3RD BI RECALLS Flashcards

1
Q

A 24-yo patient sought consultation because of 3-day duration of flu-like illness
characterized by mild sore throat, nasal catarrh, cough, body malaise and feeling
feverish. The physician may:

Prescribe oral paracetamol for fever
Advise to stay at home, take rest, and increase oral fluids
Test for COVID 19 infection
Prescribe oral acyclovir

A
  • Prescribe oral paracetamol for fever
  • Advise to stay at home, take rest, and increase oral fluids
  • Test for COVID 19 infection
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2
Q

LAXATIVE AND MECHANISM OF ACTION:

  • Emulsifies the fat component of stool

Mineral Oil
Psyllium
Ipecac
Docusate
Lactulose
Bisacodyl

A

Docusate

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3
Q

LAXATIVE AND MECHANISM OF ACTION:

  • Draws water into the intestine

Mineral Oil
Psyllium
Ipecac
Docusate
Lactulose
Bisacodyl

A

Lactulose

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4
Q

LAXATIVE AND MECHANISM OF ACTION:

  • Forms a slippery coat

Mineral Oil
Psyllium
Ipecac
Docusate
Lactulose
Bisacodyl

A

Mineral Oil

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5
Q

LAXATIVE AND MECHANISM OF ACTION:

  • Stimulates the intestinal nerve plexuses

Mineral Oil
Psyllium
Ipecac
Docusate
Lactulose
Bisacodyl

A

Bisacodyl

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6
Q

First- line therapy for mild to moderate ulcerative colitis:

Sulfasalazine
Prenisone
Adalimumab
Methotrexate

A

Sulfasalazine

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7
Q

This anti-fungal agent is known to cause acute drug-induced interstitial nephritis:

Amphotericin B
Miconazole
Flucytosine
Terbinafine

A

Amphotericin B

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8
Q

An aminoglycoside that can be used to treat tuberculosis:

Netilmicin
Streptomycin
Tobramycin
Gentamicin

A

Streptomycin

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9
Q

A patient complaining of gnawing epigastric pain relieved by food intake underwent
EGD. Rapid Urease Test was positive. Definitive treatment for the patient’s condition
includes:

Pantoprazole
Aluminum hydroxide
Clarithromycin
Metronidazole

A

Pantoprazole
Clarithromycin
Metronidazole

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10
Q

A medical clerk prescribed Pirenzepine to a patient with abdominal pain. Patient
complained of dry mouth during follow-up. This adverse effect is most likely due to this
mechanism:

Cholinergic antagonism
Adrenergic agonism
Adrenergic antagonism
Cholinergic agonism

A

Cholinergic antagonism

PIRENZIPINE-M1 MUSCARINIC RECEPTOR ANTAGONISTS

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11
Q

This antifungal drug binds to the ergosterol of the fungal cell membrane to form cell
membrane pores:

Nystatin
Ketoconazole
Griseofulvin
Terbinafine

A

Nystatin

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12
Q

First-line drug against mycobacterium leprae infections:

Ethambutol
Dapsone
Pyrazinamide
Ofloxacin

A

Dapsone

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13
Q

This drug acts on the hypnozoites of P. vivax and P. ovale in the liver that cause relapse of symptoms on reactivation:

Pyrimethamine
Primaquine
Quinine
Chloroquine

A

Pyrimethamine
Primaquine

KASAMA din ang Tafenoquine

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14
Q

If the category I TB patient has already been treated for 4 months but has interrupted
his anti-TB regimen for 2 weeks, the case may be:

Considered as Lost to Follow Up
Allowed to continue treatment
Allowed to continue treatment only if repeat DSSM is negative
Labelled as Treatment Failure

A

Allowed to continue treatment

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15
Q

A patient developed rash, hives and itchiness after taking co-amoxiclav antibiotic for a
soft tissue infection. Physician decided to change the antibiotic to which of the following?

Clarithromycin
Clindamycin
Sultamicillin
Cephalexin

A

Clarithromycin
Clindamycin

???

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16
Q

A 25-yo pregnant woman contracted malaria. Which anti-malarial drug can be used?

Mefloquine
Primaquine
Artemisinin
Doxycycline

A

Mefloquine
Artemisinin

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17
Q

Characteristic findings of tumor lysis syndrome include:

Hyperuricemia
Hypercalcemia
Hyperphosphatemia
Hypokalemia

A

Hyperuricemia
Hyperphosphatemia

-hyperuricemia
-hyperphosphatemia–>hypocalcemia
-hyperkalemia

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18
Q

A 26-yo male newly diagnosed HIV patient may be started with a combination of which antiviral drugs:

Efavirenz
Lamiduvine
Zidovudine
Amantadine

A

Efavirenz
Lamiduvine
Zidovudine

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19
Q

While on anti-TB regimen, patient complained of persistent burning sensation in the feet. As the physician, you will prescribe/advise:

Discontinuation of anti-TB drugs
Celecoxib
Cetirizine
Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)

A

Pyridoxine (Vitamin B6)

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20
Q

This TNF blocker may be effective for the treatment of moderate-severe and refractory inflammatory bowel disease:

Infliximab
Methotraxate
Cyclosporine
Azathioprine

A

Infliximab

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21
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND MECHANISM OF ACTION

Imatinib

DNA Polymerase
Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor
Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor
Topoisomerase II Inhibitor
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor
Aromatase Inhibitor

A

Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor

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22
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND MECHANISM OF ACTION

Tamoxifen

DNA Polymerase
Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor
Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor
Topoisomerase II Inhibitor
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor
Aromatase Inhibitor

A

Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator

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23
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND MECHANISM OF ACTION

Daunorubicin

DNA Polymerase
Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor
Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor
Topoisomerase II Inhibitor
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor
Aromatase Inhibitor

A

Topoisomerase II Inhibitor

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24
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND MECHANISM OF ACTION

Anastrozole

DNA Polymerase
Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor
Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor
Topoisomerase II Inhibitor
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor
Aromatase Inhibitor

A

Aromatase Inhibitor

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25
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND MECHANISM OF ACTION

Methotrexate

DNA Polymerase
Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor
Protein-Tyrosine Kinase Inhibitor
Topoisomerase II Inhibitor
Selective Estrogen Receptor Modulator
Thymidylate Synthase Inhibitor
Aromatase Inhibitor

A

Dihydrofolate Reductase Inhibitor

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26
Q

Which cephalosporin is able to penetrate the central nervous system, making it useful against bacterial meningitis?

Cefuroxime
Cefazolin
Cefotaxime
Cefotiam

A

Cefotaxime

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27
Q

This antibiotic is effective against beta-lactamase producing Staphylococcal aureus:

Cloxacillin
Ampicillin plus Sulbactam
Amoxicillin plus Clavulanic Acid
Cephalexin

A

Ampicillin plus Sulbactam
Amoxicillin plus Clavulanic Acid

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28
Q

Medical uses of metoclopramide:

Gastroparesis
Nausea and vomiting
Flatulence
Dyspepsia

A

Gastroparesis
Nausea and vomiting

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29
Q

For a category II pregnant pulmonary TB case, the anti-TB regimen involves which drug?

Isoniazid
Streptomycin
Pyrazinamide
Rifampicin
Ethambutol

A
  • Isoniazid
  • Pyrazinamide
  • Rifampicin
  • Ethambutol
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30
Q

COMMON BACTERIAL INFECTION AND DRUG OF CHOICE

Azithromycin
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Co-amoxiclav
Ciprofloxacin

Wound infection

A

Co-amoxiclav

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31
Q

COMMON BACTERIAL INFECTION AND DRUG OF CHOICE

Azithromycin
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Co-amoxiclav
Ciprofloxacin

Bacterial vaginosis

A

Metronidazole

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32
Q

COMMON BACTERIAL INFECTION AND DRUG OF CHOICE

Azithromycin
Metronidazole
Doxycycline
Co-amoxiclav
Ciprofloxacin

Tonsillitis, (+) allergy to penicillin

A

Azithromycin

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33
Q

A doctor ordered polyethylene glycol the night before a patient’s colonoscopy procedure. What is the the reason for this?

Relief of bowel irritability
Prophylactic antisepsis
Fluid and electrolyte replacement
Bowel cleansing

A

Bowel cleansing

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34
Q

Adverse effect of Sulfasalazine includes:

Fatigue
Inhibition of intestinal folate absorption
Reversible decrease in the number and motility of sperm
Stevens- Johnson syndrome

A

Fatigue
Inhibition of intestinal folate absorption
Reversible decrease in the number and motility of sperm
Stevens- Johnson syndrome

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35
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND CLINICAL USE

Flutamide

HER2 (+) Breast Cancer
Testicular Cancer
Prostatic Cancer
Ovarian Cancer
ER (+) Breast Cancer
Endometrial Cancer
Cervical Cancer

A

Prostatic Cancer

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36
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND CLINICAL USE

Trastuzumab

HER2 (+) Breast Cancer
Testicular Cancer
Prostatic Cancer
Ovarian Cancer
ER (+) Breast Cancer
Endometrial Cancer
Cervical Cancer

A

HER2 (+) Breast Cancer

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37
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND CLINICAL USE

Tamoxifene

HER2 (+) Breast Cancer
Testicular Cancer
Prostatic Cancer
Ovarian Cancer
ER (+) Breast Cancer
Endometrial Cancer
Cervical Cancer

A

ER (+) Breast Cancer

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38
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND CLINICAL USE

Letrozole

HER2 (+) Breast Cancer
Testicular Cancer
Prostatic Cancer
Ovarian Cancer
ER (+) Breast Cancer
Endometrial Cancer
Cervical Cancer

A

Breast Cancer

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39
Q

ANTI-NEOPLASTIC DRUG AND CLINICAL USE

Megestrol acetate

HER2 (+) Breast Cancer
Testicular Cancer
Prostatic Cancer
Ovarian Cancer
ER (+) Breast Cancer
Endometrial Cancer
Cervical Cancer

A

Endometrial Cancer

40
Q

Which antibiotic is associated with tendonitis and tendon rupture as adverse effects?

Gentamicin
Trimethoprim
Sulfadiazine
Levofloxacin

A

Levofloxacin

41
Q

Enumerate 4 mechanisms by which malignant tumors acquire genetic resistance.

A
  • decreased availability of receptors for the drug;
  • increased active transport of the drug out of the neoplastic cell
  • overproduction of the targets of the chemotherapeutic drugs, e.g., enzyme inhibited by them
  • development of alternative pathways, i.e., new synthetic mechanisms that substitute for blocked pathways
42
Q

β-lactamase inhibitors have little antibiotic activity of their own but they prevent bacterial degradation of beta-lactam antibiotics. Which is a beta lactamase inhibitor?

Clavulanic acid
Tazobactam
Methicillin
Oxacillin

A

Clavulanic acid
Tazobactam

43
Q

Contraindication to activated charcoal (AC) oral administration includes:

Gasoline ingestion
Recurring vomiting
Suspected peritonitis
Unconsciousness

A

Gasoline ingestion
Recurring vomiting
Suspected peritonitis
Unconsciousness

44
Q

A clinical clerk refused to prescribe misoprostol as requested by a gravid woman at 6 weeks age of gestation because the drug can cause:

Miscarriage
Renal dysfunction
Hepatic failure
Ileus

A

Miscarriage

45
Q

Which antibiotic is most likely to cause ototoxicity, nephrotoxicity, and neuromuscular toxicity?

Quinolone
Aminoglycoside
Penicillin
Sulphonamide

A

Aminoglycoside

46
Q

Have an antimicrobial action by precipitation/denaturation of proteins:

Benzalkonium chloride
Hydrogen peroxide
Lactate
Isopropanol

A

Lactate
Isopropanol

possible din ALL

47
Q

Indicated for the treatment of Clostridium difficile associated diarrhea and enterocolitis:

Vancomycin
Daptomycin
Metronidazole
Bacitracin

A

Vancomycin
Metronidazole

48
Q

A patient complained of abdominal pain, nausea, vomiting, weight loss, and diarrhea. EGD revealed multiple ulcerations in stomach, duodenum and proximal duodenum. An abdominal MRI with contrast revealed a small mass at head of pancreas. To control his
symptoms, the patient may be given:

Octreotide
Loperamide
Metronidazole
Lansoprazole

A

Octreotide
Lansoprazole

49
Q

Therapy of Inflammatory Bowel Disease during pregnancy involves:

Prednisone
Methotrexate
Mesalamine
Metronidazole

A

Prednisone
Mesalamine
Metronidazole

50
Q

A patient with chronic alcoholism has signs and symptoms of malabsorption and
steatorrhea. Which drug is useful for this patient?

Ursodeoxycholic acid
Simvastatin
Pancreatin
Fibrate

A

Pancreatin

51
Q

While travelling to CDO, a third year medical student experiences colicky abdominal pain and watery stools. Which drug may temporarily relieve the student of his symptoms while on travel?

Loperamide
Domperidone
Attapulgite
Slimming tea with senna

A

Loperamide
Attapulgite

52
Q

This anti-neoplastic agent is S phase specific, i.e., inhibits DNA synthesis

Mercaptopurine
Paclitaxel
Fluorouracil
Methotrexate

A

Mercaptopurine
Fluorouracil
Methotrexate

53
Q

A 30-yo patient was admitted due to fever, RUQ pain, and diarrhea of one-week duration. Abdominal ultrasound revealed a 8 cm liver abscess, which on aspiration
demonstrated brown fluid. Which medication can be used to manage this condition?

Metronidazole
Piperacillin-Tazobactam
Carbapenem
Paromomycin

A

Metronidazole

54
Q

Adverse hypersensitivity reaction manifesting as fever, headache , skin rashes, myalgias, and/or arthralgias due to release of antigens from dying helminths during
deworming therapy:

Cinchonism
Mazzoti
Blackwater
Acetaldehyde syndrome

A

Mazzoti

55
Q

Bactericidal drugs are those that primarily act on:

Protein synthesis
Enzymes
Cell wall/ membrane
DNA

A

Cell wall/ membrane
DNA

56
Q

Because of right upper quadrant pain, patient had upper abdominal ultrasound which revealed gallstone. Since patient does not consent to a surgical treatment, medical
dissolution can be tried using which drug?

Gemfibrozil
Pancrealipase
Atorvastatin
Chenodeoxycholic acid

A

Chenodeoxycholic acid

57
Q

An adult hypertensive patient contracted COVID 19 and manifested with anosmia, dysgeusia and mild sore throat. During an OPD consultation, the patient asked if he
could be given Remdesivir. Physician advised otherwise and enumerated the FDA- approved recommendations for the use of the antiviral drug:

Hospitalized for moderate to severe infection
Without co-morbidities
12 years of age and older
Weighing at least 40 kg

A

Hospitalized for moderate to severe infection
12 years of age and older
Weighing at least 40 kg

58
Q

6 months after his 2 week-duration of jaundice, patient had a serologic screening panel which revealed the following results: HBsAg (+), Anti-HBc (+), IgM Anti-HBc (-), Anti- HBs (-). Which FDA-approved antiviral drug may be given to the patient?

Oseltamivir
Valacyclovir
Tenofovir
Emtricitabine
Option 1

A

Tenofovir
Emtricitabine

59
Q

Some activated charcoal products contain sorbitol. Sorbitol is a sweetener. What is the rationale for this combination?

Neutralization of the toxin
Correction of poison-induced hypoglycemia
Increase in GI transit time
Enhancement of palatability

A

Increase in GI transit time
Enhancement of palatability

60
Q

A parent showed a photo of a worm that passed out when her child was moving her bowels. What drug can you possibly prescribe?

Tinidazole
Mebendazole
Diethylcarbamazine
Pyrantel

A

Mebendazole
Pyrantel

61
Q

This drug is effective in maintaining IBD remission:

Sulfasalazine
Methotrexate
Infliximab
Prednisone

A

Methotrexate
Infliximab

62
Q

A physician advised the patient to take his levofloxacin 2 hours before or after taking sucralfate. The reason for this advice is to prevent:

Reduction of levofloxacin’s bioavailability
Reduction of sucralfate’s efficacy
Increase of levofloxacin’s adverse effects
Prolonged excretion of levofloxacin

A

Reduction of levofloxacin’s bioavailability

63
Q

An adult patient is diagnosed to have a ruptured acute appendicitis. Which drug or combination of drugs can be used to manage the intraabdominal polymicrobial
infection?

Cefoxitin
Clindamycin
Imipinem
Piperacillin-Tazobactam + Metronidazole

A

Piperacillin-Tazobactam + Metronidazole

64
Q

This antibacterial drug has good Gram (-) coverage: *

Levofloxacin
Clindamycin
Ceftriaxone
Gentamicin

A

Levofloxacin
Ceftriaxone
Gentamicin

65
Q

This antibiotic acts as competitive inhibitor of the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase (DHPS), an enzyme involved in folate synthesis:

Suphonamide
Quinolone
Clindamycin
Aminoglycoside

A

Suphonamide

66
Q

Praziquantel is the drug of choice for the treatment of this helminth infestation:

Taenia coli
Wuchereria bancrofti
Schistosoma japonicum
Ancylostoma duodenale

A

Schistosoma japonicum

67
Q

True statement regarding efficacy of anti-neoplastic agents:

Many cytotoxic agents act by damaging the cell membrane
Tumors with high growth fraction are more responsive to chemotherapy
Chemotherapeutic agents damage rapidly proliferating normal cells
Malignant cells in G0 phase for long periods are less responsive

A
  • Tumors with high growth fraction are more responsive to chemotherapy
  • Chemotherapeutic agents damage rapidly proliferating normal cells
  • Malignant cells in G0 phase for long periods are less responsive
68
Q

A 40-yo patient consulted at OPD because of painful blisters on one side of his body for
7-day duration. As a physician, you may prescribe/advise:

Celecoxib
Sultamicillin
Hospital admission
Oseltamivir

A

Celecoxib

69
Q

A pediatric patient ingested an excessive dose of paracetamol (PCM). The ER physician inserted an NGT and administered AC. What is the rationale for this
management?

Antidote to effects of PCM
Formation of non-toxic product
Minimize PCM absorption
Increase in GI transit time of PCM

A

Minimize PCM absorption

70
Q

Inadequate TB treatment can lead to which of the following?

Development of drug resistance
Treatment failure
Ongoing transmission
Relapse

A
  • Development of drug resistance
  • Treatment failure
  • Ongoing transmission
  • Relapse
71
Q

A patient complained of nausea, heartburn, belching, bloating, and occasional colicky epigastric pain. Has been self-medicating with Maltodextrin (Fibrosine) and
Metoclopramide. A medical intern prescribed Hyoscine, Aluminum/Magnesium Hydroxide-Simethicone, and Ranitidine. Match the drug and its intended indication:

Break up gas bubbles in the gut
Quickly lower stomach acid
Relief of colic
Lower stomach acid production

Simethicone

A

Break up gas bubbles in the gut

72
Q

A patient complained of nausea, heartburn, belching, bloating, and occasional colicky epigastric pain. Has been self-medicating with Maltodextrin (Fibrosine) and
Metoclopramide. A medical intern prescribed Hyoscine, Aluminum/Magnesium Hydroxide-Simethicone, and Ranitidine. Match the drug and its intended indication:

Break up gas bubbles in the gut
Quickly lower stomach acid
Relief of colic
Lower stomach acid production

Al/Mag Hydroxide

A

Quickly lower stomach acid

73
Q

A patient complained of nausea, heartburn, belching, bloating, and occasional colicky epigastric pain. Has been self-medicating with Maltodextrin (Fibrosine) and
Metoclopramide. A medical intern prescribed Hyoscine, Aluminum/Magnesium Hydroxide-Simethicone, and Ranitidine. Match the drug and its intended indication:

Break up gas bubbles in the gut
Quickly lower stomach acid
Relief of colic
Lower stomach acid production

Hyoscine

A

Relief of colic

74
Q

A patient complained of nausea, heartburn, belching, bloating, and occasional colicky epigastric pain. Has been self-medicating with Maltodextrin (Fibrosine) and
Metoclopramide. A medical intern prescribed Hyoscine, Aluminum/Magnesium Hydroxide-Simethicone, and Ranitidine. Match the drug and its intended indication:

Break up gas bubbles in the gut
Quickly lower stomach acid
Relief of colic
Lower stomach acid production

Ranitidine

A

Lower stomach acid production

75
Q

An 18-yo patient sought consultation because of patches of discolored spots on his skin. Which drug may be prescribed?

Tinidazole
Ketoconazole
Amphotericin B
Cotrimoxazole

A

Ketoconazole

76
Q

An adult patient underwent excision biopsy of one of the neck masses that appeared since 3 months PTC. Biopsy reported caseous necrosis. Chest x-ray revealed normal
findings. What is the definitive management for this patient?

2HRZE/4HR
2HRZE/10HR
Clindamycin
Sultamicillin

A

2HRZE/4HR

77
Q

A bladder cancer patient experienced chest pain and palpitations a few days after undergoing MVDC chemotherapy. If the symptoms were adverse effects, which anti-neoplastic drug is most likely responsible?

Cisplatin
Vincristine
Doxorubicin
Methotrexate

A

Doxorubicin

78
Q

This is the usual dose-limiting adverse effect in chemotherapy.

Nausea and vomiting
Renal toxicity
Alopecia
Myelosuppression

A

Myelosuppression

79
Q

Which of the cephalosporins has the broadest spectrum of activity and the most activit against gram-negative organisms?

Cefadroxil
Ceftriaxone
Cefaclor
Cefoxitin

A

Ceftriaxone

80
Q

Demonstrates antibacterial activity against a broad spectrum of gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria, including Pseudomonas aeruginosa:

Piperacillin
Carbenicillin
Azlocillin
Ticarcillin

A

Azlocillin

81
Q

A patient complained of burning epigastric pain associated with nausea and heartburn. Which drug is appropriate for this patient?

Omeprazole
Metoclopramide
Loperamide
Famotidine

A

Omeprazole

Famotidine

82
Q

During a routine annual physical examination, a company employee had a fecalysis result of:
Consistency = Formed;
Amoeba cyst (+);
Amoeba trophozoite (-).
Which drug is appropriate for this condition?

Metronidazole
Chloroquine
Diloxanide furoate
Paromonycin

A

Diloxanide furoate
Paromonycin

83
Q

Mechanism of action of misoprostol includes:

Relaxation of pregnant uterus
Reduction of gastric acid secretion
Enhancement of gastric motility (prokinesis)
Increase in gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion

A
  • Reduction of gastric acid secretion
  • Increase in gastric mucus and bicarbonate secretion
84
Q

This antibiotic can cause discoloration and hypoplasia of teeth in children:

Ciprofloxacin
Chloramphenicol
Tetracycline
Erythromycin

A

Tetracycline

85
Q

A male patient diagnosed with recurrent duodenal ulcerations was maintained on an acid-reducing medication. He later complained of breast enlargement. The drug most likely prescribed was:

Bismuth subsalicylate
Cimetidine
Misoprostol
Esomeprazole

A

Cimetidine

86
Q

This anti-neoplastic drug inhibits function of microtubules, i.e., M phase specific:

Docetaxel
Vincristine
Vinblastine
Hydroxyurea

A

Docetaxel
Vincristine
Vinblastine

87
Q

AC administration is NOT indicated in which of the following substances:

Methanol
Iron
Benzodiazepine
Cyanide

A

Methanol
Iron
Cyanide

88
Q

Antibacterial agents considered safe in pregnancy:

Fluoroquinolones
Penicillins
Macrolides
Tetracyclines

A

Penicillins
Macrolides

89
Q

This anti-neoplastic drug is active in the resting phase of malignant cells, i.e., cell cycle independent:

Doxorubicin
Cyclophosphamide
Streptozocin
Epipodophyllotoxin

A

Cyclophosphamide
Streptozocin

90
Q

Patient consulted at OPD complaining of nausea, vomiting, headache, dizziness , and abdominal discomfort after drinking alcoholic beverages. Had been taking
Metronidazole for his colitis. The most likely cause was:

Colitis exacerbation
Aceltaldehyde accumulation
Ethanol poisoning
Metronidazole toxicity

A

Aceltaldehyde accumulation

91
Q

Patient was diagnosed to have acid peptic disease. An antacid was given but patient complained later of watery stools. The antacid most likely prescribed is:

Aluminum hydoxide
Calcium carbonate
Magnesium hydroxide
Sodium bicarbonate

A

Magnesium hydroxide

92
Q

Jose is traveling to a malaria-endemic area so he consulted a physician for his chemoprophylaxis. Which drug may be prescribed to prevent malaria?

Chloroquine
Doxycycline
Primaquine
Mefloquine

A

Chloroquine
Doxycycline
Primaquine
Mefloquine

93
Q

Chemotherapy drug that is used for breast cancer:

Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin
Methotrexate
Fluorouracil

A

Cyclophosphamide
Doxorubicin
Methotrexate
Fluorouracil

94
Q

Characteristic of cancerous cells which refers to loss of cellular differentiation
A. Anaplasia
C. Autonomy
B. Metastasis
D. Angiogenesis

A

A. Anaplasia

95
Q

A type of solid tumor which arises from epithelial tissue: A. Sarcoma
C. Lymphoma
B. Carcinoma
D. Leukemia

A

B. Carcinoma

96
Q

In cell cycle kinetics, it refers to the resting phase:
A. G1 phase
C. M phase
B. Synthesis phase
D. GO phase

A

D. GO phase