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PH 122 > FINALS DECK > Flashcards

FINALS DECK Flashcards

1
Q

True or false. Small interfering RNA and microRNA have the same mechanism

A

True

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2
Q 
A. Patau Syndrome
B. Marfan Syndrome
C. von Recklinghausen's disease
D. phenylketonuria
E. Fragile X Syndrome

identify type of genetic disorder

A 
A. chromosomal aberration
B. autosomal dominant
C. autosomal dominant
D. autosomal recessive
E. Autosomal recessive
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3
Q

Differentiate conservative missense mutation from its non-conservative counterpart

A

Non-conservative : marked change in protein fx

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4
Q

Differentiate autosomal dominant from autosomal recessive genetic disorder

A

dominant: only one gene needed to manif
Recessive: two genes needed

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5
Q

mutated gene @ achondroplasia; specify type of genetic disorder

A

Fibroblast growth factor receptor 3;

autosomal dominant

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6
Q

What are neurofibromas?

specify type of genetic disorder

A

Benign tumors of peripheral nerves of Schwann cell origin

Autosomal dominant

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7
Q

In sickle cell anemia, there is substitution of __ for __

specify type of genetic disorder

A

Valine for glutamic acid residue

autosomal recessive

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8
Q

Differentiate hemophilia A from hemophilia B

specify type of genetic disorder

A

A - defect @ gene encoding for factor VIII (or factor II)
B - defect @ gene encoding for factor IX

sex-linked disorder

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9
Q

False about X-linked disorders
A. Females may only be homozygous
B. Lack of transmission from father to son
C. Most X-linked traits are recessive

A

A

Females may also be heterozygous

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10
Q

Give the genome of
A. Klinefelter
B. Turner

A

A. XXY

B. X

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11
Q

Cri du chat syndrome has what kind of mutation?and in what part of what chromosome?

specific type of genetic disorder

A

Deletion of the end of the p arm @ chromosome 5

chromosomal aberration

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12
Q 
Native immunity present before any infection
A.innate
B.adaptive
C.humoral
D.cell-mediated
A

A

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13
Q 
Part of humoral immunity
A. CD4 T cell
B. CD8 T cell
C. B cell
D. NK cell
A

C

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14
Q 
Where do T cells develop?
A.thyroid gland
B.parathyroid gland
C.thymus
D.parathymus
A

C

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15
Q

Each T cell recognizes specific cellbound Ag c/o __

A

Clas II MHC molecules at surface of T cells

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16
Q

TCR genes are present at all cell lines but they are only expressed at lymphocytes. Why is this?

A

T cells acquire specific mutations in TCR genes @ maturation process

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17
Q

Mature lymphocytes that have not encountered any Ag are the __ ones

A

Naïve

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18
Q

Identify

Monocytes that came out of the circulation to enter tissue

A

Macrophage

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19
Q 
Location of nucleus at plasma cell
A.center
B.periphery
C.both
D.plasma cell is anucleated
A

B

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20
Q 
Gene encoding for MHC is located in \_\_
A.Chromosome 16
B.Chromosome 12
C.Chromosome 6
D.Chromosome 2
A

C.Chromosome 6

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21
Q 
Cell that is part of both innate and adaptive immunity
A.T cell
B.B cell
C.Macrophage
D.none of the above
A

C

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22
Q 
MHC I is located in
A.all nucleated cells
B.platelets
C.RBCs
D.A and B
E.B and C
A

D

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23
Q

Main deficiency in Graves disease

A

TSH receptor

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24
Q

In what autoimmune disease are antinuclear antibodies produced?

A

Systemic lupus erythematosus

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25
Q

Xerophthalmia is a key sign of
A.Sjogren syndrome
B.Rheumatoid arthritis
C.Goodpasteur syndrome

A

A

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26
Q

Impaired basement membrane of kidney is a key sign of
A.Sjogren syndrome
B.Rheumatoid arthritis
C.Goodpasteur syndrome

A

C

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27
Q

Immune complex deposition at joints and blood vessels is a key sign of
A.Sjogren syndrome
B.Rheumatoid arthritis
C.Goodpasteur syndrome

A

B

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28
Q 
Weak GI tract & impaired mucosal defense is a complication of 
A.Chediak Higashi
B.Digeorge Syndrome
C.Isolated IgA Deficiency
D.Chronic Granulomatous Disease
A

C

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29
Q 
Thymic aplasia is a complication of 
A.Chediak Higashi
B.Digeorge Syndrome
C.Isolated IgA Deficiency
D.Chronic Granulomatous Disease
A

B

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30
Q 
Impaired lysosomal trafficking is main effect of 
A.Chediak Higahi
B.Digeorge Syndrome
C.Isolated IgA Deficiency
D.Chronic Granulomatous Disease
A

A

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31
Q 
Impaired NADPH Oxidase activity is effect of 
A.Chediak Higahi
B.Digeorge Syndrome
C.Isolated IgA Deficiency
D.Chronic Granulomatous Disease
A

D

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32
Q 
Intact in Bruton Agammaglobulinemia 
A. Humoral immunity
B. CMI
C. Both
D. None of the above
A

B

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33
Q

Most common complement defect

A

C2

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34
Q

Main defect of X-linked SCID

A

Gamma chain of interleukin receptor

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35
Q

Enumerate main patho manif of Ataxia-Telangiectasia

A

Abnormal gait

Vascular malformation

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36
Q 
Mutation of adenosine deaminase is present in
A. X-linked SCID
B. Autosomal recessive SCID
C. DiGeorge syndrome
D. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
A

b

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37
Q

Immunodeficiency where there is class switching problem of Ig, leading to low IgA,G and E

A

Hyper IgM syndrome

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38
Q

What is point mutation?

A

Substitution of single N-base @ gene

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39
Q

What is aneuploid?

A

Chromosomal abnormality where number of chromosomes is not multiple of haploid

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40
Q 
A child fed with am is most likely to get what nutritional disorder?
A.marasmus
B.kwashiorkor
C.cachexia
D.anorexia
A

A

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41
Q

Choose the best answer

Vitamin C is crucial to the formation of \_\_.
A.keratin
B.collagen
C.hyaluronan
D.chondroitin
A

B

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42
Q

Identify likely deficient vitamin for each condition
A.beri beri
B.gum bleeding

A

A.Vit B

B.Vit C

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43
Q

Identify likely deficient vitamin for each condition
A.night blindness
B.osteomalacia

A

A.Vit C

B.Vit D

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44
Q 
Which is not an oncogenic virus?
A.HTLV
B.EBV
C.HPV
D.HSV
A

D

Herpes Simplex

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45
Q 
Which is not malignant?
A.leiomyosarcoma
B.lymphoma
C.hemangioma
D.melanoma
A

C

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46
Q

Most common route of metastasis for carcinomas

A

Lymphatic

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47
Q

Most important prognosis factor for malignancy

A

Stage

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48
Q

Which is a blastoma?
A. Struma ovarii
B. Dermoid cyst
C. Wilms tumor

A

C

Wilms tumor is nephroblastoma

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49
Q 
Most likely etiologic agent of septic shock coupled with purulent material
A.Staph aureus
B.Vibrio cholerae
C.Mycobacterium leprae
D.Clostridium difficile
A

A

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50
Q 
Catalase and coagulase positive, yellow colonies at BAP,bunch of grapes at Gram stain
A.Staph aureus
B.Vibrio cholerae
C.Mycobacterium leprae
D.Clostridium difficile
A

A

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51
Q

Why do Gram positive organisms give violet color

A

Peptidoglycan cell membrane retains crystal violet

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52
Q 
Organism that causes Ritter syndrome
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.Staph aureus
C.Mycobacterium leprae
D.Clostridium difficile
A

B

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53
Q 
Organism that causes Reiter syndrome
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.Staph aureus
C.Mycobacterium leprae
D.Clostridium difficile
A

A

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54
Q 
Organism/s that cause/s Toxic shock syndrome
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.Staph aureus
C.Strep pyogenes
D.Clostridium difficile
A

B and C

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55
Q

Virulence factor in Strep pyogenes that causes cross-antigenicity, leading to rheumatic heart disease

A

M Protein

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56
Q 
May cause neonatal meningitis. Present at lower female GUT
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.Staph aureus
C.Strep agalactiae
D.Clostridium difficile
A

C

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57
Q 
May cause dental caries
A.Shigella sonnei
B.Treponema pallium
C.Escherichia coli
D.Strep mutans
A

D

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58
Q 
May cause endocarditis
A.Shigella sonnei
B.Strep viridans
C.Escherichia coli
D.Staph aureus
A

B

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59
Q 
Pseudomembranous colitis
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.Staph aureus
C.Strep agalactiae
D.Clostridium difficile
A

D

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60
Q 
Gas gangrene
A.Clostridium perfringens
B.Staph aureus
C.Strep agalactiae
D.Clostridium difficile
A

A

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61
Q 
Blocks GABA, may cause lock jaw
A.Chlamydia trachomatis
B.Clostridium tetani
C.Strep agalactiae
D.Staph aureus
A

B

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62
Q 
May cause flaccid paralysis & may be obtained from canned goods
A.Campylobacter jejuni
B.Staph aureus
C.Strep agalactiae
D.Clostridium botulinum
A

D

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63
Q 
May cause volcanic eruption @ crypts
A.Clostridium perfringens
B.Staph aureus
C.Strep agalactiae
D.Clostridium difficile
A

D

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64
Q

Most frightening mode of transmission for B.anthracis

A

Inhalational

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65
Q 
Tap water, non invasive, rice watery stool
A. Salmonella typhi
B. Vibrio cholera
C. Campylobacter jejuni
D. Shigella sonnei
A

B

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66
Q

Toxin of cholera affects this molecule

A

CFTR

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67
Q

Enterocolitis of __ may mimic cholera

A

C.jejuni

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68
Q 
Which enteropathogenic bacteria has extreme resistance to gastric acidity?
A.Salmonella
B.Shigella
C.E.coli
D.V.cholera
A

B

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69
Q

Main mechanism of Shiga toxin

A

Inhibits eukaryotic protein synthesis –> death

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70
Q

Causative agents of typhoid fever

A

Salmonella paratyphi

Salmonella typhi

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71
Q 
False about Salmonella
A.Rose spots
B.Dysentery
C.Mimic appendicitis
D.Gall bladder colonization
A

B

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72
Q 
Shiga like toxin
A.EIEC
B.ETEC
C.EHEC
D.EAEC
A

C

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73
Q 
Invasive but no toxin
A.EIEC
B.ETEC
C.EHEC
D.EAEC
74
Q 
Cholera like toxin
A.EIEC
B.ETEC
C.EHEC
D.EAEC
75
Q 
Unique attachment pattern
A.EIEC
B.ETEC
C.EHEC
D.EAEC
76
Q

Enteropathogenic bacteria that makes macrophages foamy. Usually seen post mortem

A

Tropheryma whippeli

77
Q

This mycobacterium is usually found in unpasteurized milk.

A

Mycobacterium bovis

78
Q

Langhans type giant cell has what nuclei shape?

A

Horseshoe-shaped

79
Q

Cervical lymphadenopathy seen at TB patients

80
Q 
Fungus balls
A.Aspergillus
B.Cryptococcus
C.Candida
D.Histoplasma
81
Q 
Causes meningoencephalitis and may come from bird droppings
A.Cryptococcus neoformans
B.Candida albicans
C.Histoplasma capsulatun
D.Exophiala werneckii
82
Q 
Septated hypha @ acute angles
A.Cryptococcus neoformans
B.Candida albicans
C.Histoplasma capsulatun
D.Aspergillus fumigatus
83
Q 
Non-Septated hypha @ right angles
A.Cryptococcus
B.Zygomycosis
C.Histoplasmosis
D.Aspergillosis
84
Q 
Causes oral thrush
A.Cryptococcus neoformans
B.Candida albicans
C.Histoplasma capsulatun
D.Aspergillus fumigatus
85
Q 
Lymphocyte type at fungal infections
A.CD4+ Tcell
B.CD8+ Tcell
C.B cell
D.NK cell
86
Q 
Histoplasmosis is \_\_ mycoses
A.Subcutaneous 
B.Systemic
C.Opportunistic
D.Superficial
87
Q 
Tinea cruris is \_\_ mycoses
A.Subcutaneous 
B.Systemic
C.Cutaneous
D.Superficial
88
Q 
Aspergillosis is \_\_ mycoses
A.Subcutaneous 
B.Systemic
C.Cutaneous
D.Opportunistic
89
Q 
Sporotrichosis is \_\_ mycoses
A.Subcutaneous 
B.Systemic
C.Cutaneous
D.Opportunistic
90
Q 
chancre is sign of \_\_
A.Trichomonas vaginalis
B.Treponema pallidum
C.Chlamydia trachomatis
D.All of the above
91
Q

Differentiate hyperplasia fr hypertrophy. Can these happen together?

A

Hyperplasia - increase in cell number
Hypertrophy - increase in cell size.

Yes.

92
Q

Differentiate necrosis from apoptosis

A

Necrosis:cell death that does not req energy

Apoptosis: cell death that does req energy

93
Q

Differentiate hypoxia fr ischemia

A

Hypoxia-with blood supply but decreased oxygen

Ischemia-no blood, therefore no oxygen and nutrient supply

94
Q 
Which is not a consequence of ischemia?
A.lower ATP
B.ER shrinking
C.lipid deposition
D.clumping of nuclear chromatin
A

B

Swelling dapat

95
Q

A decrease in __ may lead to mitochodrial damage
A.cytosolic Calcium
B.reactive oxygen species
C.oxygen

96
Q

Which is a consequence of mitochondrial permeability transition pore?
A.loss of MM potential
B.oxidative phosphorylation failure
C.apoptosis

A

C

Necrosis dapat

97
Q

When cytochrome c is leaked, what could be released?

98
Q

T or F. Caspases’ release lead to activated apoptotic pathways

99
Q

List three main consequences of loss of Ca homeostasis

A

Membrane damage
Nuclear damage
Lower ATP

100
Q

Which converts superoxide to hydrogen peroxide?
A.superoxide dismutase
B.glutathione peroxidase
C.catalase

101
Q

Which converts hydrogen peroxide to water and oxygen?
A.superoxide dismutase
B.glutathione peroxidase
C.catalase

102
Q

Hydrogen peroxide –> Hydroxyl radical

This is called what reaction?

A

Fenton reaction

103
Q

When macromolecules of the cell are exposed to ROS, __ ensues

104
Q

A decrease in __ and increase in ___ and __ lead to membrane damage

A

Oxygen then cytosolic Ca& ROS

105
Q

Reversible cell injury has what 2 patterns?

A

Cellular swelling

Fatty damage

106
Q

What is karyorrhexis?

A

Nuclear fragmentation

107
Q

What is karyolysis?

A

Nucleus dissolved

108
Q

What is pyknosis?

A

Nuclear shrinkage

109
Q

Differentiate intrinsic apoptosis fr extrinisic apoptosis

A

Intrinsic: c/o mitochondria’s ptoteins & done in those that have DNA damage and misfolded protein

Extrinsic: c/o TNF Receptor family, elim of self-reactive lymphocytes

110
Q

What is steatosis?

A

Lipid accum in cells near those that are necrotic

111
Q

What is anthracosis?

A

Carbon accum may blacken lymph and parencyhma

112
Q

Lipofuscin granules increase with __
A.age
B.weight
C.height

113
Q

Hemosiderin granules have __
A.Ca
B.Fe
C.Mg

114
Q

Differentiate dystrophic calcification fr metastatic calcification

A

Metastatic: with derangement in Ca metab
Dystrophic: no Ca derangement

115
Q 
Strawberry cervix is sign of \_\_
A.Trichomonas vaginalis
B.Treponema pallidum
C.Chlamydia trachomatis
D.All of the above
116
Q 
Fitz-Hugh-Curtis syndrome is a complication of \_\_
A.Trichomonas vaginalis
B.Treponema pallidum
C.Chlamydia trachomatis
D.All of the above
117
Q

Differentiate genital warts from genital ulcers.

A

Genital warts: HPV

Genital ulcers: Herpes

118
Q

Histopathology of lymphogranuloma venereum

A

stellate abscess

119
Q

main compliacation of pelvic inflammatory disease

A

infertility

120
Q

Differentiate exudate fr transudate

A

Exudate - high protein

Transudate - low protein

121
Q

Hallmark of acute inflammation

A

Increased vascular permeability

122
Q

Vasodilation
Increased microvasc permeability
Increased blood viscosity

These are Major changes of __ inflammation

123
Q

Cellular events in acute inflammation: enumerate

A

Leukocyte adhesion
Transmigration
Chemotaxis

124
Q

Most common cause of leukocyte function defect

A

Bone marrow suppression

125
Q

Phagocytosis stimulates oxygen consumption and ROS formation. T or F?

126
Q

Differentiate histamine fr serotonin

A

Serotonin- vasoconstrictor

Histamine- vasodilator

127
Q

Eicosanoids come from __

A

Arachidonic acid

128
Q

Prostaglandin and thromboxane are part of __ pathway
A.cyclooxygenase
B.lipoxygenase
C.both

What is their main difference?

A

Prostaglandin: vasodilator
Thromboxane: vasoconstrictor.

129
Q

How are measles and mumps transmitted?

A

Respiratory droplets

130
Q

Why does a patient with measles have rashes?

A

Vasculitis of small blood vessels

131
Q

Pathognomonic sign of measles. Whitr spots in gingiva –> ulcerated near Stenson’s duct

A

Koplik’s spots

132
Q

The body produces Antibody-mediated immunity to measles in order to prevent reinfection. T or F?

133
Q

In measles, these are lymphoid organs with eosinophilic nuclear and cytoplasmic inclusion bodies

A

Warthin-Finkeldey Cells

134
Q

Most common extrasalivary gland complication of mumps

A

Aseptic meningitis

135
Q 
Mumps affects the ff organs except
A.testes and ovary
B.salivary gland
C.pancreas
D.heart
136
Q

Another name for killed vaccine of polio

A

Salk formalin-fixed

137
Q

Another name for live attenuated vaccine of polio

A

Sabin oral

138
Q

Poliovirus only affects humans by binding to this epithelial adhesion molecule. Identify the molecule

139
Q

In poliomyelitis infection, what part/s of the body get denervated usually?

A

Muscles of lower limbs

140
Q

In viral hemorrhagic fever, humans are definitive host. T or F?

A

F.incidental hosts lang tayo

141
Q 
Which does not happen in vascular dilatation?
A.increased blood pressure
B.petechiae
C.disseminated intravascular coagulation
D.shock
A

A

Decreased dapat

142
Q

Reactivation of VZV in ___ is called herpes zoster

A

Dorsal root ganglia

143
Q

Transmission route of Varicella

A

Respiratory aerosols

144
Q

Complication of Varicella where half of the face sags

A

Ramsay-Hunt syndrome

145
Q

When Varicella infects __, dermatomal pain ensues

A

Trigeminal ganglia

146
Q

What infection of VZV is notably seen in immunocompromised?

A

Hemorrhagic or atypical measles

147
Q

CMV: enlargement of cells, esp __ & __

A

Monocytes

Dendritic cells

148
Q

Congenital CMV: similar to __

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

149
Q

What do cells infected with CMV look like?

A

OWL’S EYE

Enlarged wiith large purple intranuclear inclusions surrounded by clear halo and basophilic inclusions.

150
Q

Transmission route of EBV

A

Kissing/saliva

151
Q

Possible malignant neoplasias obtained from EBV

A

Burkitt lymphoma

Nasopharyngeal carcinoma

152
Q

Causatie agent (viral) of infectious mononucleosis

A

Epstein Barr Virus

153
Q

Monospot test is used to diagnose EBV. What is this test?

A

Positive heterophil antibody reaction

154
Q

Two GI accessory organs affected by EBV

A

Liver and spleen

155
Q

Leukotrienes and lipoxins are part of lipoxygenase pathway. What is their main diff?

A

Leukotrienes: promote WBC recruitment
Lipoxins: inhibit WBC recruitment

156
Q

main role of C3b

A

facilitate phagocytosis

157
Q

Which is false?
A.Bradykinin decreases vascular permeability
B.Factor XII activates a proteolytic cascade leading to thrombin activation
C.Thrombin cleaves soluble fibrinogen to insoluble clot

A

A

increases dapat

158
Q 
inflammation where there is outpouring of thin fluid fr plasma/mesothelial cells
A.ulcer
B.serous
C.purulent
D.fibrinous
159
Q 
inflammation where there is PUS. usually caused by pyogenic bacteria
A.ulcer
B.serous
C.purulent
D.fibrinous
160
Q 
inflammation where there is eosinophilic meshwork of threads
A.ulcer
B.serous
C.purulent
D.fibrinous
161
Q 
inflammation where there is local defect of excavation @ surface, due to shedding of necrotic tissue
A.ulcer
B.serous
C.purulent
D.fibrinous
162
Q

hallmark of chronic inflammation

A

tissue destruction

163
Q

dominant cell @ chronic inflammation; activaed ones responsible for tissue injury

A

macrophages

164
Q

steps by which macrophages accumulate in tissues

A

recruitment
proliferation
immobilization

165
Q

What cells release mediators of inflammation?

A

mast cells

166
Q

focal accumulation of activated macrophages hat develop an epitheloid appearance

167
Q

What does acute phase protein do?

A

help clear necrotic cell nucei

with role in synthesizing hepatocytes

168
Q

define leukemoid reaction

A

increase in number of immmature lymphocytes

169
Q

differentiate issue repair from tissue regeneration from tissue replacement

A

tissue repair: requires BM presence
tissue regeneration: replace with same cell types
tissue replacement: replace with connective tissue

170
Q

this growth factor inhibits collage degradation

A

transforming beta growth factor

171
Q

type of genes involved in tissue repair.

172
Q

two components needed for extracellular membrane formation

A

interstitial matrix & basal membrane

173
Q 
provides tensile strength for ECM
A.elastin
B.fibrillin
C.laminin
D.collagen
174
Q 
alignment of endothelial cells
A.elastin
B.fibrillin
C.laminin
D.collagen
175
Q

differentiate proteoglycan fr hyaluronan

A

hyaluronan: in-charge of turgor and lubrication of CT
proteoglycan: in-charge of structure of CT

176
Q

Hallmark of tissue healing

A

granulation tissue

177
Q

phases of wound healing: enumerate

A 
injury
coagulation
early inflamm
late inflamm
proliferation
remodeling
178
Q

which has less injury?
A.healng by 1st intention
B.healing by 2nd inteNtion

179
Q

Enumerate pathologic aspects of healing

A

deficient scar formation
excessive repair components
Granulation is exuberant
contractures

180
Q

wound strength after healing

PH 122 (17 decks)

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