be prescribed?

Levocetirizine
Brompheniramine
Chlorpheniramine
Hydroxyzine

A

Levocetirizine

43
Q

This is an effect of cimetidine
Decongestion of mucosa
Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
Somnolence
Suppression of itchiness

A

Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
Somnolence
???

44
Q

This is an effect of paracetamol:
Anti-inflammation
Anti-thrombosis
Antipyresis
Gastric irritation

A

Antipyresis

45
Q

Cyclosporine is most effective in which clinical condition:
Inflammatory bowel disease
Systemic fungal infection
Transplant rejection
Bacterial sepsis

A
  • Inflammatory bowel disease
  • Transplant rejection
46
Q

Azathioprine is indicated in the management of which condition:

Crohn’s disease
Glomerulonephritis
Breast cancer
Urinary bladder cancer

A

Crohn’s disease

47
Q

Group of signaling proteins made and released by host cells in defensive response to presence of viruses:
Interferon
Monoclonal antibody
Interleukin
TNF Alpha

A

Interferon

48
Q

Blocks the action of leukotriene D4 on the cysteinyl leukotriene receptor in the lungs and bronchi hence reducing bronchial inflammation and constriction:

Cromolyn
Montelukast
Budesonide
Aminophylline

A

Montelukast

Cromolyn _ mast celll stabilizer
Montelukast : leukotriene inhibitor
Budesonide:corticosteroid Aminophylline:methylxanthine

49
Q

Which histamine antagonist can be used to prevent motion sickness

Levocetirizine
Chlorpheniramine
Ketotifen
Ranitidine
Cetirizine
Meclizine
Diphenhydramine

A

Meclizine
Diphenhydramine

50
Q

The most common side effect of nitrates in which nearly 10% of patients are unable to tolerate:

Palpitations
Flushing
Hypotension
Headache

A

Flushing
Headache

51
Q

Phenylpropanolamine is indicated in condition:

Diabetes
Hypertension
Asthma
Rhinitis

A

Rhinitis

52
Q

It acts by inhibiting the release of chemical mediators from sensitized mast cells:

Cromolyn
Tiotropium
Zafirlukast
Coxib

A

Cromolyn

53
Q

Refers to rebound swelling and congestion of the nasal mucosa when the decongestant is discontinued after prolonged use:

Hay fever
Rhinitis medicamentosa
Vasomotor rhinitis
Tachyphylaxis

A

Rhinitis medicamentosa

54
Q

Splits apart disulfide bonds that are responsible for holding the mucus materials together:

Ambroxol
Dextromethorphan
Chlorpheniramine
Acetylcysteine

A

Acetylcysteine

55
Q

This drug blocks the muscarinic receptors of acetylcholine in the bronchial musculature resulting to bronchodilation:

Fluticasone
Ipratropium
Aminophylline
Guaifenesin

A

Ipratropium

56
Q

This drug is both used as a bronchodilator and a tocolytic agent:

Salbutamol
Theophylline
Terbutaline
Ritodrine

A

Terbutaline

57
Q

Drug of choice for fast relief of asthma in acute exacerbation:

Salbutamol
Ipratropium
Epinephrine
Salmetrol

A

Salbutamol

58
Q

The usual dose-limiting adverse effect of colchicine:

Nausea/vomiting
Drowsiness
Headache
Diarrhea

A

Nausea/vomiting

Diarrhea

59
Q

Gingival hyperplasia is a common adverse effect of this medication:
Ethosuximide
Gabapentin
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin

A

Phenytoin

60
Q

This drug can be used to manage depression:
Fluoxetine
Haloperidol
Clonazepam
Chlordiazepoxide

A

Fluoxetine

61
Q

One of the following is a neuroleptic drug: Chlorpromazine
Sertraline
Gabapentin
Amantadine

A

Chlorpromazine

62
Q

A benzodiazepine that is commonly used as a sedative-hypnotic drug:
Midazolam
Zolpidem
Phenobarbital
Diazepam

A

Diazepam

63
Q

A patient was observed to have shaking, stiffness, and difficulty with walking, balance, and coordination. Appropriate medication for this condition includes:

Carbidopa
Valproic acid
Levodopa
Pregabalin

A

Levodopa

64
Q

Which drug can reduce gastric acid secretion:

Famotidine
Aluminum hydroxide
Sucralfate
Lanzoprazole

A

Famotidine

Lanzoprazole ???

65
Q

This drug can increase stool mass and water content, promoting peristalsis:

Bisacodyl
Lactulose
Sodium picosulphate
Psyllium

A

Psyllium

66
Q

An anti-psychotic medication which can also be used to manage nausea and vomiting:
Thioridazine
Promethazine
Fluphenazine
Clozapine

A

Promethazine

67
Q

This drug can be used to manage flatulence because it can disperse gas pockets in the GIT:

Lactulose
Simethicone
Loperamide
Metoclopramide

A

Simethicone

68
Q

A synthetic opioid that binds to opioid receptors in the intestinal wall to slow gut movement:

Hyoscine
Loperamide
Bismuth subsalicylate
Attapulgite

A

Loperamide

69
Q

Which of the following anti-ulcer medication can cause constipation:

Calcium carbonate CaCO3
Aluminum hydroxide Al(OH)3
Magnesium carbonate MgCO3
Magnesium hydroxide Mg(OH)2

A

Aluminum hydroxide Al(OH)3

70
Q

First-line therapy for mild to moderate ulcerative colitis:

Sulfamethoxazole
Sulfapyridine
Sulfadiazine
Sulfasalazine

A

Sulfasalazine

71
Q

Stool softeners include the following:
Psyllium
Senna
Dietary fiber
Methylcellulose

A

Psyllium
Dietary fiber
Methylcellulose

72
Q

Useful for the treatment of carcinoid tumors, VIPomas, glucagonomas, and acromegaly:

Carboprost
Somatotropin
Dinoprostone
Octreotide

A

Octreotide

73
Q

This drug inhibits the action of α-glucsidase in the intestinal brush border and slows the absorption of carbohydrates from the GI tract:

Rosiglitazone
Liraglutide
Miglitol
Acarbose

A

Miglitol
Acarbose

ksama nila c voglibose

74
Q

This drug can cause insulin secretion by beta cells in the pancreas:

Metformin
Glipizide
Pioglitazone
Acarbose

A

Glipizide

75
Q

This drug is used extensively in conditions characterized by osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, including osteoporosis, steroid-induced osteoporosis, tumor-associated osteolysis, and hypercalcemia:

Cinacalcet
Calcitriol
Teriparatide
Bisphosphonates

A

Bisphosphonates

76
Q

Acute inhibition of the synthesis of iodotyrosines and iodothyronines upon administration of high concentrations of iodide:

Plummer’s Disease
Jod-Basedow phenomenon
Wolff-Chaikoff effect
Iodism

A

Wolff-Chaikoff effect

77
Q

Drug for preventing postpartum hemorrhage:

Methylergonovine
Misoprostol
Carboprost
Oxytocin

A

Methylergonovine
Misoprostol
Carboprost
Oxytocin

78
Q

This is an anti-platelet drug:
Dypridamole
Aspirin
Warfarin
Clopidogrel

A

Dypridamole
Aspirin
Clopidogrel

79
Q

Parenterally administered iron chelating agent used to treat transfusion related chronic iron overload

Deferoxamine
Iron dextran
Protamine
EDTA

A

Deferoxamine

80
Q

Achlorhydria and decreased secretion of intrinsic factor by parietal cells secondary to gastric atrophy or gastric surgery is a common cause of deficiency of this vitamin:

Cyanocobalamin
Pyridoxine
Riboflavin
Folic Acid

A

Cyanocobalamin

81
Q

Binds to the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III (AT) which then inactivates thrombin, factor Xa and other coagulation proteases:

Clopidogrel
Heparin
Warfarin
Tranexamic acid

A

Heparin

and fondaparinux

82
Q

An anti-fibrinolytic that competitively inhibits the activation of plasminogen to plasmin:

Ticlopidine
Clopidogrel
Tranexamic acid
Aminocaproic acid

A

Tranexamic acid
Aminocaproic acid

83
Q

The treatment of choice for rodenticide poisoning with active bleeding:

Protamine
Tranexamic acid
Vitamin K
Fresh whole blood

A

Vitamin K

84
Q

POISONING AND ANTIDOTE

WARFARIN

A

vitamin K

85
Q

POISONING AND ANTIDOTE

OXYCODONE

A

NALOXONE

86
Q

POISONING AND ANTIDOTE
INH

A

Pyridoxine

87
Q

POISONING AND ANTIDOTE

paracetamol

A

N-acetylcysteine

88
Q

Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM):

Anastrozole
Megestrol acetate
Diethylstilbestrol
Tamoxifen

A

Tamoxifen

89
Q

Cardiac toxicity is most commonly associated with which of the following anti-neoplastic drugs:
Cyclophosphamide
Vincristine
Doxorubicin
Methotrexate

A

Cyclophosphamide

Doxorubicin

90
Q

Most common dose-limiting toxic factor in chemotherapy:

Diarrhea
Leukopenia
Nausea and vomiting
Alopecia

A

Leukopenia

91
Q

Attacks the hypnozoite forms and prevents formation of male/female gametocytes thus preventing recurrence and further spread of the plasmodium protozoa:
Chloroquine
Halofantrine
Mefloquine
Primaquine

A

Primaquine

92
Q

Irreversibly binds to nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction, thus causing spastic paralysis of the helminths:

Diethylcarbamazine
Ivermectin
Mebendazole
Pyrantel

A

Pyrantel

93
Q

The drug of choice for treating all species of schistosomes:

Piperazine
Praziquantel
Niclosamide
Ivermectin

A

Praziquantel

94
Q

This antibiotic can cause discoloration and hypoplasia of teeth (due to deposition in teeth which primarily occurs in children):

Chloramphenicol
Tetracycline
Erythromycin
Ciprofloxacin

A

Tetracycline

95
Q

Bactericidal drugs include drugs that primarily act on the following:
Protein synthesis
Bacterial DNA
Cell membrane
Cell wall

Protein synthesis

A

Bacterial DNA
Cell membrane
Cell wall

96
Q

Antibiotics with good anti-anaerobic activity: Clindamycin
Cefoxitin
Metronidazole
Clarithryomycin

A

Clindamycin???
Metronidazole???

97
Q

Drugs recommended for the treatment of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19 infection) caused by the SARS-CoV-2 virus:

Anti-CoV-2 Monoclonal antibodies
Dexamethasone
Chloroquine
Remdesivir

A

Remdesivir

98
Q

The medical use of Acyclovir includes treatment of viral infection caused by:

Infectious mononucleosis
Hepatitis B
Herpes
Influenza

A

Herpes

99
Q

True statements regarding the amended provisions of the Generics Law:
A. Drug outlets shall inform buyer about drug products having same generic name
B. All medical practitioners shall write prescriptions using the generic name
C. All prescribers must write their PRC, PTR and S2 numbers in the prescription form
D. Brand name of a drug must not appear in the prescription form

A

A. Drug outlets shall inform buyer about drug products having same generic name
B. All medical practitioners shall write prescriptions using the generic name

100
Q

Drug dosage is 50 mg/kg/day in3 divided doses. Drug preparation is 250 mg/5 ml. If child weighs 10 kg, how much drug in ml is to be given per dose?
2.3
1.3
3.3
4.3

A

3.3

PHARMA (29 decks)

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