Final Exam: Grevemeyer's Articles Questions Flashcards

1
Q
  1. Which statement regarding limb conformation in foals with angular limb deformities is correct?
    1. With valgus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of outward rotation of the feet
    2. With varus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of outward rotation of the feet
    3. With valgus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of inward rotation of the feet
    4. Rotational deformities are uncommon in foals with angular limb deformities
A

a. With valgus deformities, there is usually a certain degree of outward rotation of the feet

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT part of the multi-factorial complex implicated in development of angular limb deformities in foals?
    1. Abnormal fetal limb positioning
    2. Placentitis
    3. Hypoplasia of the proximal sesamoid bones (Should be hypoplasia of the CUBOIDAL bones)
    4. Growth plate trauma
A

Hypoplasia of the proximal sesamoid bones (Should be hypoplasia of the CUBOIDAL bones)

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3
Q
  1. Which statement regarding diagnosis of angular limb deformities in foals is true?
    1. Regardless of the degree and location of the deformity, all foals should have their limbs radiographed at the initial examination
    2. The limb can usually be manually straightened in foals with asymmetric physeal or epiphyseal growth
    3. The limb can usually be manually straightened in foals with hypoplasia of the carpal bones
    4. Radiography is useful in determining the degree of rotational deformity
A

c. The limb can usually be manually straightened in foals with hypoplasia of the carpal bones

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4
Q
  1. Which statement regarding the diagnostic workup in foals with tarsal angular limb deformities is correct?
    1. A dorsoplantar radiographic view is especially useful in identifying tarsal bone hypoplasia
    2. A lateromedial radiographic view is especially useful in identifying tarsal bone hypoplasia
    3. Clinicians should rely heavily on a dorsoplantar radiographic view for exact identification and evaluation of the location and degree of tarsal angular limb deformities
    4. Concurrent rotational deformities are best identified using radiography
A

a. A dorsoplantar radiographic view is especially useful in identifying tarsal bone hypoplasia

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5
Q
  1. Which of the following is the most likely cause of carpal angular deformities in newborn foals?
    1. Asymmetric growth at the distal radial growth plate
    2. Periarticular laxity
    3. Delayed ossification of the epiphysis
    4. Asymmetric growth at the distal radial growth plate and the epiphyseal growth cartilage
A

b. Periarticular laxity

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6
Q
  1. Which statement regarding congenital hypothyroidism is correct?
    1. It has been implicated as a cause of uneven physeal growth
    2. It has been implicated as a cause of delayed ossification of the carpal and tarsal cuboidal bones
    3. It has been implicated as a cause of delayed epiphyseal ossification
    4. It is often associated with abnormal fetal limb positioning
A

b. It has been implicated as a cause of delayed ossification of the carpal and tarsal cuboidal bones

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7
Q
  1. Foals with tarsal bone hypoplasia tend to present with:
    1. Valgus deformity
    2. Varus deformity
    3. Valgus deformity and straight-hocked appearance
    4. Valgus deformity and sickle-hocked appearance
A

d. Valgus deformity and sickle-hocked appearance

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8
Q
  1. Which statement regarding physical exam of foals with angular limb deformities is true?
    1. Angular limb deformities are often associated with some degree of lameness in the affected limb(s)
    2. Angular limb deformities are normally associated with heat, pain, and swelling at the site of the deformity
    3. In most cases, foals with angular limb deformities are not lame
    4. A and B
A

c. In most cases, foals with angular limb deformities are not lame

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9
Q
  1. Which statement regarding foals with cuboidal bone hypoplasia is correct?
    1. If left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplasia results in a manually irreducible deformity within 2 weeks
    2. If left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplasia results in a manually irreducible deformity within 2 days
    3. Manual reducibility of this condition is not time dependent
    4. This condition is never manually reducible
A

a. If left untreated, cuboidal bone hypoplasia results in a manually irreducible deformity within 2 weeks

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10
Q
  1. Angular limb deformities most often originate within the carpal, tarsal, ____________ joint regions
    1. Or distal interphalangeal
    2. Or proximal interphalangeal
    3. Or metacarpo- or metatarsophalangeal
    4. Or distal interphalangeal, or metacarpo- or metatarsophalangeal
A

c. Or metacarpo- or metatarsophalangeal

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11
Q
  1. Which statement regarding management of congenital angular limb deformities is correct?
  2. In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution is unlikely.
  3. In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution occurs within 2 to 4 weeks of life.
  4. In most foals born with angular limb deformities due to carpal or tarsal bone hypoplasia, spontaneous resolution occurs within 2 to 4 weeks of life.
  5. In most foals born with angular limb deformities due to carpal or tarsal bone hypoplasia, spontaneous resolution occurs within 4 to 8 weeks of life
A

B. In most foals born with mild to moderate angular limb deformities, spontaneous resolution occurs within 2 to 4 weeks of life.

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12
Q
  1. To avoid development of a contracted foot in a foal, glue-on shoes should not be left on for longer than
  2. 2 months.
  3. 3 months.
  4. 2 weeks.
  5. none of the above
A

2 weeks.

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13
Q
  1. To allow rapid growth in young foals, tube casts should be changed at _______ intervals.
  2. 3- to 4-day
  3. I 0 - to 14-day
  4. 3- to 4-week
  5. 4- to 6-week
A

B. 10 - to 14-day

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14
Q
  1. Corrective ostectomy or osteotomy is
  2. preferred in treating tarsal bone hypoplasia
  3. preferred in treating severe carpal or tarsal bone hypoplasia.
  4. generally performed before cessation of physeal growth.
  5. generally performed after cessation of physeal growth.
A

D. generally performed after cessation of physeal growth.

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15
Q
  1. According to a recent experimental study, HCPTE was
  2. More effective than stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity.
  3. Less effective than stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity.
  4. As effective as stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity.
  5. As effective as unlimited pasture exercise in correcting carpal angular limb deformit y.
A

C. As effective as stall confinement alone in correcting carpal angular limb deformity.

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16
Q
  1. Which statement regarding treatment of foals with carpal bone hypoplasia is correct?
  2. Foals with carpal bone hypoplasia often require surgical treatment after an initial period of splint bandaging.
  3. Foals with valgus deformities caused by carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with confinement and by applying a glue-on shoe with extension to the inside.
  4. Foals with valgus deformities caused by carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with confinement and by applying a glue-on shoe with extension to the outside
  5. Foals with carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with splint bandaging or tube casting.
A

D. Foals with carpal bone hypoplasia should be treated with splint bandaging or tube casting.

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17
Q
  1. A 6-week-old foal with a significant varus deformity caused by asymmetric growth at the distal metatarsal growth plate in the left hindlimb is best treated with
  2. splint bandaging and confinement .
  3. confinement.
  4. corrective trimming and, possibly, shoeing as well as confinement.
  5. surgery, corrective trimming, and, possibly, shoeing as well as confinement .
A

C. corrective trimming and, possibly, shoeing as well as confinement.

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18
Q
  1. Which statement regarding HCPTE (hemicircumferential periosteal transection and elevation) is true?
  2. HCPTE temporarily retards longitudinal growth on the convex aspect of the deformity.
  3. HCPTE temporarily increases longitudinal growth on the concave aspect of the deformity.
  4. Foals that have undergone HCPTE require a second surgery to prevent overcorrection of the deformity.
  5. HCPTE exerts its effect for approximately 3 months.
A

B. HCPTE temporarily increases longitudinal growth on the concave aspect of the deformity.

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19
Q
  1. Which statement regarding TPB (transphyseal bridging) is correct?
  2. TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, miniature foals, or foals with significant limb deformity after the rapid growth phase.
  3. TPB is primarily used in foals with diaphyseal deformities.
  4. Contrary to HCPTE, overcorrection has not been reported after TPB.
  5. TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, miniature foals, or foals with diaphyseal deformities.
A

A. TPB is primarily used in young foals with severe angular deformities, miniature foals, or foals with significant limb deformity after the rapid growth phase.

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20
Q
  1. Postoperative treatment of foals using HCPTE includes
  2. free pasture exercise because it tends to increase the rate of correction.
  3. confinement.
  4. splint bandaging.
  5. none of the above
A

B. confinement

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21
Q
  1. The most thorough examination of equine caudal cheek teeth is obtained by
    1. visual examination in a sedated horse by means of a speculum
    2. visual examination in an unsedated horse with the tongue withdrawn
    3. digital palpation in a sedated horse with the use of a speculum
    4. digital palpation of the teeth through the cheeks
A

C. digital palpation in a sedated horse with the use of a speculum

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22
Q
  1. Which cheek teeth are most commonly affected by periapical abscess formation?
    1. second upper and third lower
    2. fourth upper and third lower
    3. fifth and sixth lower
    4. fifth upper and fourth lower
A

fourth upper and third lower

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23
Q
  1. The most common clinical sign associated with periapical infection of the fourth upper cheek teeth is
    1. swelling of the rostral maxillary area
    2. swelling of the caudal maxillary area
    3. bilateral epistaxis
    4. unilateral, malodorous, purulent nasal discharge
A

unilateral, malodorous, purulent nasal discharge

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24
Q
  1. The most common clinical sign associated with early periapical infection of the third lower cheek tooth is
    1. quidding
    2. refusal to take the bit
    3. swelling or sinus formation of the ventral mandible
    4. halitosis
A

swelling or sinus formation of the ventral mandible

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25
Q
  1. In a 4 year old horse, focal thinning and distension of the mandible under the third cheek tooth
    1. is always a sign of perapical infection; the affected tooth should be treated
    2. is always followed by the development of a purulent sinus tract
    3. is a pathognomonic sign of bit damage
    4. may be a normal development feature if it occurs bilaterally and is not accompanied by sinus tracts
A

may be a normal development feature if it occurs bilaterally and is not accompanied by sinus tracts

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26
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning dental radiography in horses is true?
    1. powerful, fixed radiographic equipment is required
    2. general anesthesia is necessary
    3. there is slight variation in radiographic appearance among horses
    4. interpretation of early radiographic changes can be extremely difficult
A

interpretation of early radiographic changes can be extremely difficult

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27
Q
  1. In a Shetland pony, the optimum beam projection angle for radiographic examination of the spices of the mandibular cheek teeth is obtained via a
    1. straight lateral radiograph
    2. dorsoventral radiograph
    3. laterooblique radiograph of 40 to 45
    4. laterooblique radiograph of 30 to 35
A

laterooblique radiograph of 40 to 45

(laterooblique radiograph of 30 to 35 = (Maxillary))

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28
Q
  1. Which of the following statements concerning equine dentistry is true?
    1. a sclerotic area often develops around a lytic, infected tooth apex
    2. the lamina dura is the radiographic outline of the infundibulum
    3. loss of the lamina dura always indicated dental infection
    4. a radiolucent blunt appearance of the apex of a recently erupted tooth is definitive evidence of periapical infection
A

a sclerotic area often develops around a lytic, infected tooth apex

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29
Q
  1. After the development of chronic shear mouth, infection of the perapical tissue occurs via
    1. the infundibulum
    2. the pulp cavities
    3. hematogenous spread
    4. the periodontal membrane
A

the pulp cavities

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30
Q
  1. The term diastema is defined as
    1. the presence of abnormally large spaces between adjacent teeth
    2. the presence of additional abnormal cheek teeth
    3. rotation or displacement of teeth
    4. the presence of deep cavities in infundibula
A

the presence of abnormally large spaces between adjacent teeth

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31
Q
  1. When do deciduous premolars normally erupt in horses?
    1. Birth or shortly after
    2. At 2 years of age
    3. At 3 years of age
    4. At 4 years of age
A

Birth or shortly after

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32
Q

The difference in width between the

upper and lower jaw is known as

A

Anisognathia

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33
Q

The technical term for “parrot mouth” is

A

brachygnathia

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34
Q
  1. Retained deciduous incisors:
    1. May be associated with discomfort
    2. Can cause caudal displacement of the erupting permanent incisors
    3. Can be removed in a standing patient
    4. All of the above
A

All of the above

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35
Q
  1. Canine teeth:
    1. Are usually more problematic in mares and should be removed
    2. May irritate the eruption site
    3. Are synonymous with wolf teeth
    4. None of the above
A

May irritate the eruption site

36
Q
  1. Deciduous premolar caps:
    1. May cause discomfort
    2. Don’t occur in fillies and mares
    3. Are also known as wolf teeth
    4. None of the above
A

May cause discomfort

37
Q
  1. In regards to cheek teeth, sharp dental points and overgrowths:
    1. May traumatize the cheeks or tongue
    2. Have been associated with bitting problems
    3. Require floating
    4. All of the above
A

All of the above

38
Q
  1. Eruption cysts:
    1. Are not detectable on radiographs
    2. Are associated with eruption of permanent premolars
    3. Do not occur on the maxilla
    4. All of the above
A

Are associated with eruption of permanent premolars

39
Q
  1. Wolf teeth may:
    1. Cause pain due to bit contact
    2. Not be present in all of the dental arcades
    3. Not erupt
    4. All of the above
A

All of the above

40
Q
  1. In regards to a dental examination:
    1. Wetting hands and instruments can reduce irritation to the horses mouth
    2. Wearing examination gloves helps minimize contamination of the clinician’s skin
    3. A bright light source facilitates most procedures
    4. All of the above
A

All of the above

41
Q
  1. Aggercan, a proteoglycan, provides:
    1. A scaffolding for bony remodeling
    2. Compressive stiffness to articular cartilage
    3. A and B
    4. None of the above
A

Compressive stiffness to articular cartilage

42
Q
  1. Glycosaminoglycans in articular cartilage:
    1. Serve as building blocks for proteoglycans such as aggrecan
    2. Include chondroitin sulfate
    3. Are typically sulfated
    4. All of the above
A

All of the above

43
Q
  1. Glucosamine is commercially available as
    1. A sulfate form
    2. A hydrochloride form
    3. N-aceytl-D-glucosamine
    4. All of the above
A

All of the above

44
Q
  1. A few research trials involving a glucosamine/chondrotinin sulfate combination product have:
    1. Shown a beneficial effect in treating horses with degenerative joint disease
    2. Shown that these products do not have a beneficial effect
    3. Demonstrated significant changes in clinical measurement (ie physical, hematologic and serum biochemical parameters)
    4. None of the above
A

Shown a beneficial effect in treating horses with degenerative joint disease

45
Q
  1. Oral joint health supplements are popular in the equine industry due to
    1. The high incidence of osteoarthritis
    2. Widespread availability of the products
    3. Interest in complementary and alternative therapies
    4. All of the above
A

All of the above

46
Q
  1. Typical adverse events associated with glucosamine administration in horse include:
    1. GI upset (Vomiting and diarrhea)
    2. Lameness
    3. Urticaria
    4. None of the above
A

None of the above

47
Q
  1. Which statement regarding MSM is correct?
    1. It is a well-studied product, which explains why it is so widely used
    2. It is popular but doesn’t work
    3. It is popular but further research must be conducted to evaluate its efficacy
    4. It is not used in horses, only its metabolite, DMSO is safe
A

It is popular but further research must be conducted to evaluate its efficacy

48
Q
  1. Glucosamine is integral to synthesis of
    1. Keratin sulfate
    2. Chondroitin sulfate
    3. A and B
    4. None of the above
A

A and B

49
Q
  1. Which statement regarding studies of ASU extract use is correct?
    1. No studies have evaluated its use in horses
    2. Kawcak et all did not find any benefit to using it
    3. It appeared to improve signs of pain and have a disease modifying effect
    4. While it did not improve signs of pain, it appeared to have disease-modifying properties
A

While it did not improve signs of pain, it appeared to have disease-modifying properties

50
Q
  1. The use of ASU in horses:
    1. Has not been reported
    2. Is associated with serious adverse effects, according to the only clinical trial reported to date
    3. Can effectively protect articular cartilage from trauma in performance horses
    4. May be beneficial in horses with OA, particularly if it is combined with clinical sign-modifying agents
A

May be beneficial in horses with OA, particularly if it is combined with clinical sign-modifying agents

51
Q

Definitive diagnosis of progressive ethmoid hematoma in horses is made by

a. endoscopic examination.
b. history and clinical examination.
c. CT.
d. histopathologic examination

A

histopathologic examination

52
Q

What is the prognosis for long-term resolution of progressive ethmoid hematoma?

a. grave no matter what treatment is performed
b. good if treated with intralesional formalin
c. guarded to poor no matter what treatment is performed
d. good if treated with surgical excision and cryotherapy of the base

A

guarded to poor no matter what treatment is performed

53
Q

In what breed have there been no reports of progressive ethmoid hematoma?

a. warmblood
b. Arabian
c. Tennessee walking horse
d. standardbred

A

standardbred

54
Q

What causes the color variations of the progressive ethmoid hematoma when viewed through a video endoscope?

a. age of the lesion
b. fibrosis of the mass
c. type and distribution of hemoglobin pigments
d. none of the above

A

type and distribution of hemoglobin pigments

55
Q

What is the most common clinical sign observed in horses with progressive ethmoid hematoma?

a. coughing
b. epistaxis
c. head pressing
d. respiratory distress

A

epistaxis (mild, intermittent, unilateral epistaxis)

56
Q

Which survey radiographic view most consistently demonstrates the lesion associated with progressive ethmoid hematoma?

a. dorsoventral
b. oblique
c. lateral
d. none of the above

A

lateral

57
Q

Diagnostic differentials after visualization of the mass lesion with the video endoscope should include all of the following except?

a. pulmonary neoplasia
b. nasal trauma
c. nasal neoplasia
d. mycotic rhinitis

A

nasal neoplasia

58
Q

What is the most substantial complication after surgical excision of a progressive ethmoid hematoma?

a. facial deformity
b. respiratory distress
c. wound dehiscence
d. hemorrhage

A

respiratory distress

59
Q

Formalin (10%) treatment for progressive ethmoid hematoma in the horse is administered via which route?

a. intralesional injection
b. intravenous injection
c. intramuscular injection
d. a nasogastric tube placed in the stomach

A

intralesional injection

60
Q

To monitor for recurrence after treatment of a progressive ethmoid hematoma, repeat endoscopic examinations should be performed at ______ intervals for ______.

a. 2-week; 2 years
b. 1-month; 1 year
c. 3- to 6-month; 5 years
d. 1-year; 10 years

A

3- to 6-month; 5 years

61
Q

A solitary, 1-cm diameter mass is identified on the penile body of a 13-year-old appaloosa breeding stallion. The mass is cauliflower-life in appearance, has a narrow base, and does not appear to invade the penile tunic. The regional lymph nodes are not enlarged. Which of the following procedures would be most appropriate in this case?

  1. Wait and recheck the mass in 6 months, and then remove the mass if it has enlarged.
  2. Perform an en bloc resection because the tumor has likely metastasized.
  3. Perform a local excision or circumferential posthectomy (reefing)
  4. Perform a phallectomy immediately.
A

Perform a local excision or circumferential posthectomy (reefing)

62
Q
  1. Phallectomy
    1. should be performed when severe preputial lesions are present.
    2. is indicated for horses with severe lesions of the distal penis.
    3. involves the removal of a circumferential ring of preputial tissue.
    4. should not be performed on geldings.
A

is indicated for horses with severe lesions of the distal penis.

63
Q
  1. Circumferential posthectomy (reefing)
    1. is performed only for severe, infiltrative lesions of the prepuce and penis.
    2. is associated with a poor prognosis when compared with other surgical techniques for external genital tumors.
    3. should be performed only as a salvage procedure in stallions.
    4. involves the removal of a circumferential ring of preputial tissue.
A

involves the removal of a circumferential ring of preputial tissue.

64
Q
  1. En bloc resection and penile retroversion
    1. are warranted for the treatment of horses with extensive lesions of the penis and/or prepuce with metastasis.
    2. involve the resection of only the distal penis, including the glans.
    3. are associated with an excellent prognosis.
    4. should not be performed on geldings because of the change in urination behavior.
A

are warranted for the treatment of horses with extensive lesions of the penis and/or prepuce with metastasis.

65
Q
  1. A 15-year-old American paint gelding is presented for severe preputial swelling with a foul odor. There are multiple SCC lesions on the penis and prepuce. The penis feels thickened, and the superficial inguinal lymph nodes are enlarged. Which of the following techniques is indicated?
    1. circumferential posthectomy and lymph node removal
    2. phallectomy
    3. laser ablation of penile and preputial lesions
    4. en bloc resection and penile retroversion with superficial inguinal lymph node removal
A

en bloc resection and penile retroversion with superficial inguinal lymph node removal

66
Q
  1. Local excision of solitary tumors of the equine external genitalia
    1. is usually not possible because of rapid metastasis and invasion of lesions.
    2. Requires general anesthesia.
    3. Can be performed in the standing horse using local or epidural anesthesia
    4. Is associated with a high cure rate for the treatment of horses with coalesced melanomas (dermal melanomatosis)
A

Can be performed in the standing horse using local or epidural anesthesia

67
Q
  1. SCC of the penis with involvement of the urethra
    1. is associated with a better prognosis for long-term survival than SCC that does not involve the urethra.
    2. is associated with a poorer prognosis for long-term survival than SCC that does not involve the urethra.
    3. necessitates immediate circumferential posthectomy.
    4. has no effect on the prognosis for long-term survival of the horse.
A

is associated with a poorer prognosis for long-term survival than SCC that does not involve the urethra.

68
Q
  1. Laser vaporization of external urogenital tumors
    1. has been successful for the treatment of horses with precancerous lesions.
    2. is associated with a high risk of complications and should not be attempted.
    3. does not require adequate surgical margins because the heat from the laser destroys all tumor cells.
    4. is commonly performed using an Nd:YAG laser.
A

has been successful for the treatment of horses with precancerous lesions.

69
Q
  1. Incomplete tumor excision
    1. is associated with a transient decrease in proliferation of residual tumor cells and metastases.
    2. is associated with a transient increase in proliferation of residual tumor cells and metastases.
    3. has no effect on the kinetics of remaining cells.
    4. is easily avoided when debulking tumors.
A

is associated with a transient increase in proliferation of residual tumor cells and metastases.

70
Q
  1. Perioperative administration of anticancer drugs
    1. is not advised because of the high risk of wound dehiscence.
    2. is not effective in treating horses with tumors of the external genitalia.
    3. decreases the efficacy of the drugs because residual tumor cells are resistant to anticancer drugs.
    4. optimizes the efficacy of the anticancer drugs against residual tumor cells
A

is not advised because of the high risk of wound dehiscence.

71
Q
  1. In horses, urinary calculi
    1. Are more common in males
    2. Are more common in females
    3. Are equally common in males and females
    4. Do not occur
A

Are more common in males

72
Q
  1. 5-FU ointment is used in horses to treat
    1. Habronemiasis
    2. Fungal infections
    3. SCC
    4. None of the above
A

SCC

73
Q
  1. Which of the following is most useful is diagnosing urolithiasis in horses?
    1. Ultrasonography
    2. Radiography
    3. Endoscopy
    4. Thermography
A

Endoscopy

74
Q
  1. In male horses, the preferred surgical approach to the urethral lumen is
    1. Ventral midline
    2. Dorsal midline
    3. Lateral longitudinal
    4. Ventral transverse
A

Ventral midline

75
Q
  1. In male horses, the preferred surgical approach for removal of proximal urethral calculi is
    1. Subischial urethrotomy
    2. Laparocystotomy
    3. Perineal urethrotomy
    4. None of the above
A

Perineal urethrotomy

76
Q
  1. Which of the following structures is NOT normally incised during a perineal urethrotomy?
    1. CSP (corpus spongiosum penis)
    2. Skin and subcutis
    3. Bulbospongiosus muscle
    4. Corpus cavernosum penis
A

Corpus cavernosum penis

77
Q
  1. The preferred surgical treatment of VVR (vesicovaginal reflux) in mares is
    1. Urethrotomy
    2. Urethrostomy
    3. Urethroplasty
    4. Vulvoplasty
A

Urethroplasty

78
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT a urethroplasty technique?
    1. Caslick
    2. Brown
    3. Shires
    4. McKinnon
A

Caslick

79
Q
  1. Which of the following methods can be used to remove cystic calculi in mares?
    1. Laparocystotomy
    2. Manual removal through urethra
    3. Sphincterotomy
    4. All of the above
A

All of the above

80
Q
  1. Which of the following is the preferred therapy for an excessively large cystic calculus in a mare?
    1. Laparocystotomy
    2. Manual removal through urethra
    3. Sphincterotomy
    4. None of the above
A

Laparocystotomy

81
Q

A 4 month old QH filly presented with

persistent serous discharge at the base of the left ear.

An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the filly’s skull

shows the lesion.

What is your diagnosis? Explain the cause of the

clinical findings.

A
82
Q

A 4 month old QH filly presented with

persistent serous discharge at the base of the left ear.

An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the filly’s skull

shows the lesion.

This is a dentigerous cyst. What are the

synonyms for this condition?

A

Heterotopic polyodontia

Ear fistula

Ear tooth

Temporal cyst

Temporal teratoma

83
Q

A 4 month old QH filly presented with

persistent serous discharge at the base of the left ear.

An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the filly’s skull

shows the lesion.

This is a dentigerous cyst. What is the

preferred treatment?

A

Complete excision and primary closure.

The fistulous tract should be followed carefully (B)

and removed with the cyst intact, without cutting through

the mucosal lining. This prevents secondary cellulitis by avoiding contamination with secretions from the cyst.

An intraoperative radiograph (C) obtained after removal

shows the large molar-like tooth (arrow) that was removed.

84
Q

A 4 month old QH filly presented with

persistent serous discharge at the base of the left ear.

An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the filly’s skull

shows the lesion.

This is a dentigerous cyst. What complications are

associated with treating this condition and

how can they be avoided?

A

Complications include:

Facial nerve paralysis

Abnormal ear carriage

Hemorrhage

Calvarium fracture

Continuous drainage

*See image for avoiding these conditions*

85
Q

A 4 month old QH filly presented with

persistent serous discharge at the base of the left ear.

An intraoperative lateral radiograph of the filly’s skull

shows the lesion.

This is a dentagerous cyst.

What is the prognosis for resolution of this problem?

A

With proper surgical technique,

prognosis for complete resolution is EXCELLENT