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Anatomy & Physiology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Where is Cardiac Muscle found and is it Voluntary or Involuntary

A

Found only in the heart; Involuntary because it contracts automatically

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2
Q

Where is Skeletal Muscle found and is it Voluntary or Involuntary

A

Attached to bone; Voluntary as it can be contracted at will

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3
Q

Where is Smooth Muscle found and is it Voluntary or Involuntary

A

Found in digestive tract, blood vessels, bladder, airways, and uterus; Involuntary because it contracts automatically such as when the digestive tract processes food.

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4
Q

Define Muscle Tone

A

The continuous state of partial contraction in which muscles are at their optimal resting length

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5
Q

What is the length-tension relationship?

A

The strength of a contraction depends upon the length of the fibers before the contraction beings.

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6
Q

What nerve must a skeletal muscle be stimulated by in order to contract?

A

Motor Neuron

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7
Q

What is the connection between a motor neuron and a muscle fiber?

A

Neuromuscular junction

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8
Q

What are the 4 steps of muscle fiber contraction?

A

1) When an impulse reaches the end of a motor neuron it causes small vesicles to fuse with the cell membrane and release acetylcholine (ACh) into the synaptic cleft. 2) The ACh quickly diffuses across the synaptic cleft where it stimulates receptors in the sarcolemma 3)This sends an electrical impulse over the sarcolemma and inward along the T tubules. The impulse in the T tubules causes the sacs in the sarcoplasmic reticulum to release calcium. 4) The calcium binds with the troponin on the actin filament to expose attachment points. In response, the myosin heads of the tick filaments grab onto the thin filaments, and muscle contraction occurs.

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9
Q

When do muscles use glucose?

A

If the supply of creatine phosphate is exhausted before the supply of oxygen has reached an acceptable level. Muscles receive much of their glucose from the bloodstream however some is stored within muscle in the form of glycogen. This is called Anaerobic respiration (without oxygen)

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10
Q

What is lactic acid?

A

A byproduct of anaerobic respiration which leads to muscle fatigue.

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11
Q

What is the role of a muscle?

A

To move a body part

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12
Q

Define Prime Mover (in regards to muscle)

A

The main muscle triggering the movement

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13
Q

Define Synergists (in regards to muscle)

A

The muscles that assist the prime mover

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14
Q

Define hypertrophy and atrophy

A

Muscle enlargement and shrinkage of muscle

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15
Q

At rest, muscles obtain most of their energy by metabolizing what?

A

Fatty Acids

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16
Q

What is the origin of the muscle?

A

Refers to the end of the muscle that attaches to the more stationary bone

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17
Q

What is the belly of the muscle

A

The thick midsection

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18
Q

What is the insertion of the muscle

A

The end of the muscle that attaches to the move move-able bones.

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19
Q

What 3 muscles are involved in breathing?

A

External Intercostals (elevate ribs), Internal Intercostals (depress ribs), and Diaphragm (enlarges thorax to trigger inspiration

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20
Q

What comprises a motor unit? (in regards to muscle)

A

The neuron and all the fibers it stimulates

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21
Q

What is muscle Threshold?

A

The minimum voltage needed to cause a muscle fiber to contract

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22
Q

What is a Twitch?

A

A single, brief contraction. Occurs when a fiber receives a stimulus at or above threshold.

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23
Q

How many bones are found in the adult body?

A

206

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24
Q

What does the Axial Skeleton consist of?

A

Skull, rib cage, and vertebral column

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25
Q

What does the Appendicular Skeleton consist of?

A

Limbs, pelvic area, and shoulder area.

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26
Q

Where is spongy bone found?

A

In the ends of long bones and in the middle of most other bones

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27
Q

What are Osteoblasts?

A

Bone forming cells

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28
Q

What are Osteocytes

A

Mature Osteoblasts

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29
Q

What are Osteoclasts?

A

Cells that dissolve unwanted, old or unhealthy bone

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30
Q

What is the Diaphysis?

A

The central shaft-like portion of a long bone.

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31
Q

What is the Medullary Cavity?

A

The central hollow portion of a long bone that contains bone marrow

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32
Q

What 4 factors affect bone growth and maintenance?

A

Heredity (genetics), Nutrition(malnutrition), Hormones(growth hormone, thyroxine, insulin), and Exercise (weight-bearing exercises prevent bone destruction)

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33
Q

Where do the Parietal Bones join together?

A

Top of the head to form the top and sides of the cranial cavity

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34
Q

What does the Occipital bone form?

A

The rear of the skull

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35
Q

What does the Frontal Bone Form?

A

The forehead, and roof of the eye sockets.

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36
Q

What does the Ethmoid bone form?

A

The walls of the eye sockets, the roof and walls of the nasal cavity, and the nasal septum.

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37
Q

What does the Sphenoid bone form?

A

Part of the cranial floor as well as the floor and side walls of the eye sockets. Looks like a giant moth; lies slightly behind the nose and throat; on top of the sphenoid bone is an indented area called the sella turcica which houses the pituitary gland.

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38
Q

What do the Temporal Bones form?

A

The sides of the cranium and part of the cranial floor; also contains the structures of the inner and middle ear.

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39
Q

What does the Maxillae form?

A

Two bones that form the upper jaw

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40
Q

What are the Lacrimal Bones?

A

Paper-thin bones form part of the side wall of the eye socket

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41
Q

What do the Zygomatic Bones form?

A

Shape the cheeks and outer edges of the eye socket

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42
Q

What is the Mandible bone?

A

Largest and strongest bone in face; only facial bone that can move; articulates with the temporal bone at the TMJ; basically its the lower jaw

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43
Q

What is the Vomer bone?

A

Forms inferior half of the nasal septum.

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44
Q

What is a Suture Line?

A

Immovable joints where the bones of the skull join together

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45
Q

What is the Hyoid Bone?

A

A U-shaped bone that sits between the chin and the larynx.

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46
Q

What are the 3 regions of the sternum?

A

Manubrium (broadest portion), Body (largest portion), and Xiphoid Process (important landmark for CPR)

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47
Q

How many pairs of ribs do we have?

A

Twelve

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48
Q

Which ribs are the floating ribs?

A

11 and 12

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49
Q

Which ribs are the false ribs?

A

8-12

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50
Q

Which ribs are the true ribs?

A

1-7

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51
Q

What does the Pectoral Girdle consist of?

A

The clavicle and the scapula

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52
Q

What is the Humerus?

A

Long bone of the upper arm

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53
Q

What is the Radius?

A

One of the two bones of the lower arm; located on the thumb side

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54
Q

What is the Ulna?

A

One of the two bones of the lower arm; located on the pinky side

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55
Q

How many metacarpal bones do we have and what do they form?

A

5; palm of hand

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56
Q

How many carpal bones do we have and what do they form?

A

8; wrist

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57
Q

What is the Patella?

A

Kneecap

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58
Q

What does the Fibula stabilize?

A

The ankle

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59
Q

What does the Tibia do?

A

Bears weight; commonly called the shin bone.

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60
Q

What do the tarsal bones comprise?

A

Ankle

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61
Q

What is the Calcaneus bone?

A

Largest tarsal bone; forms the heel; bears much of the body’s weight

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62
Q

Describe Chemical Digestion

A

Digestive enzymes break down food particles into nutrients

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63
Q

Describe Mechanical Digestion

A

Physically breaking down food into smaller pieces beginning with chewing food and continuing with contractions and churning in the stomach.

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64
Q

What are the 2 digestive enzymes found in saliva and what do they do?

A

Amylase (breaks down starch) & Lipase (begins the digestion of fat)

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65
Q

What do Goblet cells produce?

A

Mucous

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66
Q

What is mucous?

A

An enzyme that kills bacteria

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67
Q

What connects the pharynx to the stomach?

A

Esophagus

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68
Q

What do mucous cells in the stomach do?

A

Secrete mucous which protects the stomach lining and keeps the stomach from digesting itself

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69
Q

What do Parietal cells in the stomach do?

A

Secrete hydrochloric acid which kills microbes in swallowed food

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70
Q

What do Chiefs cells in the stomach do?

A

Secrete digestive enzymes such as pepsinogen

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71
Q

What is the primary function of the stomach?

A

Food storage

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72
Q

What helps to prevent backflow into the esophagus?

A

Lower Esophageal Sphincter

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73
Q

What is Rugae and what happens to the rugae of the stomach when we eat?

A

Rugae is the mucosa and submucosa wrinkled into little folds when the stomach is empty. When the stomach is full the rugae flatten and the stomach expands.

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74
Q

What is Chyme?

A

Mixture of food particles and digestive juices

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75
Q

What are the primary functions of the liver?

A

Store and release glucose, process vitamins and minerals, filter toxins, recycle old blood cells.

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76
Q

What is the body’s largest gland?

A

The liver

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77
Q

Where does the Portal Vein carry nutrient rich blood to the liver from?

A

Stomach

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78
Q

What does the Central Vein do for the liver?

A

Carries the processed blood out of the liver

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79
Q

What is the main purpose of the Gall Bladder?

A

Store and concentrate bile

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80
Q

What is the function of the small intestine?

A

Nutrient absorption

81
Q

What are the 3 divisions of the small intestine in order?

A

Duodenum, Jejunum, and Ileum

82
Q

What is Segmentation in the small intestine?

A

Involves ring-like constrictions that occur at intervals along the small intestine. When the first contracted areas relax, new contractions occur in other locations. This movement breaks up food particles and kneads the contents of the intestines mixing it with digestive juices.

83
Q

Where does the large intestine begin?

A

Cecum

84
Q

What is the main function of the Large Intestine?

A

absorb water from the remaining indigestible food matter and transmit the useless waste material from the body.

85
Q

Which vitamins are fat soluble?

A

A D E K

86
Q

What is the role of intestinal flora in digestion and maintenance of health?

A

Produce vitamin K & B; Digest materials that have no digestive enzymes

87
Q

What do Alpha cells secrete?

A

Glucagon

88
Q

What do Beta cells secrete?

A

Insulin

89
Q

What does glucagon do?

A

Stimulates the liver to convert glycogen into glucose; this happens between meals when blood glucose levels fall.

90
Q

What does Insulin do?

A

After eating, when blood glucose levels are higher, insulin stimulates cells to absorb insulin, causing glucose levels to fall.

91
Q

Which vitamins are water-soluble, where are they absorbed & where are they excreted?

A

C & B; Absorbed by the small intestine; excreted by kidneys

92
Q

What are the 5 most abundant minerals in the body?

A

Calcium, Magnesium, Phosphorus, Sodium, Potassium

93
Q

What is the main electrolyte in extracellular fluid?

A

Sodium

94
Q

What is the main electrolyte of intracellular fluid?

A

Potassium

95
Q

What functions does Calcium play a key role in?

A

Muscle contractions, nerve transmission, and blood clotting.

96
Q

What does Sodium play a key role in?

A

How water is distributed throughout the body and the volume of total body water.

97
Q

What does Potassium play a key role in?

A

Nerve and muscle function

98
Q

What is Acidosis?

A

A decrease in the pH of the blood due to an accumulation of acids; may result from respiratory or metabolic disturbances

99
Q

What is Alkalosis?

A

An increase in the pH of the blood due to a loss of acid; may result from respiratory or metabolic disturbances.

100
Q

Define Isotonic

A

Concentration of solutes is the same as it is in the cell

101
Q

Define Hypertonic

A

Solution contains a higher concentration of solutes compared to the fluid within the cell

102
Q

Define Hypotonic

A

Solution contains a lower concentration of solutes compared to the fluid within the cell.

103
Q

What is the normal pH range of blood?

A

7.35-7.45

104
Q

What is the primary sex organ (gonads) of males?

A

Testes

105
Q

What is the primary sex organ (gonads) of females?

A

Ovaries

106
Q

What do the testes do?

A

Generate sperm and secrete testosterone

107
Q

What is the Vas Deferens?

A

A tube that carries sperm out of the epididymis to the ejaculatory duct

108
Q

What do gonads produce?

A

Sperm and eggs

109
Q

What is spermatogonia?

A

The early stage of sperm

110
Q

By what process to spermatogonia divide?

A

Mitosis - divide into two daughter cells each with 46 chromosomes

111
Q

What is Spermatogenesis?

A

The formation of sperm

112
Q

What is included in the female reproductive accessory organs?

A

Fallopian tubes, uterus and vagina.

113
Q

Where are changes taking place during the Ovarian cycle and Which hormones control the Ovarian cycle?

A

Ovaries - FHS and LH

114
Q

Where are changes taking place during the Menstrual cycle and Which hormones control the Menstrual cycle?

A

Uterus - Estrogen and Progesterone

115
Q

How long is the average reproductive cycle?

A

28 Days

116
Q

What is the first hormone secreted at the onset of puberty?

A

Gonadotropin-releasing hormone

117
Q

What are gametes?

A

sex cells

118
Q

Where is sperm stored before ejaculation?

A

Epididymis

119
Q

Where is testosterone produced?

A

Interstitial cells of the testes

120
Q

The surge in which hormone causes ovulation?

A

LH

121
Q

Falling levels of which two hormones trigger menstruation?

A

Estrogen and progesterone

122
Q

What process are Gametes form through?

A

Meiosis- During meiosis, the DNA is only replicated or copied one time. However, the cells are divided into four separate cells

123
Q

How does a sensation occur?

A

Begins when a receptor detects a stimulus, if the stimulus is strong enough, the receptor causes a sensory neuron to send an impulse to the brain and spinal cord, when the impulse arrives at the brain, we may experience a sensation, such as sight or sound.

124
Q

What are Chemoreceptors?

A

React to various chemicals including odor and taste

125
Q

What are Mechanoreceptors?

A

Respond to factors- such as pressure, stretch, or vibration

126
Q

What are Thermoreceptors?

A

Activated by a change in temperature

127
Q

What are Nociceptors?

A

Pain receptors that respond to tissue damage from trauma as well as from heat, chemicals, pressure, or lack of oxygen

128
Q

What are Photoreceptors

A

Found only in eyes they respond to light

129
Q

What is referred pain?

A

Pain originating in a deep organ may be sensed as if its originating from the body’s surface- sometimes in a completely different part of the body.

130
Q

What are the main components of the Urinary System?

A

Kidneys, Ureters, Urinary Bladder, and Urethra

131
Q

What structures are in place to protect the kidneys?

A

The ribs and a heavy cushion of fat encasing each kidney.

132
Q

Where do structures such as blood vessels, ureters, and nerves enter and leave the kidney?

A

A slit called the hilum located in a concave notch.

133
Q

What are the functions of the kidney?

A

A WET BED: Acid Base Balance Water Removal Erythropoiesis (process of making RBC’s) Toxin Removal Blood Pressure Control Electrolyte Balance Vitamin D Activation

134
Q

Define Renal Cortex

A

Outer region of kidney

135
Q

Define Renal Medulla

A

Inner Region of kidney

136
Q

Define Renal Columns

A

Extensions from the renal cortex that divide the interior region into cone-shaped sections

137
Q

Define Renal Pyramids

A

Cone-shaped sections consisting of tubules for transporting urine away from the cortex.

138
Q

Define Minor Calyx

A

The renal papilla (point of pyramid) extends into a cup that collects urine

139
Q

Define Renal Palilla

A

The point of the renal pyramids

140
Q

Define Major Calyix

A

Two or Three minor calyxes join together to form a major calyx

141
Q

Define Renal Pelvis

A

Receives urine from the major calyxes and continues as the ureter which channels urine to the urinary bladder.

142
Q

Define Renal Artery

A

Brings blood to the kidney- branches off the abdominal aorta

143
Q

Define Renal Vein

A

Blood leaves the kidney from here and empties into the inferior vena cava

144
Q

Define Nephron and what is consists of

A

Microscopic functional units of the kidney. They consist of 2 main components: 1)Renal Corpuscle which filters blood plasma 2)Renal Tubule where urine is formed.

145
Q

Briefly describe Renal Circulation of Blood

A

The renal artery brings blood to the kidney. As it enters the kidney, the renal artery divides, branching into smaller arteries. The arteries pass through the renal columns and extend into the renal cortex. Blood leaves the kidneys through the renal vein which empties into the inferior vena cava.

146
Q

What is Aldosterone and what are its effects on Blood Volume and Blood Pressure?

A

Hormone that causes the distal convoluted tubule to retain sodium which leads to retention of water. BP & BV go UP

147
Q

What is Anti-diuretic Hormone and what are its effects on Blood Volume and Blood Pressure?

A

Hormone that inhibits diuresis (increased production of urine) by stimulating the kidneys to conserve water. BV and BP go UP

148
Q

What is Atrial Natriuetic Peptide hormone and what are its effects on Blood Volume and Blood Pressure?

A

Secreted by the posterior pituitary gland. Causes the cells of the collecting duct to become more permeable to water. Causes BV and BP to go DOWN.

149
Q

What is Parathyroid Hormone and what are its effects on Blood Volume and Blood Pressure?

A

Secreted in response to low blood calcium levels. Prompts the renal tubules to reabsorb more calcium and excrete phosphate. No effect on BV or BP

150
Q

What are the Ureters?

A

Muscular tubes connecting the kidney to the bladder. Approx 25cm or 9.8 inches in length. Peristalic waves help propel urine from the renal pelvis toward the bladder.

151
Q

What is the Urinary Bladder?

A

A collapsible muscular sac that stores urinecapacity.

152
Q

What is the capacity of the urinary bladder?

A

500ml is moderately full and 800ml is maximum capacity.

153
Q

Where do infections commonly attack in the bladder?

A

Trigone

154
Q

What is the Urethra?

A

Small tube that conveys urine away from the bladder and out of the body. 3cm in females and 20 cm in males. Females are more prone to UTI’s because bacteria can easily migrate up the short urethra. The opening of the urethra is called the external urinary meatus.

155
Q

What does the External Urethral Sphincter consist of and is it voluntary or involuntary

A

Consists of skeletal muscles and is therefore under voluntary control

156
Q

What does the Internal Urethral Sphincter consist of and is it voluntary or involuntary

A

A ring of smooth muscle that contracts involuntarily to retain urine in the bladder

157
Q

What is Renin?

A

An enzyme released by the kidneys in response to a drop in blood pressure that causes the conversion of angiotensinogen into angiotensin 1.

158
Q

Define Bowman’s Capsule

A

2 layers of epithelial cells that envelop of glomerulus in an open-ended covering; also called a glomerular capsule.

159
Q

What is not normally found in Urine and can indicate disease process?

A

Glucose, blood, free hemoglobin, albumin, ketones and bile pigmentation.

160
Q

What might darker or cloudy urine indicate?

A

Dark urine usually results from poor hydration; Cloudy urine may result from bacteria indicating an infection

161
Q

What might different urine odors indicate?

A

A pungent smell results when urine is allowed to stand; bacteria multiplies and converts urea into ammonia. A sweet, fruit smell often occurs in diabetics. A rotten odor may indicate a UTI

162
Q

What might a high specific gravity indicate in urine?

A

Dehydration

163
Q

What is the average pH level of urine?

A

6.0; higher reflects alkalosis and lower indicates acidosis

164
Q

What does the Lymphatic System consist of?

A

Lymphatic vessels, lymph, lymphatic tissue, and lymphatic organs.

165
Q

What is Lymph?

A

A clear, colorless fluid that fills lymphatic capillaries. Lymph moves away from the tissues and toward the heart.

166
Q

What are lymphatic vessels and how do they compare to blood vessels?

A

Similar to veins, lympthatic vessels also have thin walls and valves to prevent backflow. The walls are formed by a thin layer of epithelial cells, however, unlike veins which cells are tightly joined, the cells overlap loosely allowing gaps to exist between the cells.

167
Q

What are the 3 functions of the Lymphatic system?

A

Maintenance of Fluid Balance, Absorption of Fats, & Immunity

168
Q

What is flow through the lymphatic vessels aided?

A

Primarily by the rythmic contractions of the lymphatic vessels as the valves prevent backflow. Flow is aided further by the contraction of skeletal muscles, which squeeze the lymphatic vessels. Respiration causes pressure changes that help propel lymph from the abdominal to the thoracic cavity.

169
Q

Describe the two collecting ducts of the lymphatic system

A

Right Lymphatic Duct: Drains lymph for the upper right quadrant of the body into the right subclavian wein.

Thoracic Duct: Drains lymph from the rest of the body into the left subclavian vein

170
Q

What are Lymph Nodes and what do they do?

A

Kidney-shaped masses of lymphatic tissue that lie along the lymphatic vessels; As lymph flows along the fluid trickles into the lymph nodes as the node removes pathogens and other foreign materials.

171
Q

What organs are considered Lymphatic Organs?

A

Red bone marrow, thymus, lymph nodes, tonsils, and the spleen.

172
Q

What are the primary lymphatic organs and what is their purpose?

A

Red bone marrow and Thymus; provide a location for B & T lymphcytes to mature.

173
Q

What are secondary lympathic organs and what are their purpose?

A

Lymph nodes, tonsils, & spleen. Contain lymphocytes that have matured in either the red bone marrow or thymus.

174
Q

What are the tonsils?

A

Masses of lymphoid tissue; they form a protective circle at the back of the throat and gaurd against pathogens entering the body through the nose or throat. The palatine tonsils are most suseptible to infection of the 3 sets of tonsils.

175
Q

What is the spleen, where does it reside, and what does it do?

A

Largest lymphatic organ, resides in upper left quadrant. The functions of the spleen include Immunity, Destruction of old red blood cells, blood storage (stores 20-30% of blody’s platelets and can rapidly add blood back into circulation), and hematopoiesis. A person can live without a spleen but may be more vulnerable to infection.

176
Q

Describe Non-Specific Immunity

A

First & Second lines of defense; immune response aimed at a broad range of pathogens. Includes external barriers, phagocytosis, antimicrobial proteins, natural killer cells, inflammation and fever.

177
Q

Describe Specific Immunity

A

Third line of defense; Occurs when the body retains a memory of a pthogen after defeating it.

178
Q

Differentiate between T & B cells

A

T Cells also called T lymphocytes develop from stem cells in red bone marrow and travel to the Thymus where they remain until fully functional, after this they travel to lymphatic organs throughout the body.

B Cells also called B lymphocytes also develop in stem cells in red bone marrow, however, they remain there until fully mature. After maturation they leave the bone marrow for lympthatic organs and tissues.

**T cells mature in the Thymus

B cells mature in Bone Marrow**

179
Q

What is an Antigen?

A

Any molecule that triggers an immune response.

180
Q

What is Cellular Immunity?

A

Destroys pathogens that exist within a cell. It uses 3 classes of T cells.

Cytotoxic T Cells AKA Killer T Cells: carry out attack

Helper T Cells: Supportive Role

Memory T Cells: Remember the pathogen in case of future invasion

181
Q

Fast Fact

A

Because the cellular immune system is programmed to attack any cell not identified with the “self” it also attacks and tries to destroy transplanted organs and tissues

182
Q

What is Humoral Immunity?

A

Immune response that uses antibodies to target pathogens outside the host cells. Instead of destroying the antigen directly, it uses antibodies to mark them for later destruction.

183
Q

What is Active Immunity?

A

When the body makes its own antibodies or T cells against a pathogen. There are 2 types of active Immunity:

Natural Active Immunity: When body produces antibodies or T cells after being exposed to a particular antigen.

Artifical Active Immunity: When the body makes T cells and antibodies against a disease as a result of a vaccination.

184
Q

What is Passive Immunity?

A

Results when someone receives antibodies from another person or animal.

Two types of Passive Immunity:

Natural Passive Immunity: Results when a fetus acquires antibodies from the mother through the placenta or breastfeeding.

Artifical Passive Immunity: Involves obtaining serum from a person or animal that has produces antibodies against a certain pathogen and then injecting it into someone else. Typcially done in emergency cases such as rabies or botulism.

185
Q

What is hypersensitivity?

A

Involves and inappropriate or excessive response of the immune system. Most common type is an allergy.

186
Q

What is Anaphylaxis?

A

A severe, immediate reaction that affects the whole body.

Anaphylaxis shock occurs when symptoms worsen to the point that circulatory shock and sudden death may occur.

187
Q

What is an Autoimmune Disease?

A

The body produces antibodies to attack its own tissues.

188
Q

What are the structures of the Outer Ear?

A

Pinna: Visible part of ear; funnels sound into the auditory canal.

Auditory Canal: leads through the temporal bone to the eardrum. Glands lining the canal product secretions that mix with dead skin cells to form cerumen (ear wax), which waterproofs the canal and traps dirty & bacteria.

189
Q

What are the structures of the Middle Ear

A

Auditory Ossicles: 3 smallest bones in the body connect the eardrum to the inner ear and they are named for their shape. They include Malleus, Incus and Stapes.

Tympanic Membrane: AKA Eardrum. Separates the outer eat from the middle ear; vibrates freely in response to sound waves.

Auditory/Eustachian Tube: Passageway from the middle eat to the nasopharynx. Purpose is to equalize pressure on both sides of the tympanic membrane. Can also allow infection to spread from throat to middle ear.

190
Q

What are the structures of the inner ear?

A

Semicircuar Canals: Crucial for maintenace of equilibrium and balane

Vestibule: This structure contans the organs necessary for sense of balance

Cochlea: This snail-like structure contans the stuctures for hearing.

191
Q

Which 2 parts of the inner ear play a key role in balane?

A

Vestibule and Semicircular canals.

192
Q

What are the strutures of the outer layer of the eye?

A

Sclera: Outermost layer formed by dense connective tissue. It forms the white of the eye.

Cornea: Transarent extension of te sclera. Sits over the iris (colored portion) and admits light into the eye.

193
Q

What are the stuctures of the middle layer of the eye?

A

Iris: A ring of colored muscle. Works to adjust the diameter of the pupil and control the amount of light entering the eye.

Choroid: highly vascular layer of tissue that supplies oxygen and nutrients to the retina and sclera.

Ciliary Body: Thickened extension of the choroid that forms a collar around the lens. Secretes a fluid called aqueous humor.

194
Q

What are the structures of the layer of the inner eye?

A

Retina: Thin layer of light-senstive cells. Inside the retina are rods and cones that are stimulated by light rays to produce an electrical or chemical signal.

Optic Nerve: Transmits signals to the brain

195
Q

Define Refraction (in regards to vision)

A

Bending of light rays so they focus on the retina.

196
Q

Define Convergence in regards to vision and what happens when the eyes fail to converge?

A

Proper vsion requires the light rays from an object to fall on the same area of each retina. Convergence lines up the visual axis of each eye toward the object so that the light rays fall on the corresponding spots on each retina. If eyes fail to converge, light rays from the objet will fall on different arts of eaach retina resulting in double visio.

197
Q

Define accomodation in regards to the eyes

A

When the curvature of the lens changes to allow the eye to focus on a near object.

198
Q

What are cataracts?

A

Clouding of the lens making vision cloudy or blurry. Occur as a part of aging, diabetes, smoking, and prolonged exposure to sunlight.

199
Q

Explain cones and rods

A

Rods: located at the periphery of the retina, are active in dim light, are responsible for night vision, cannot distinguish colors

Cones: Located at centre of eye with some scattered throughout eye, active in bright light, responsible for sharp vision, responsible for color vision.

Anatomy & Physiology (16 decks)

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