Final Exam Prep Flashcards

1
Q

distinguish the difference between ionic, polar covalent, and nonpolar covalent bonds

A

ionic bonds: involves complete transfer of electrons
polar covalent bond: unequal sharing of electrons (such as H2O molecules)
nonpolar covalent bond: equal sharing of electrons

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2
Q

active transport uses ____?

A

ATP

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3
Q

describe the polarity of H2O and what its attractions are

A
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4
Q

describe the polarity of H2O and what its attractions are

A
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5
Q

describe the building blocks and 3 categories carbohydrates can be split into

A

saccharides
1: Monosaccharides (glucose)
2: Disaccharides (sucrose)
>2: Polysaccharides (glycogen)

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6
Q

what is the general function of carbohydrates? what is the purpose of glucose vs glycogen?

A

energy supply

glucose: metabolic energy
glycogen: energy storage

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7
Q

is carbohydrates hydrophilic or phobic?

A

hydrophilic

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8
Q

what are the building blocks for Lipids?

A

glycerol and fatty acids

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9
Q

what are three classes of lipids? what are their functions?

A

phospholipids (cell membranes)
triglycerides (energy storage)
steroids (cell membrane stabilization; hormones)

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10
Q

are lipids hydrophilic or phobic?

A

hydrophobic

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11
Q

describe whether the heads and tails of phospholipids are hydrophilic or phobic

A

heads: hydrophilic
tails: hydrophobic

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12
Q

describe the positioning of the two layers of phospholipids that make up the bilayer

A

heads point outward of each other, and the tails stay touching each other

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13
Q

what are the building blocks of proteins?

A

amino acids

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14
Q

what are the covalent bonds amino acids are linked by?

A

peptide bonds

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15
Q

what are three types of protein chains

A

2: dipeptide
3: tripeptide
>2: polypeptide

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16
Q

what level structure of proteins are amino acids considered?

A

primary structure

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17
Q

what structure are pleats or coils of protein chains considered?

A

secondary structure

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18
Q

where is RNA found?

A

directly outside the nucleus

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19
Q

what is the function of RNA?

A

it carries out the orders for protein synthesis issued by DNA

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20
Q

molecules always want to move from ______ concentration gradient to ______ concentration gradient

A

higher to lower concentration

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21
Q

what is simple diffusion?

A

molecules moving along their concentration gradient

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22
Q

what is facilitated diffusion?

A

involves channels or carriers to facilitate moving proteins that are too polar or highly charged to move through the lipid bilayer
Requires ATP

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23
Q

describe the difference between channel and carrier mediated facilitated diffusion

A

channel: has a gate that allows or obstructs molecules to pass
carrier: changes shape to allow or obstruct

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24
Q

active transport is when…?

A

molecules are actively transported against their concentration gradient using ATP

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25
what is the function of ribosomes?
site of protein synthesis
26
what is the function of rough endoplasmic reticulum?
folds and packages proteins
27
what is the function of smooth endoplasmic reticulum?
site for lipid synthesis
28
what is the function of Golgi apparatus?
modifies, concentrates, and packages vesicles of proteins and lipids received from rough ER and smooth ER "traffic director"
29
what is transcription?
DNA information encoded into mRNA
30
what is translation?
information from mRNA is decoded and used to assemble proteins
31
what is mRNA?
"half DNA molecule" | carries coded information into cytoplasm
32
what is rRNA?
ribosomes that assists in protein synthesis
33
what is tRNA?
amino acids to ribosomes which decode mRNA message
34
where can simple epithelia be found?
anywhere absorption, secretion, and filtration occur
35
what organ can simple squamous be found?
lung tissue
36
what organ can simple cuboidal be found?
kidneys
37
what organ can simple columnar be found?
digestive tract
38
where can stratified epithelium be found?
skin
39
where can transitional epithelia be found?
anywhere where stretching needs to occur such as urinary organs
40
where can pseudostratified columnar epithelium be found
respiratory tract
41
what secretory methods are used in merocrine glands and where can they be found?
exocytosis | pancreas
42
what secretory methods are used in apocrine glands and where can they be found?
pinch of portions of the cell | mammary glands/ pheromone secretions in groin and armpit
43
what secretory methods are used in holocrine glands and where can they be found?
release entire cell | sebaceous (oil) glands
44
what is the function of areolar tissue?
binds epithelial or muscle tissues to underlying structures | also provides blood supply
45
what is the function of dense connective tissue?
makes up ligaments and tendons
46
what is the function of reticular connective tissue?
framework for lymphatic structures | such as liver, spleen, and lymph nodes
47
where can hyaline cartilage be found?
most abundant | articular surfaces of bones, costal cartilages
48
where can elastic cartilage be found?
ears
49
where can fibrocartilage be found?
intervertebral discs and menisci of knee
50
what other two abnormal structures make up connective tissue of the body?
bone and blood
51
what are the two types of glands that sudoriferous glands can work as?
apocrine (pheromones) | merocrine (non-odorous sweat glands)
52
what type of gland is the sebaceous glands?
holocrine secretion of sebum
53
what are five functions of the skin?
``` protection body temp regulation cutaneous sensation (pain) blood reservoir excretion (ridding of salt and water) ```
54
what is endosteum and periosteum?
lines the marrow cavity | lines the outside of bone
55
how does intramembranous ossification occur?
direct conversion of mesenchymal tissue into bone | occurs in flat bones such as skull and clavicle
56
how does endochondral ossification occur?
within long bones
57
synarthrosis joints are ?
immovable
58
amphiarthrosis joints are ?
slightly moveable
59
diarthrosis joints are ?
freely moveable
60
shoulder and hip are examples of what?
ball in socket joints
61
the ulnar/radial joint is what?
pivot joint
62
the humeroulnar joint is what?
hinge joint
63
the intercarpal joints are what?
plane joints
64
the knuckle joint is what?
condylar joint
65
the thumb to wrist joint is what?
saddle joint
66
what does sarcoplasm refer to?
cytoplasm of muscle cell
67
what is the cell membrane of the muscle cell called?
sarcolemma
68
what is the function of sarcoplasmic reticulum?
mainly the storage of calcium in order for it to be released for contraction of muscle
69
what is the function of T-tubules
synchronize the release of calcium from the sarcoplasmic reticulum due to AP flowing down into the muscle cell
70
what is a sarcomere?
a structural unit of a myofibril in striated muscle
71
what is the H zone?
myosin only
72
what is the I band?
Actin and Z line only
73
what is the A band?
full length of myosin including where actin overlaps
74
what is the M line?
center-most section of the myosin
75
two other names for muscle cell
myocyte or muscle fibers
76
explain how muscle fibers are stimulate to contract by describing events that occur at the neuromuscular junction
1. motor neuron fires an action potential down its axon 2. voltage-gated Ca channels open, releasing Ca into synaptic vesicles filled with Acetocholine 3. Influx of Ca triggers vesicles to migrate out into the synaptic cleft through process of exocytosis
77
describe the steps of a cross bridge cycle, including relaxation
1. The action potential that travels along the sarcolemma eventually ends up going down the T tubules and signals the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release its calcium. 2. calcium then binds to the troponin of the actin, which allows the actin to change shape and expose its “active sites” 3. myosin can now bind to these active sites (cross-bridge) and allow for contraction of the individual myofibril 4. Phosphate is released from the head of the myosin allowing the myosin to contract, after the power-stroke it also releases ADP 5. ATP is required to release myosin head from actin. (during death, without ATP production, rigormortis occurs) 6. ATPase breaks down ATP from myosin, returning it to Phosphate and ADP. The process of hydrolysis (breaking down) the ATP creates energy and cocks back the myosin head, leaving the myosin ready for another contraction 7. titan is elastic and allows for myosin to spring back to normal state
78
at resting membrane potential, what is more negative and positive, what is the negative charge exactly at rest?
inside it more negative, outside is more positive | -70mV at rest
79
what are graded potentials?
depolarization and hyperpolarization
80
describe depolarization and what allows it to occur
membrane becomes less negative than resting potential | occurs when gated Na+ channels open. It creates a more positive charge within the cell
81
describe hyperpolarization and when does it occur?
membrane becomes more negative than resting potential occurs when influx of K+ leaves the cell. The anionic proteins within the cell and the influx of K+ leaving creates a more negative charge within the cell membrane
82
what is the voltage threshold that allows for AP to form?
-55 mV
83
How does depolarization occur to produce AP?
neurons want to reach a voltage of more than -55mV in order to produce an AP Spatial or temporal summation can occur in order to reach that threshold by pumping Sodium into the postsynaptic terminal. Once enough sodium (positive ions) is met, voltage-gated Na+ open and allows for depolarization and formation of AP
84
how does repolarization occur?
Na+ channels close, and voltage-gated K+ channels open
85
why does hyperpolarization occur?
because K+ influxes out of the cell, and the anionic proteins remain inside, it causes a greater negative charge than it began with
86
how does the cell membrane reach resting potential again?
Na-K pump uses ATP to force each ion against their concentration gradient to reach equilibrium
87
what occurs during absolute refractory period and can another AP be produced?
depolarization occurs and repolarization occurs | no further AP can occur
88
what occurs during relative refractory period?
hyperpolarization occurs and redistribution of Na and K begins to occur AP can occur only with a stronger stimulus
89
what side of the brain is the primary motor cortex? what primary somato-sensory cortex?
motor - pre central gyrus | sensory - post-central gyrus
90
name the subdivisions and functions of the diencephalon
thalamus: gateway for sensory impulses except smell hypothalamus: responsible for homeostatic control; Neuro/endo systems
91
note the functions of the midbrain
maintains posture superior colliculus responsible for visual reflexes inferior colliculus responsible for hearing
92
note the functions of the pons
relays sensory impulses to thalamus | center controls rhythm of breathing
93
note the function of the medulla oblongata
vital reflex center for cardiac, respiratory, and vasometer non-vital reflex for coughing, sneezing, swallowing and vomiting
94
what is the main function of the cerebellum?
movement; information related to body position refining and coordinating muscle activity coordinating complex movements
95
how do the meninges and cerebrospinal fluid protect the brain?
meninges - act as shock-absorber/ keep brain in place | cerebrospinal fluid - act as shock-absorber/ reduces weight of brain
96
how does the blood-brain barrier protect the brain?
maintains the right ionic balance within the brain and blocks substances that would disrupt essential neural functions
97
define endoneurium
tissue surrounding individual neural axon
98
define perineurium
tissue surrounding bundle of neural axons (fasicle)
99
define epineurium
tissue surrounding bundle of fascicles
100
ventral root contains_____
motor fibers
101
dorsal roots contain_____
sensory fibers
102
ventral and dorsal root connect through a foramen in the vertebra to form_____
spinal nerve
103
outside the foramen, ventral and dorsal roots join together and form _______
small dorsal ramus and large ventral ramus
104
what is a plexus?
interlacing nerve networks of various rami
105
what are the names of all the various plexuses
cervical, brachial, lumbar, and sacral