FINALS RECALLS Flashcards
The sum total of the knowledge, skills, and practices based on the theories, beliefs, and experiences indigenous to different cultures, whether explicable or not, used in the maintenance of health as well as in the prevention, improvement, or treatment of physical and mental illness:
Conventional Medicine
Alternative Medicine
Traditional Medicine
Primary Health Care
Traditional Medicine
The acute appearance of progressive decrease in response to a given dose after repetitive administration of a pharmacologically active substance:
Tolerance
Refractoriness
Resistance
Tachyphylaxis
Tachyphylaxis
A term used to describe the interaction of two drugs whose opposing actions in the body tend to cancel each other:
Physiological Antagonism
Pharmacokinetic Antagonism
Competitive Antagonism
Chemical Antagonism
Physiological Antagonism
his is type of chemical bonding usually results in irreversible action:
Hydrogen
Ionic
Hydrophobic
Covalent
Covalent
Ability of a drug to activate a receptor and generate a cellular response:
Potency
Specificity
Affinity
Efficacy
Efficacy
Refers to the relationship between an effect of a drug and the amount of drug given:
Therapeutic ratio
Threshold
Maximal efficacy
Dose response curve
Dose response curve
A drug that has a narrow therapeutic index means that it is:
Safe
Less efficacious
Less potent
Highly potentially toxic
Highly potentially toxic
Which statement about the distribution of drugs to specific tissues is correct?
Distribution is increased for drugs that are strongly bound to plasma proteins
Distribution to an organ is independent of blood flow
Distribution is independent of the solubility of the drug
Distribution into tissue depends on the unbound drug
concentration gradient between blood and the tissue
Distribution into tissue depends on the unbound drug
concentration gradient between blood and the tissue
A drug is eliminated by first-order kinetics. Which of the following statements best describes the process by which the plasma concentration of this drug declines?
Constant amount of drug metabolized per unit time
Increased rate of metabolism as drug concentration increases
Only one metabolic path for drug elimination
Extensive first-pass effect
Increased rate of metabolism as drug concentration increases
This refers to the process of the drug moving from the administration site into the bloodstream:
Distribution
Excretion
Absorption
Metabolism
Absorption
Phenomenon of drug metabolism whereby the concentration of a drug is greatly reduced before it reaches the systemic circulation:
Elimination half-life
Bioavailability
First pass effect
Clearance
First pass effect
A type of adverse drug reaction that can result from genetic polymorphism:
Idiosyncratic
Allergic
Dose dependent
Drug interaction
Idiosyncratic
This type of drug allergic reaction is mediated by sensitized T-lymphocytes and macrophages:
Anaphylaxis
Delayed hypersensitivity
Cytolitic
Arthus
Delayed hypersensitivity
Serum sickness-like drug allergic reaction primarily involves:
Production of lymphokines and the subsequent influx of neutrophils and macrophages
Degranulation of mast cells and basophils
Activation of complement in response to immune complexes deposited in tissues
Antibody reactivity against cell membrane-associated antigen that results in cytolysis
Activation of complement in response to immune complexes deposited in tissues
Factor which will enhance excretion of drugs and metabolites in the kidneys:
Large molecules
Ionization
Lipid solubility
Protein binding
Ionization
Absorption of drug through the skin can be enhanced by the following
Well hydrated skin
Cutaneous inflammation
Presence of confluent abrasions
Topical drug in a water-based vehicle
Well hydrated skin
Cutaneous inflammation
Presence of confluent abrasions
FEEL KO. LANG
This is a true statement regarding protein-bound drug molecule:
Is pharmacologically active
Contributes to concentration gradient
Is filtered in glomerulus
Distributes poorly to tissues
Distributes poorly to tissues
Which factor can enhance passage of drug molecule through cell membrane:
Water soluble
Albumin bound
Non ionized
Non lipid soluble
Non ionized
The chemical structure of a drug determines the following:
Drug specificity
Toxicity
Intrinsic activity
Affinity for its receptor
Drug specificity
Intrinsic activity
Affinity for its receptor
Which statement is TRUE regarding specificity?
a. Conformation of ligand is complementary to space defined by receptor’s active site
b. Fewer the type of receptor a drug can bind, the lower the drug’s specificity
c. Specificity is reciprocal
d. Low specificity increases the chance of side effects
- Conformation of ligand is complementary to space defined by receptor’s active site
- Specificity is reciprocal
- Low specificity increases the chance of side effects
During surgery under general anesthesia, patient was noted to have muscle rigidity, hyperpyrexia and tachycardia. Which drug is most urgent to administer:
Succinylcholine
Propanolol
Dantrolene
Paracetamol
Dantrolene
During administration of succinylcholine, patient was noted to have a PR of 50 bpm. The anesthesiologist will most likely administer which drug to correct the condition:
Ephedrine
Vecuronium
Neostigmine
Atropine
Atropine
During endotracheal intubation for general anesthesia, the patient manifested muscle twitching when a muscle relaxant was administered. Which drug was most likely given?
Pancuronium
Tiazinidine
Succinylcholine
Baclofen
Succinylcholine
depolarizing NMJ., including decamethonium
A patient has been diagnosed with hyperthyroidism but has been noncompliant with her medications. She complained of palpitations which prompted her to seek consult. Upon ECG, she has irregular heart rate and some skip beats. What agent will most likely help her?
Isoproterenol
Propanolol
Salbutamol
Dobutamine
Propanolol
A 58-year old male patient has difficulty in urination. He is diagnosed to have benign prostatic hyperplasia. Which drug can promote urination?
Tamsulosin
Sildenafil
Clonidine
Ergometrine
Tamsulosin
A 23-year old female patient has suddenly experienced difficulty of breathing, cold clammy skin and hypotension after intake of an antibiotic. Which agent is best to administer?
Phenylphrine
Ephedrine
Epinephrine
Atropine
Epinephrine
Ipratropium is indicated in which of the following clinical conditions?
Peptic ulcer disease
Bronchial asthma
Hypertension
Heart failure
Bronchial asthma
This drug is an analog of the inhibitory neurotransmitter GABA that acts on reducing nerve impulses from the spinal cord to skeletal muscle causing muscle relaxation:
Baclofen
Tizanidine
Mephenesin
Dantrolene
Baclofen
- Tizanidine - agonist at alpha 2-adrenergic receptor sites and presumably reduces spasticity by increasing presynaptic inhibition of motor neurons
- Mephenesin - blocks both inward sodium and inward calcium currents in neurons
- Dantrolene - interferes with the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscle cells
A 50 year old patient was brought to the ER due to sudden onset of cold clammy skin and confusion. His BP was 70/40 and HR was 43. He was just resting after doing his routine exercise when it happened. Which agent can be given intravenously to enhance myocardial activity?
Dobutamine
Metoprolol
Isoproterenol
Dopamine
Dobutamine
Isoproterenol
Dopamine
????
A known asthmatic patient is diagnosed with essential hypertension. Which antihypertensive drug is appropriate for her?
Propranolol
Enalapril
Amlodipine
Losartan
Amlodipine
Losartan
A 25 year old female patient has been experiencing weakness of extremities, ptosis of her right eye and difficulty of breathing. She is suspected to have Myasthenia Gravis (MG). Which drug can be used to test for MG?
Atropine
Pralidoxime
Edrophonium
Physostigmine
Edrophonium
This drug can inhibit the sodium-potassium- chloride cotransporter in the thick ascending limb of a nephron:
Acetazolamide
Hydrochlorothiazide thiazide
Spironolactone
Furosemide
Furosemide
Which statement is FALSE regarding dopamine:
At higher doses can increase blood pressure
At 5 ug/kg/min or 35 ug/kg/min can be used to improve blood flow to the kidneys
Has both direct and indirect actions
Can effectively cross the blood-brain barrier
Can effectively cross the blood-brain barrier
Drug of choice for treatment of acute angina:
Sodium nitroprusside
Isosorbide mononitrate
Nitroglycerine
Isosorbide dinitrate
Isosorbide mononitrate
Nitroglycerine
This drug is a vasodilator but is more commonly used for treating baldness:
Prazosin
Minoxidil
Tamsulosin
Tadalafil
Minoxidil
This substance is commonly associated with cough as an adverse effect
Captopril
Bradykinin
Losartan
Candesartan
Captopril
Bradykinin
Which drug is being employed in balanced anesthesia to decrease the chance of allergic reaction and help dry up secretions?
Atropine
Metoclopramide
Diphenhydramine
Omeprazole
Diphenhydramine
diba apil ang atropine???
The anesthetic action of intravenous anesthetics is primarily terminated by:
Redistribution
Inactivation by enzymes
Elimination via the kidneys
Hepatic metabolism
Redistribution
This analgesic drug has the least chance of causing gastric irritation:
Celecoxib
Meloxicam
Ketoprofen
Acetaminophen
Celecoxib
Which drug has anti-platelet and anti-inflammatory effects?
Acetylsalicylic acid
Rofecoxib
Paracetamol
Tramadol
Acetylsalicylic acid
Misoprostol has the following effects:
Prokinetic effect on stomach
Decrease in gastric acid secretion
Uterine contraction
Increase in mucous and bicarbonate secretion
- Decrease in gastric acid secretion
- Uterine contraction
- Increase in mucous and bicarbonate secretion
A passenger jeepney driver complains of urticaria. Which drug can be prescribed?
Levocetirizine
Brompheniramine
Chlorpheniramine
Hydroxyzine
Levocetirizine
This is an effect of cimetidine
Decongestion of mucosa
Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
Somnolence
Suppression of itchiness
Inhibition of gastric acid secretion
Somnolence
???
This is an effect of paracetamol:
Anti-inflammation
Anti-thrombosis
Antipyresis
Gastric irritation
Antipyresis
Cyclosporine is most effective in which clinical condition:
Inflammatory bowel disease
Systemic fungal infection
Transplant rejection
Bacterial sepsis
- Inflammatory bowel disease
- Transplant rejection
Azathioprine is indicated in the management of which condition:
Crohn’s disease
Glomerulonephritis
Breast cancer
Urinary bladder cancer
Crohn’s disease
Group of signaling proteins made and released by host cells in defensive response to presence of viruses:
Interferon
Monoclonal antibody
Interleukin
TNF Alpha
Interferon
Blocks the action of leukotriene D4 on the cysteinyl leukotriene receptor in the lungs and bronchi hence reducing bronchial inflammation and constriction:
Cromolyn
Montelukast
Budesonide
Aminophylline
Montelukast
Cromolyn _ mast celll stabilizer
Montelukast : leukotriene inhibitor
Budesonide:corticosteroid Aminophylline:methylxanthine
Which histamine antagonist can be used to prevent motion sickness
Levocetirizine
Chlorpheniramine
Ketotifen
Ranitidine
Cetirizine
Meclizine
Diphenhydramine
Meclizine
Diphenhydramine
The most common side effect of nitrates in which nearly 10% of patients are unable to tolerate:
Palpitations
Flushing
Hypotension
Headache
Flushing
Headache
Phenylpropanolamine is indicated in condition:
Diabetes
Hypertension
Asthma
Rhinitis
Rhinitis
It acts by inhibiting the release of chemical mediators from sensitized mast cells:
Cromolyn
Tiotropium
Zafirlukast
Coxib
Cromolyn
Refers to rebound swelling and congestion of the nasal mucosa when the decongestant is discontinued after prolonged use:
Hay fever
Rhinitis medicamentosa
Vasomotor rhinitis
Tachyphylaxis
Rhinitis medicamentosa
Splits apart disulfide bonds that are responsible for holding the mucus materials together:
Ambroxol
Dextromethorphan
Chlorpheniramine
Acetylcysteine
Acetylcysteine
This drug blocks the muscarinic receptors of acetylcholine in the bronchial musculature resulting to bronchodilation:
Fluticasone
Ipratropium
Aminophylline
Guaifenesin
Ipratropium
This drug is both used as a bronchodilator and a tocolytic agent:
Salbutamol
Theophylline
Terbutaline
Ritodrine
Terbutaline
Drug of choice for fast relief of asthma in acute exacerbation:
Salbutamol
Ipratropium
Epinephrine
Salmetrol
Salbutamol
The usual dose-limiting adverse effect of colchicine:
Nausea/vomiting
Drowsiness
Headache
Diarrhea
Nausea/vomiting
Diarrhea
Gingival hyperplasia is a common adverse effect of this medication:
Ethosuximide
Gabapentin
Carbamazepine
Phenytoin
Phenytoin
This drug can be used to manage depression:
Fluoxetine
Haloperidol
Clonazepam
Chlordiazepoxide
Fluoxetine
One of the following is a neuroleptic drug: Chlorpromazine
Sertraline
Gabapentin
Amantadine
Chlorpromazine
A benzodiazepine that is commonly used as a sedative-hypnotic drug:
Midazolam
Zolpidem
Phenobarbital
Diazepam
Diazepam
A patient was observed to have shaking, stiffness, and difficulty with walking, balance, and coordination. Appropriate medication for this condition includes:
Carbidopa
Valproic acid
Levodopa
Pregabalin
Levodopa
Which drug can reduce gastric acid secretion:
Famotidine
Aluminum hydroxide
Sucralfate
Lanzoprazole
Famotidine
Lanzoprazole ???
This drug can increase stool mass and water content, promoting peristalsis:
Bisacodyl
Lactulose
Sodium picosulphate
Psyllium
Psyllium
An anti-psychotic medication which can also be used to manage nausea and vomiting:
Thioridazine
Promethazine
Fluphenazine
Clozapine
Promethazine
This drug can be used to manage flatulence because it can disperse gas pockets in the GIT:
Lactulose
Simethicone
Loperamide
Metoclopramide
Simethicone
A synthetic opioid that binds to opioid receptors in the intestinal wall to slow gut movement:
Hyoscine
Loperamide
Bismuth subsalicylate
Attapulgite
Loperamide
Which of the following anti-ulcer medication can cause constipation:
Calcium carbonate CaCO3
Aluminum hydroxide Al(OH)3
Magnesium carbonate MgCO3
Magnesium hydroxide Mg(OH)2
Aluminum hydroxide Al(OH)3
First-line therapy for mild to moderate ulcerative colitis:
Sulfamethoxazole
Sulfapyridine
Sulfadiazine
Sulfasalazine
Sulfasalazine
Stool softeners include the following:
Psyllium
Senna
Dietary fiber
Methylcellulose
Psyllium
Dietary fiber
Methylcellulose
Useful for the treatment of carcinoid tumors, VIPomas, glucagonomas, and acromegaly:
Carboprost
Somatotropin
Dinoprostone
Octreotide
Octreotide
This drug inhibits the action of α-glucsidase in the intestinal brush border and slows the absorption of carbohydrates from the GI tract:
Rosiglitazone
Liraglutide
Miglitol
Acarbose
Miglitol
Acarbose
ksama nila c voglibose
This drug can cause insulin secretion by beta cells in the pancreas:
Metformin
Glipizide
Pioglitazone
Acarbose
Glipizide
This drug is used extensively in conditions characterized by osteoclast-mediated bone resorption, including osteoporosis, steroid-induced osteoporosis, tumor-associated osteolysis, and hypercalcemia:
Cinacalcet
Calcitriol
Teriparatide
Bisphosphonates
Bisphosphonates
Acute inhibition of the synthesis of iodotyrosines and iodothyronines upon administration of high concentrations of iodide:
Plummer’s Disease
Jod-Basedow phenomenon
Wolff-Chaikoff effect
Iodism
Wolff-Chaikoff effect
Drug for preventing postpartum hemorrhage:
Methylergonovine
Misoprostol
Carboprost
Oxytocin
Methylergonovine
Misoprostol
Carboprost
Oxytocin
This is an anti-platelet drug:
Dypridamole
Aspirin
Warfarin
Clopidogrel
Dypridamole
Aspirin
Clopidogrel
Parenterally administered iron chelating agent used to treat transfusion related chronic iron overload
Deferoxamine
Iron dextran
Protamine
EDTA
Deferoxamine
Achlorhydria and decreased secretion of intrinsic factor by parietal cells secondary to gastric atrophy or gastric surgery is a common cause of deficiency of this vitamin:
Cyanocobalamin
Pyridoxine
Riboflavin
Folic Acid
Cyanocobalamin
Binds to the enzyme inhibitor antithrombin III (AT) which then inactivates thrombin, factor Xa and other coagulation proteases:
Clopidogrel
Heparin
Warfarin
Tranexamic acid
Heparin
and fondaparinux
An anti-fibrinolytic that competitively inhibits the activation of plasminogen to plasmin:
Ticlopidine
Clopidogrel
Tranexamic acid
Aminocaproic acid
Tranexamic acid
Aminocaproic acid
The treatment of choice for rodenticide poisoning with active bleeding:
Protamine
Tranexamic acid
Vitamin K
Fresh whole blood
Vitamin K
POISONING AND ANTIDOTE
WARFARIN
vitamin K
POISONING AND ANTIDOTE
OXYCODONE
NALOXONE
POISONING AND ANTIDOTE
INH
Pyridoxine
POISONING AND ANTIDOTE
paracetamol
N-acetylcysteine
Selective estrogen receptor modulator (SERM):
Anastrozole
Megestrol acetate
Diethylstilbestrol
Tamoxifen
Tamoxifen
Cardiac toxicity is most commonly associated with which of the following anti-neoplastic drugs:
Cyclophosphamide
Vincristine
Doxorubicin
Methotrexate
Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin
Most common dose-limiting toxic factor in chemotherapy:
Diarrhea
Leukopenia
Nausea and vomiting
Alopecia
Leukopenia
Attacks the hypnozoite forms and prevents formation of male/female gametocytes thus preventing recurrence and further spread of the plasmodium protozoa:
Chloroquine
Halofantrine
Mefloquine
Primaquine
Primaquine
Irreversibly binds to nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction, thus causing spastic paralysis of the helminths:
Diethylcarbamazine
Ivermectin
Mebendazole
Pyrantel
Pyrantel
The drug of choice for treating all species of schistosomes:
Piperazine
Praziquantel
Niclosamide
Ivermectin
Praziquantel
This antibiotic can cause discoloration and hypoplasia of teeth (due to deposition in teeth which primarily occurs in children):
Chloramphenicol
Tetracycline
Erythromycin
Ciprofloxacin
Tetracycline
Bactericidal drugs include drugs that primarily act on the following:
Protein synthesis
Bacterial DNA
Cell membrane
Cell wall
Protein synthesis
Bacterial DNA
Cell membrane
Cell wall
Antibiotics with good anti-anaerobic activity: Clindamycin
Cefoxitin
Metronidazole
Clarithryomycin
Clindamycin???
Metronidazole???
Drugs recommended for the treatment of coronavirus disease 2019 (COVID-19 infection) caused by the SARS-CoV-2 virus:
Anti-CoV-2 Monoclonal antibodies
Dexamethasone
Chloroquine
Remdesivir
Remdesivir
The medical use of Acyclovir includes treatment of viral infection caused by:
Infectious mononucleosis
Hepatitis B
Herpes
Influenza
Herpes
True statements regarding the amended provisions of the Generics Law:
A. Drug outlets shall inform buyer about drug products having same generic name
B. All medical practitioners shall write prescriptions using the generic name
C. All prescribers must write their PRC, PTR and S2 numbers in the prescription form
D. Brand name of a drug must not appear in the prescription form
A. Drug outlets shall inform buyer about drug products having same generic name
B. All medical practitioners shall write prescriptions using the generic name
Drug dosage is 50 mg/kg/day in3 divided doses. Drug preparation is 250 mg/5 ml. If child weighs 10 kg, how much drug in ml is to be given per dose?
2.3
1.3
3.3
4.3
3.3
