Final/AP study guide Flashcards

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1
Q

pituitary gland

A

regulates growth and controls other endocrine glands

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2
Q

endocrine system

A

set of glands that secrete hormones into the bloodstream

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3
Q

a. parietal lobes
b. Somatosensory cortex

A

a. receives sensory input for touch and body position
b. receives and processes sensory info from the entire body

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4
Q

cerebral cortex

A

brain’s outer surface of interconnected neural cells

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5
Q

association areas

A

involves higher mental functions like learning, thinking, & speaking

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6
Q

corpus callosum

A

large band of neural fibers connecting the 2 brain hemispheres

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7
Q

Temporal lobe

A

just behind the temples containing the neurons responsible for the sense of hearing and meaningful speech

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8
Q

a. Limbic system
b. Thalamus
c. Hypothalamus
d. Hippocampus
e. Amygdala

A

a. network of structures located below the cerebral cortex, coordinates: emotions (like fear/aggression) basic drives (hunger/sex) formation of episodic memories.

b. processes and transmits movement and sensory info, considered the sensory relay station, takes info from all senses to the cerebral cortex and to higher brain functions that deals with seeing hearing tasting and touching

c. connects with many other regions of the brain and is responsible for conditioning hunger thirst emotions body temp, circadian rhythm, also controls pituitary gland

d. formation organization and storage of memories, connecting certain sensations/emotions to these memories

e. processing emotions and survival responses, coordinates FFFF, influences aggression and fear

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9
Q

a. Neuron
c. Dendrites (part of the neuron)
d. Soma (part of the neuron)
e. Axon (part of the neuron)
f. Myelin Sheath (part of the neuron)
g. Axon Terminals (part of the neuron)

A

a. specialized cell in the nervous system that receives and sends messages with electrochemical signals
c. branch like, receives electrical messages from other cells
d. cell body of the neuron, maintains the cell and keeps the neuron functional
e. carry messages out to other cells
f. protects neuron
g. at end of the axon, sends signal to other neurons

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10
Q

a. describe non-REM Stage 1
b. describe non-REM Stage 2 and sleep spindles
c. describe non REM Stage 3+4
d. REM Sleep also called paradoxical sleep

A

a. wakefulness ->asleep drifting in and out of sleep, theta increases as alpha fades away

b. body temp drops, heart beat slows, shallow breathing, EEG would show first signs of sleep spindles, theta waves, bursts of neural activity

c. delta waves start to appear more, restorative stage, difficult to be awoken, breathing + pulse slows down

d. rapid eye movement and your muscles become almost paralyzed, brain waves look like your awake, dream sleep, gets longer throughout the night.

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11
Q

a. Bottom-Up processing
b. Top-Down processing

A

a. build up from the smallest pieces of sensory information
b. brain applies what it knows and expects to perceive sensory information

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12
Q

Webers Law

A

the size of the JND is directly proportional to the strength of the original stimulus

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13
Q

a. Cornea
b. Iris
c. Pupil
d. Lens
e. Retina

A

a. transparnet curved layer in the front of the eye that bends incoming light rays
b. colored muscle surrounding the pupil that regulates the size of the pupil opening
c. small adjustable opening in the iris that is smaller in bright light and larger in darkness
d. structure behind the pupil that changes to focus on near or far objects by adjusting how light hits the retina
e. light sensitive surface in the back of the eye containing rods and cones

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14
Q

Opponent processing theory

A

the retina has receptors for three opposing pairs of colors; white-black, red-green, and yellow-blue

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15
Q

a. Outer ear
b. Middle ear
c. Inner Ear

A

a. includes the pinna, the auditory canal, and the eardrum
b. includes the three tiny bones, hammer, anvil, and stirrup
c. includes the cochlea, semicircular canals, and vestibular sacs

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16
Q

Gestalt Psychology

A

a subfield of psychology that suggests that the brain forms a perceptual whole that is greater than the sum of its parts

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17
Q

Law of Effect

A

the idea that responses that lead to positive effects are repeated, while responses that lead to negative effects are not repeated

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18
Q

a. Variable-Ratio Schedules
b. Fixed-Interval Schedules
c. Variable-Interval Schedules

A

a. response is reinforced after an unpredictable number of responses
b. response is rewarded only after a specified amount of time has elapsed
c. response is rewarded after an unpredictable amount of time has passed

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19
Q

Stanford-Binet IQ test

A

an early IQ test created by Terman that originally measured intelligence by using mental age

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20
Q

Wechsler Intelligence Scales (WAIS)

A

intelligence was made up a number of different mental abilities rather than a single general intelligence factor

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21
Q

a. Test-Retest Reliability
b. Split-Half Reliability

A

a. best for intelligence administering a test twice at two different points in time
b. comparing the results of one half of a test with the results from the other half

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22
Q

a. Heuristics
b. Representative Heuristics
c. Availability Heuristics

A

a. educated guess based on prior experience (mental shortcuts)
b. comparing present situations to most representative mental prototype
c. decisions on examples and information that immediately spring to mind

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23
Q

Mental Set

A

people use solutions that have worked in the past

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24
Q

a. Phoneme
b. Morpheme

A

a. the smallest unit of sound in a language
b. the smallest unit of meaning in a language

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25
Q

a. Multiple Intelligence Theory
b. Triarchic Theory of Intelligence

A

a. Gardener’s theory that proposes eight different intelligences
b. Sternbergs theory proposes three distinct intelligences (practical, creative, analytical), which work together to make up your overall intelligence

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26
Q

a. Implicit “Unconscious” Memory
b. Procedural Memories
c. Explicit “Conscious” memory
d. Semantic Memory
e. Episodic Memory
f. Prospective Memory

A

a. info that you remember unconsciously and effortlessly
b. how to perform a specific task
c. info that you have to consciously work to remember
d. memories of facts, concepts, names and other general knowledge
e. long term memory that involves the recollection of specific events, situations, and experiences
f. remembering to complete a task in the future

27
Q

a. Retrograde Amnesia
b. Anterograde Amnesia

A

a. cannot remember things that happened before the event that caused their amnesia
b. Condition in which a person is unable to create new memories after an amnesia-inducing event

28
Q

a. Proactive Interference
b. Retroactive Interference

A

a. older (prior) memories interfere with the retrieval of newer memories
b. newer (recent) memories interfere with the retrieval of older memories

29
Q

a. Recall
b. Recognition

A

a. Being able to access the info without being cued (fill in the blank test)
b. identifying info after experiencing it again (multiple choice test)

30
Q

a. Iconic Memory
b. Echoic Memory
c. Haptic Memory

A

a. visual
b. auditory
c. touch

31
Q

a. Brainstem
b. Medulla
c. Pons
d. Reticular Formation

A

a. most primitive part of the brain, base of the brain connected to the spinal cord, controls the flow of messages between the brain and the rest of the body + unconscious functions (ex. breathing)

b. by the top of the spinal cord, controls life sustaining functions, most fibers cross resulting in con-lateral control

c. larger swelling above the medulla, connects the top of the brain to the bottom, bridge between cerebral hemispheres and both medulla and cerebellum stimulating breathing and controlling sleep cycles

d. network of nerves that can carry messages between parts of the brainstem (integrates nervous system), regulates intensity of pain and controls some parts of the body, helps focus and filter out distractions

32
Q

Acetylcholine
what is it?
Deficit and Surplus

A

is a neurotransmitter
thought, learning, memory + activating muscle action, excitatory
Deficit: dementia, Alzheimer’s, lack of muscle movement/control
Surplus: severe muscle spasms

33
Q

Serotonin
what is it?
Deficit and Surplus

A

is a neurotransmitter
well-being, happiness, sleep cycle/melatonin, intentional movements, inhibitory
Deficit: depression, anxiety, suicide, OCD Surplus: Hallucinations

34
Q

Dopamine
what is it?
Deficit and Surplus

A

is a neurotransmitter
pleasure chemical, reward/motivation, inhibitory
Deficit: depression, Parkinson’s, tremors, anxiety, memory problems, ADHD
Surplus: schizophrenia, drug addiction

35
Q

Norepinephrine
what is it?
Deficit and Surplus

A

is a neurotransmitter
response to danger FFFF, excitatory
Deficit: depression + mental disorders Surplus: anxiety

36
Q

GABA
what is it?
Deficit and Surplus

A

is a neurotransmitter
calming, natural tranquilizer, sleepy, inhibitory
Deficit: anxiety, seizures, tremors, insomnia
Surplus: overeating sleeping/eating disorders

37
Q

Glutamate
what is it?
Deficit and Surplus

A

is a neurotransmitter
normal operations; thinking long term memory and learning, excitatory
Deficit: insomnia, concentration problems
Surplus: migraines, epileptic seizures

38
Q

Endorphins
what is it?
Deficit and Surplus

A

is a neurotransmitter
relieve pain and stress, feelings of pleasure/euphoria, released during exercise pain and sex, inhibitory
Deficit: experiencing to much pain
Surplus: not giving adequate warning about pain, artificial highs

39
Q

Some Hormones:
a. Oxytocin
b. Epinephrine “Adrenaline”
c. Cortisol

A

a. regulates social interaction and sexual reproduction, acts like a neurotransmitter in the brain
b. body’s version of norepinephrine, high stress or exciting situations, physical boost + heightened awareness
c. body’s main stress hormone woks with certain parts of your brain to control your mood motivation and fear

40
Q

a. Reaction-Formation
b. Sublimation

A

a. Reduces anxiety by taking up the opposite feeling, impulse, or behavior
b. Taking unacceptable impulses and turning them into socially valued motives/activities

41
Q

Openness

A

to Experience, tendency to appreciate new art, ideas, values, feelings and behaviors
they want to try new things and think outside of the box

42
Q

Conscientiousness

A

tendency to be careful, on-time for appointments, to follow rules, and to be hardworking
work within the rules, and plan and organize effectively

43
Q

Minnesota Multiphasic Personality Inventory-2 (MMPI-2)

A

The most widely used and researched clinical assessment tool used by mental health professionals to help diagnose mental health disorders

44
Q

Reciprocal Determinism

A

idea from the social cognitive perspective that thoughts, feelings, beliefs, and environment all influence each other in determining a person’s actions in a given situation

45
Q

Erik Eriksons Psychosocial Stages are:

A

Trust vs Mistrust
Autonomy vs. Shame/Doubt (independence)
Initiative vs. Guilt (Am I good or Bad)
Industry vs Inferiority (sense of pride/accomplishment)
Identity vs. Role Confusion
Intimacy vs. Isolation
Generativity (contributing to the next generation) vs. Stagnation (little connection to others)
Ego Integrity (satisfaction) vs. Despair

46
Q

a. Gestation
b. Germinal Stage
c. Maturation

A

a. the process of development from concept to birth
b. the first stage of gestation, which lasts about two weeks, in which the zygote migrates from the fallopian tube to implant itself in the uterine wall
c. genetic growth tendencies are inborn determined by genetic makeup

47
Q

Jean Piagets Cognitive Stages
a. Sensorimotor Stage
b. Pre-operational Stage
c. Concrete Operational Stage
d. Formal Operational Stage

A

a. birth-2, infant uses senses and motor abilities to learn about the world
b. The stage (2-6/7) during which the child learns to use language
c. (6/7-11) gain mental operations that let them think logically about concrete events
d. (12) during which people begin to think logically about abstract concepts

48
Q

Lawrence Kohlberg’s development of moral reasoning
a. pre-conventional stage
b. conventional stage
c. post-conventional stage

A

a. first stage, in which the morality of an action is determined by the consequences for the action
b. the second stage, the morality of an action is determined by the extent to which is conforms with rules and norms
c. the third stage, morality of an action is determined by general principles and core values

49
Q

a. Egocentrism
b. Theory of the Mind
c. Conservation

A

a. inability on the part of a child in the pre-operational stage of development to see any point of view other than their own
b. the understanding that human behavior is guided by mental representations of the world appears differently to different people
c. the principle that properties such as mass, volume, and number remain the same despite changes in the forms of objects

50
Q

a. Zone of Proximal Development (ZPD)
b. Scaffolding

A

a. range between the level at which a child can solve a problem working along with difficulty, and the level at which a child can solve a problem with the assistance of adults or more skilled children
b. process in which a more skilled learner, gives help to a less skilled learner, reducing the amount of help as the less skilled learner becomes more capable

51
Q

Normative Influence “Social Norm”

A

Influence that produces conformity when a person fears the negative social consequences of appearing deviant

52
Q

a. Groupthink
b. Group Polarization

A

a. A group decision-making style characterized by an excessive tendency among group members to seek concurrence
b. The exaggeration of initial tendencies in the thinking of group members through group discussions

53
Q

a. Superordinate Goals
b. Robbers Cave Experiment

A

a. shared objectives that require cooperation between groups to accomplish
b. an experiment conducted by Muzafer Sherif in which two groups of boys at a summer camp overcome prejudices against each other by focusing on superordinate goals

54
Q

a. Self-Serving Bias
b. Actor-Observer Bias
c. False Consensus Effect

A

a. Tendency to blame external forces when bad things happen and to give ourselves credit when good things happen
b. Tendency to attribute one’s own actions to external causes while attributing other people’s behaviors to internal causes
c. Tendency to overestimate how much other people agree with us

55
Q

a. Central Route of Persuasion
b. Peripheral Route of Persuasion

A

a. The process by which a person thinks carefully about a communication and is influenced by the strength of its arguments
b. The process by which a person does not think carefully about a communication and is influenced instead by superficial cues

56
Q

a. Attribution Theory
b. Dispositional Attribution

A

a. a theory that describes how people explain their own and others’ behavior
b. a type of attribution in which you assign responsibility for an event or action to the person involved

57
Q

a. Specific Phobia
b. Obsessive-Compulsive Disorder (OCD)
c. Obsessions
d. Compulsions

A

a. Intense, irrational fear responses to specific stimuli
b. Compound disorder of thought and behavior
c. are persistent, intrusive, and unwanted thoughts that an individual cannot get out of their mind
d. are ritualistic behaviors performed repeatedly

58
Q

a. Schizoid Personality Disorder “Aloof”
b. Schizotypal Personality Disorder “Awkward”

A

a. Characterized by persistent avoidance of social relationships and little expression of emotion
b. Characterized by extreme discomfort in close relationships, very odd patterns of thinking and perceiving, and behavioral eccentricities

59
Q

a. Antisocial Personality Disorder (APD)
b. Borderline Personality Disorder

A

a. Characterized by a general pattern of disregard for and violation of other people’s rights (closely linked to criminal behavior)
b. Characterized by repeated instability in interpersonal relationships, self-image, and mood and by impulsive behavior

60
Q

a. Histrionic Personality Disorder
b. Avoidant Personality Disorder

A

a. Characterized by a pattern of excessive emotionality (dramatic) and attention seeking
b. Characterized by consistent discomfort and restraint in social situations, overwhelming feelings of inadequacy, and extreme sensitivity to negative evaluation/potential rejection, humiliation

61
Q

a. Dependent Personality Disorder
b. Obsessive Compulsive Personality Disorder

A

a. Characterized by a pattern of clinging and obedience, fear of separation, and an ongoing need to be taken care of
b. Characterized by an intense focus on orderliness, perfectionism, and control that the person loses flexibility, openness, and efficiency

62
Q

a. Somatic Symptom Disorder (SDD)
b. Illness Anxiety Disorder (IAD)

A

a. Characterized by physical symptoms including pain, and high anxiety in these individuals about having a disease
b. Characterized by a preoccupation with a serious medical or health condition with either no or mild physical (somatic) symptoms such as nausea or dizziness that has persisted for 6 months

63
Q

a. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapists
b. Rational-Emotive Behavior Therapy (REBT)

A

a. Human emotions and behavior are predominantly generated by ideas, beliefs, attitudes and thinking
b. Developed in 1950s by Albert Ellis, psychological problems arise when thoughts are irrational and lead to behavioral consequences that are distressful

64
Q

a. SSRI (selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor)
b. Electroconvulsive Therapy (ECT)
c. Deep Brian Stimulation

A

a. blocks the reuptake of serotonin
b. A biological treatment in which a brain seizure is triggered as an electric current passes through electrodes attached to the patient’s forehead
c. an invasive biomedical treatment that delivers electric shocks to the brain directly through an implanted electrode sometimes used for severe OCD