Final Flashcards
The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient’s privacy according to:
a) DCAP
b) APGAR
c) HIPAA
d) CQI
C
Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training?
a) EMT
b) EMR
c) AEMT
d) Paramedic
A
National guidelines for EMS care are intended to ________.
a) reduce expenses at the local and state levels
b) facilitate a national EMS labor group
c) unify EMS providers under a single medical director
d) provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States?
D
Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers?
a) Multilumen airways
b) Needle decompression
c) Automatic transport ventilators
d) Automated external defibrillators
D
Online medical control requires_______.
a) written protocols approved by medical control.
b) phone or radio contact with the medical director
c) the presence of an advanced-level provider.
d) a physician’s presence on the scene of the call.
B
What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field?
a) Carry an EMT text for reference at all times.
b) Deviate from established standards when necessary
c) Follow the agency’s written protocols
d) Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments.
C
American Heart Association protocols are based on________.
a) evidence-based research
b) trends in the EMS community
c) theories ready for field trial
d) opinions from a core group of cardiologists
A
The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called________.
a) patient advocacy
b) integrity
c) time management
d) patient empathy
C
The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as________.
a) diplomacy
b) self-confidence
c) time management
d) self-motivation
D
Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct?
a) The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability.
b) The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled.
c) The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled.
d) According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.
C
The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as______.
a) communication
b) scene leadership
c) self-confidence
d) teamwork and diplomacy
A
As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with the chest pain based on:
a) the patient’s condition
b) medical director approval
c) an order from the paramedic
d) the transport time to the hospital
B
Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:
a) animals or insects
b) smoke or dust
c) direct contact
d) inanimate objects
A
Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct?
a) The grieving process typically begins with severe depression
b) It is rare people will jump back and forth between stages
c) The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously
d) Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process.
C
Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all the following, EXCEPT:
a) assessment by the EMT
b) mental disorders
c) history of chronic disease
d) fear of medical personnel
A
While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. What is the route of transmission?
a) Direct contact
b) Indirect contact
c) Airborne transmission
d) Vector-borne transmission
B
The EMT’s first priority is______.
a) personal safety
b) rapid response
c) treatment and transport
d) empathy for all patients.
A
The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:
a) undergo an annual physical examination
b) ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date.
c) wash your hands in between patient contacts
d) undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis.
C
After assessing the patient’s blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should:
a) immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution
b) report the incident to your supervisor after the call
c) get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible
d) discontinue patient care and seek medical attention
B
Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct?
a) HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B
b) HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field
c) HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood
d) There is no vaccine against HIV infection
D
Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:
a) requests sexual favors in exchange for something else
b) touches another person without consent
c) stares at certain part’s of another person’s body
d) makes rude remarks about a person’s body parts
A
You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should:
a) reassure her that after treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time
b) acknowledge that she is scared and tell her you will take good care of her
c) maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared
d) tell you understand why she is scared and that everything will be okay
B
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should:
a) quickly begin the triage process
b) assist with vehicle stabilization
c) report to the incident commander
d) put on high visibility vests
D
Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire?
a) behind a car door
b) a concrete barricade
c) a large cluster of shrubs
d) stacked empty barrels
B
As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on:
a) It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included in the report
b) EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented
c) Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation
d) Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS
A
Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct?
a) a patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated
b) patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment
c) expressed consent is valid only if given writing by a family member
d) all patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport
A
Which type of consent is involved when a 39 y/o mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital?
a) Formal
b) Implied
c) Informed
d) Expressed
D
You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle versus pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13 y/o male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child’s parents will be at the scene in 15 minutes. What should you do?
a) Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital
b) Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parent to arrive and give consent
c) Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital
d) Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment.
A
When is forcible restraint permitted?
a) Anytime the EMT feels threatened
b) Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member
c) When the patient poses a significant threat to self and others
d) Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior
C
Which aspect of the HIPAA MOST affects EMS personnel?
a) controlling insurance costs
b) protecting patient privacy
c) preventing insurance fraud
d) ensuring access to insurance
B
You respond to the home of a 59 y/o man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should:
a) begin treatment and contact medical control as needed
b) honor the patient’s wishes and withhold all treatment
c) transport the patient without providing any treatment
d) decide on further action once the DNR order is produced
A
Putrefaction is defined as:
a) decomposition of the body’s tissues
b) profound cyanosis to the trunk and face
c) blood settling to the lowest part of the body
d) separation of the torso from the rest of the body
A
Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient’s wishes to be an organ donor?
a) driver’s license
b) insurance card
c) social security card
d) voter registration card
A
The EMT’s scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the:
a) medical director
b) state EMS office
c) EMS supervisor
d) local health district
A
In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist?
a) The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty
b) a call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change
c) The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends
d) A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing
B
Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include:
a) quickly moving any weapons out of the patient’s sight
b) placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive
c) making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later
d) not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons
D
Effective therapeutic communication skills require______.
a) verbal and nonverbal communication techniques
b) english-speaking patients or family members
c) supervision by advanced life support personnel
d) correct use of complex medical terminology
A
Which of the following types of questions allow for the most detailed response?
a) yes or no questions
b) close ended questions
c) open ended questions
d) multiple questions asked at once
C
Which of the following will help improve radio communication?
a) wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking
b) hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth
c) use codes to speed communication
d) answer questions with yes or no
A
Ethnocentrism is defined as:
a) understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently
b) suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question
c) subconsciously forcing you cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable
d) considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture
D
During your assessment of a 20 y/o man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when is headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should:
a) repeat your question because he probably did not hear you
b) allow him more time to think about the question and respond to it
c) ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea
d) tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions.
B
When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that:
a) your questions should focus exclusively on the patient’s obvious problem
b) most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions
c) hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient’s age
d) speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you
B
A 4-year old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother’s lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child’s mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should:
a) ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother
b) give the child a favorite toy and perform your assessment to the best of your ability
c) reassure the child’s mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about
d) attempt to calm the mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase anxiety
A
Communicating with patients who are deaf or hard of hearing can be facilitated by doing all the following, EXCEPT:
a) shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment
b) elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation
c) placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips
d) providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response
B
As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should:
a) place the patient in a high visibility area and then respond to the call
b) inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once
c) leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call
d) respond only after giving a verbal patient to a nurse of physician
D
Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section.
a) “General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated”
b) “Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle”
c) “The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day”
d) “After oxygen was administered, the patient’s breathing improved”
A
Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct?
a) a patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment
b) Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented
c) A mentally competent adult has the legal right to EMS care and transport
d) Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment
C
Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities?
a) spousal abuse
b) animal bites
c) cardiac arrest
d) gunshot wounds
C
The suffix “-pathy” means:
a) enlargement
b) study of
c) specialist
d) disease
D
The root “melan/o” means:
a) white
b) black
c) red
d) gray
B
“Chondro” in the word chondritis means:
a) tendon
b) rib
c) cartilage
d) joint
C
The meaning “around” can have which of the following prefixes?
a) “epi-“ and “sub-“
b) “sub-“ and “infra-“
c) “infra-“ and “peri-“
d) “peri-“ and “circum-“
D
“Myo” in the word myocarditis means:
a) cartilage
b) muscle
c) bone
d) vein
B
Which of the family suffixes mean “pertaining to”?
a) “-al” and “-ic”
b) “-ic” and “-ology”
c) “-ology” and “-oma”
d) “-al” and “-ology”
A
Which of the following suffixes mean “two”?
a) “primi-“ and “dipl-“
b) “dipl-“ and “bi-“
c) “bi-“ and “null-“
d) “primi-“ and “bi-“
B
“Gastro” in the word “gastroenteritis” means:
a) intestine
b) tongue
c) stomach
d) bowel
C
A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ________ forearm.
a) proximal
b) superior
c) dorsal
d) distal
D
The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is:
a) lateral
b) medial
c) midaxillary
d) midclavicular
B
An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body’s position?
a) dorsal
b) supine
c) prone
d) recumbent
C
In relation to the chest, the back is:
a) ventral
b) inferior
c) anterior
d) posteror
D
The ______ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles.
a) apex
b) base
c) dorsum
d) septum
A
A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being:
a) medial
b) proximal
c) bilateral
d) unilateral
C
A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she:
a) is excessively thirsty
b) has low blood sugar
c) is unable to swallow
d) urinates frequently
A
After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient’s leg stops bleeding. This is called:
a) hemostasis
b) hemiplegia
c) hemolysis
d) hematemesis
A
The term “pericardiocentesis” means:
a) a surgical opening made in the heart
b) surgical repair of the sac around the heart
c) the removal of fluid from around the heart
d) narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart
C
EMTs should have a strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to:
a) perform and document more accurate patient assessments
b) more clearly explain to patients the nature of their condition
c) communicate effectively with other members of the health care team
C
You are transporting to a 66 y/o patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root term indicates that:
a) the problem is with the patient’s liver
b) the organ involved is enlarged
c) the problem is a direct consequence of the patient’s heart disease
d) the problem is unrelated to the patient’s heart condition
A
You are transporting to a 67 y/o female patient to the hospital for investigation of abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information, the patient care record includes an abbreviation for:
a) acute abdominal assessment
b) against ambulance advice
c) acute abdominal aneurysm
d) abdominal aortic aneurysm
D
Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the:
a) kidneys
b) pancreas
c) stomach
d) gallbladder
D
The _____ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium.
a) orbit
b) occiput
c) mastoid
d) sphenoid
A
The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the:
a) foramen ovule
b) vertebral foramen
c) spinous foramen
d) foramen magnum
D
Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle?
a) blood vessels
b) urinary system
c) skeletal system
d) GI tract
C
A by-product of the involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is:
a) heat
b) oxygen
c) nitrogen
d) lactic acid
A
If a patient’s chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient’s respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that:
a) minute volume is decreased
b) inspiratory reserve is increased
c) overall tidal volume is increased
d) expiratory reserve volume is decreased
A
What happens when blood volume is lost from the body?
a) arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles
b) the veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion
c) widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease
d) the arteries contract to increase the blood pressure
D
A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The 130 in their measurement represents:
a) atrial contraction
b) ventricular filling
c) ventricular contraction
d) ventricular relaxation
C
The central nervous system is composed of the:
a) brain and spinal cord
b) brain and sensory nerves
c) motor and sensory nerves
d) spinal cord and sensory nerves
A
Which of the following is not a function of the skin?
a) sensory reception
b) temperature regulation
c) metabolic coordination
d) pressure and pain perception
C
Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen?
a) liver
b) stomach
c) cecum
d) spleen
D
To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure _____.
a) both arms above the head
b) both arms at the patient’s sides
c) only the patient’s torso
d) one arm above the head
D
The _____ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle.
a) coccyx
b) sacrum
c) thorax
d) ischium
B
An EMT may injure his back, even if it is straight, if the:
a) back is bent at the hips
b) hands are held close to the legs
c) shoulder is aligned over the pelvis
d) force is exerted straight down the spine
A
The proper technique for using the power grip is to:
a) lift with palms up
b) rotate palms down
c) hold the handle with your fingers
d) position hands about 6 inches apart
A
Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct?
a) the majority of a horizontal patient’s weight is in the torso
b) most of the patient’s weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher
c) a semi-sitting patient’s weight is equally distributed on both ends
d) The EMT at the patient’s head will bear the least amount of the weight
A
To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should:
a) flex at the waist instead of the hips
b) avoid the use of log rolls or body drags
c) use a direct carry whenever possible
d) keep the weight as close to your body as possible
D
Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury?
a) long backboard
b) scoop stretcher
c) portable stretcher
d) wheeled stretcher
A
To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should:
a) be positioned at the feet so the team can hear
b) use preparatory commands to initiate any moves
c) speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient
d) never become involved in the move, only the direct move
B
As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should:
a) reposition your hand and continue to move the patient
b) stop the move and request additional lifting assistance
c) guide your partner while moving the chair backwards
d) stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs
B
When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than _____ in front of your torso.
a) 5 to 10 inches
b) 10 to 15 inches
c) 15 to 20 inches
d) 20 to 30 inches
C
Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct?
a) the spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move
b) an emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment
c) the patient is dragged against the body’s long axis during an emergency move
d) it is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient
B
Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should:
a) direct your partner to apply manual in line support of the patient’s head
b) apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag
c) apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient
d) slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.
A
The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is:
a) unnecessarily wasting time
b) injury to you or your patient
c) causing patient anxiety or fear
d) confusion among team members
B
Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard?
a) joint flexibility
b) patient disorientation
c) naturally deformed bones
d) abnormal spinal curvature
D
What is the correct consequence to ventilation ratio for adult CPR?
a) 30:1
b) 5:1
c) 3:2
d) 30:2
D
Between each chest compression, you should:
a) allow full chest recoil
b) remove your hands from the chest
c) check for a pulse
d) administer a breath
A
Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should:
a) encourage the patient to cough
b) perform abdominal thrusts
c) administer back blows
d) place the patient supine
A
Your partner is performing one rescuer CPR on a middle aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should:
a) apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns
b) continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch
c) move the patch to another area of the patient’s chest and then properly apply the AED pads
d) remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads
D
CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is:
a) prone
b) supine
c) horizontal
d) on a firm surface
A
A 60 y/o man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apnea. You should:
a) start CPR and transport immediately
b) withhold CPR until he is defibrillated
c) determine if he has a valid living will
d) begin CPR until an AED is unavailable
D
CPR should be initiated when:
a) rigor mortis is obvious
b) a valid living will is unavailable
c) the carotid pulse is very weak
d) signs of perfusion are present
B
Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should:
a) remove all bystanders
b) request another ambulance
c) move the patient to safety
d) ensure you are safe
D
A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be:
a) conscious and alert
b) completely unresponsive
c) responsive to verbal stimuli
d) responsive to painful stimuli
D
A patient’s short term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding:
a) time and place
b) date and event
c) event and person
d) person and place
B
A 29 y/o male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His glasgow coma scale (GCS) score is:
a) 10
b) 12
c) 13
d) 14
C
When you inspect a patient’s pupils with a pen light, the pupils should normally react to the light by:
a) constricting
b) enlarging
c) dilating
d) fluttering
A
Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct?
a) it is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway
b) it is caused by incorrect airway positioning
c) it is a high pitched, crowing upper airway sound
d) it suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs
C
Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway?
a) audible breathing
b) forceful coughing
c) inspiratory stridor
d) unresponsiveness
B
A 40 y/o male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal breathing. You should:
a) apply a cervical collar and sanction his airway
b) open his airway with the jaw thrust maneuver
c) apply a pressure dressing to the patient’s arm
d) tilt the patient’s head back and lift the chin
B
After performing a head tilt chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patent who has a pulse,
you should:
a) place him in the recovery position
b) provide CPAP
c) assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity
d) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct
D
A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing:
a) at a normal rate
b) with a shallow depth
c) without difficulty
d) without assistance
D
Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients:
a) who are semiconscious with shallow respirations
b) with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume
c) who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing
d) with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume
D
You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is “sick.” When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to:
a) apply a pulse oximeter
b) request a paramedic unit
c) provide assisted ventilation
d) assess his blood pressure
C
If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately:
a) determine his or her respiratory rate
b) begin assisting his or her breathing
c) reevaluate his or her airway status
d) auscultate his or her breath sounds
C
Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _____ breaths per minute in toddlers and _____ breaths per minute in infants.
a) 18, 28
b) 20, 30
c) 30, 40
d) 40, 60
D
Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs?
a) evaluating the patient’s chest for cyanosis
b) applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2
c) Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope
d) looking for the presence of accessory muscle use
C
Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway?
a) Rales
b) Stridor
c) Crackles
d) Rhonchi
B
Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) shallow chest movement
b) use of accessory muscles
c) supraclavicular retractions
d) gasping attempts to breathe
A
When a patient’s respirations are shallow:
a) chest rise will be easily noticeable
b) tidal volume is markedly reduced
c) oxygenation occurs more efficiently
d) carbon dioxide elimination is increased
B
Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is seen MOST commonly in pediatric patients?
a) Seesaw breathing
b) Rapid respirations
c) Pursed-lip breathing
d) Accessory muscle use
A
An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will:
a) be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses
b) assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing
c) exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs
d) have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min
A
Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse?
a) avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure
b) place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point
c) use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating
d) apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers
B
In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the _____ artery.
a) radial
b) carotid
c) brachial
d) femoral
A
A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he:
a) has abdominal muscle spasms
b) is experienced severe back pain
c) has a decreased level of consciousness
d) is experiencing difficulty breathing
D
When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should:
a) avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously
b) ensure that his head is in a hyperextended state
c) avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected
d) firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak
A
You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8 month old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be able to:
a) open the airway and give two rescue breaths
b) begin chest compressions and request backup
c) immediately transport the child to the hospital
d) assess for a a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds
B
If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed, you should:
a) apply an AED at once
b) immediately begin CPR
c) palpate at another pulse site
d) assess for adequate breathing
B
You respond to the residence of a 62 y/o male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should:
a) start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible
b) ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease
c) perform CPR and transport the patient immediately
d) notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance
A
Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient’s pulse rate to be slower than normal?
a) anxiety or severe stress
b) beta blocker medications
c) internal bleeding from trauma
d) lack of a regular exercise routine
B
When palpating a patient’s pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should:
a) count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy
b) count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four
c) count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two
d) count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading
D
For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between:
a) 50 and 60 beats/min
b) 50 and 70 beats/min
c) 60 and 100 beats/min
d) 70 and 110 beats/min
C
In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _____ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _____ beats/min.
a) 60, 100
b) 50, 110
c) 40, 120
d) 30, 130
A
A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be:
a) weak
b) strong
c) regular
d) irregular
C
When palpating a patient’s pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is:
a) slow
b) rapid
c) irregular
d) thready
B
When assessing a 62 y/o female with a crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then:
a) apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm
b) transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit
c) document your findings and perform a detailed assessment
d) conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age
B
Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear:
a) pink
b) ashen
c) flushed
d) cyanotic
B
When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note the bluish tint to it. This finding is called:
a) pallor
b) flushing
c) cyanosis
d) mottling
C
Cyanosis of the skin is caused by:
a) increased blood oxygen
b) peripheral vasodilation
c) venous vasoconstriction
d) decreased blood oxygen
D
Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be:
a) pink, warm, and dry
b) pale, cool, moist
c) pink, warm, and most
d) flushed, cool, and dry
A
A patient with high blood pressure is expected to have skin that is:
a) flushed and red
b) mottled and cool
c) pale and moist
d) cyanotic and dry
A
A 40 y/o male presents with pain to the upper right quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect:
a) acute pancreatitis
b) liver dysfunction
c) gallbladder disease
d) renal insufficiency
B
A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being:
a) flushed
b) plethoric
c) diaphoretic
d) edematous
C
When you assess capillary refill time in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within:
a) 1 second
b) 2 seconds
c) 3 seconds
d) 4 seconds
B
With regard to the assessment of a patient’s cardiovascular status, refill time is MOST reliable in:
a) patient’s who are younger than 6 years of age
b) patient’s who are significantly hypotensive
c) patients who were exposed to cold temperatures
d) patients who are older than 70 years of age
A
After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to:
a) determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions
b) identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment
c) look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion
d) find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life
B
You should gently palpate a patient’s pelvis only if:
a) you note gross deformity to the pelvic area
b) the patient does not complain of pelvic pain
c) the MOI suggests significant trauma to the pelvis
d) the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out
B
A 71 y/o female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following is NOT indicated for this patient?
a) rapid head-to-toe exam
b) application of a cervical collar
c) treating her for possible shock
d) gentle palpation of the pelvis
D
When assessing a patient’s abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT:
a) subcutaneous emphysema
b) open wounds or eviscerations
c) gross bleeding and tenderness
d) rigidity and obvious bleeding
A
Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport?
a) mild pain in the lower abdomen
b) severe chest pain and cool, pale skin
c) decreased ability to move an extremity
d) responsiveness and ability to follow commands
B
