Final

Question 1

The EMT is legally obligated to protect a patient’s privacy according to:

a) DCAP
b) APGAR
c) HIPAA
d) CQI

Answer 1

C

Question 2

Which of the following courses requires about 150 hours of training?

a) EMT
b) EMR
c) AEMT
d) Paramedic

Answer 2

A

Question 3

National guidelines for EMS care are intended to ________.

a) reduce expenses at the local and state levels
b) facilitate a national EMS labor group
c) unify EMS providers under a single medical director
d) provide more consistent delivery of EMS care across the United States?

Answer 3

D

Question 4

Which of the following interventions is used by all levels of EMS providers?

a) Multilumen airways
b) Needle decompression
c) Automatic transport ventilators
d) Automated external defibrillators

Answer 4

D

Question 5

Online medical control requires_______.

a) written protocols approved by medical control.
b) phone or radio contact with the medical director
c) the presence of an advanced-level provider.
d) a physician’s presence on the scene of the call.

Answer 5

B

Question 6

What should an EMT do to limit errors in the field?

a) Carry an EMT text for reference at all times.
b) Deviate from established standards when necessary
c) Follow the agency’s written protocols
d) Contact medical direction before initiating any treatments.

Answer 6

C

Question 7

American Heart Association protocols are based on________.

a) evidence-based research
b) trends in the EMS community
c) theories ready for field trial
d) opinions from a core group of cardiologists

Answer 7

A

Question 8

The ability to handle multiple tasks based on their priority is called________.

a) patient advocacy
b) integrity
c) time management
d) patient empathy

Answer 8

C

Question 9

The ability to take appropriate action with little direction is known as________.

a) diplomacy
b) self-confidence
c) time management
d) self-motivation

Answer 9

D

Question 10

Which of the following statements regarding the Americans With Disabilities Act (ADA) of 1990 is correct?

a) The ADA applies only to individuals with a diagnosed and well-documented physical disability.
b) The minimum number of hours required to successfully complete an EMT course is less for candidates who are disabled.
c) The ADA prohibits employers from failing to provide full and equal employment to those who are disabled.
d) According to the ADA, EMT candidates with a documented disability are exempt from taking the NREMT exam.

Answer 10

C

Question 11

The ability to understand others and have them understand you is known as______.

a) communication
b) scene leadership
c) self-confidence
d) teamwork and diplomacy

Answer 11

A

Question 12

As an EMT, you may be authorized to administer aspirin to a patient with the chest pain based on:

a) the patient’s condition
b) medical director approval
c) an order from the paramedic
d) the transport time to the hospital

Answer 12

B

Question 13

Vector-borne transmission of an infectious organism occurs via:

a) animals or insects
b) smoke or dust
c) direct contact
d) inanimate objects

Answer 13

A

Question 14

Which of the following statements regarding the different stages of the grieving process is correct?

a) The grieving process typically begins with severe depression
b) It is rare people will jump back and forth between stages
c) The stages of the grieving process may occur simultaneously
d) Bargaining is the most unpleasant stage of the grieving process.

Answer 14

C

Question 15

Common factors that influence how a patient reacts to the stress of an illness or injury include all the following, EXCEPT:

a) assessment by the EMT
b) mental disorders
c) history of chronic disease
d) fear of medical personnel

Answer 15

A

Question 16

While providing care to a patient, blood got onto the ambulance stretcher. Because the stretcher was not properly cleaned afterward, a virus was transmitted to another emergency medical technician (EMT) several days later. What is the route of transmission?

a) Direct contact
b) Indirect contact
c) Airborne transmission
d) Vector-borne transmission

Answer 16

B

Question 17

The EMT’s first priority is______.

a) personal safety
b) rapid response
c) treatment and transport
d) empathy for all patients.

Answer 17

A

Question 18

The simplest, yet most effective method of preventing the spread of an infectious disease is to:

a) undergo an annual physical examination
b) ensure that your immunizations are up-to-date.
c) wash your hands in between patient contacts
d) undergo annual testing for tuberculosis and hepatitis.

Answer 18

C

Question 19

After assessing the patient’s blood glucose level, you accidentally stick yourself with the contaminated lancet. You should:

a) immerse your wound in an alcohol-based solution
b) report the incident to your supervisor after the call
c) get immunized against hepatitis as soon as possible
d) discontinue patient care and seek medical attention

Answer 19

B

Question 20

Which of the following statements regarding HIV is correct?

a) HIV is far more contagious than hepatitis B
b) HIV is easily transmittable in the EMS field
c) HIV is transmitted exclusively via blood
d) There is no vaccine against HIV infection

Answer 20

D

Question 21

Quid pro quo, a type of sexual harassment, occurs when the harasser:

a) requests sexual favors in exchange for something else
b) touches another person without consent
c) stares at certain part’s of another person’s body
d) makes rude remarks about a person’s body parts

Answer 21

A

Question 22

You are transporting an elderly woman who has possibly experienced a stroke. She is obviously scared but is unable to talk and cannot move the entire right side of her body. In addition to providing the medical care that she needs, you should:

a) reassure her that after treatment in the hospital, she will regain her speech in time
b) acknowledge that she is scared and tell her you will take good care of her
c) maintain eye contact at all times and tell her that there is no need for her to be scared
d) tell you understand why she is scared and that everything will be okay

Answer 22

B

Question 23

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you note that two small cars collided head-on; the occupants are still in their vehicles. The fire department is in the process of stabilizing the vehicles and law enforcement personnel are directing traffic. After parking the ambulance at a safe distance, you and your partner should:

a) quickly begin the triage process
b) assist with vehicle stabilization
c) report to the incident commander
d) put on high visibility vests

Answer 23

D

Question 24

Which of the following would provide the EMT with the BEST cover in a situation involving active gunfire?

a) behind a car door
b) a concrete barricade
c) a large cluster of shrubs
d) stacked empty barrels

Answer 24

B

Question 25

As an EMT, the standards of emergency care are often partially based on: a) It is difficult to prove actions were performed if they are not included in the report b) EMTs are not liable for any actions that are accurately documented c) Patient care cannot be discredited based on poor documentation d) Incomplete reports are common and accepted in EMS

Answer 25

A

Question 26

Which of the following general statements regarding consent is correct? a) a patient can consent to transport but can legally refuse to be treated b) patients who are intoxicated are generally allowed to refuse treatment c) expressed consent is valid only if given writing by a family member d) all patients older than 18 years can legally refuse treatment or transport

Answer 26

A

Question 27

Which type of consent is involved when a 39 y/o mentally competent female with a severe headache asks you to take her to the hospital? a) Formal b) Implied c) Informed d) Expressed

Answer 27

D

Question 28

You arrive at the scene of a motor vehicle versus pedestrian accident. The patient, a 13 y/o male, is unconscious and has multiple injuries. As you are treating the child, a law enforcement officer advises you that the child's parents will be at the scene in 15 minutes. What should you do? a) Transport the child immediately and have the parents meet you at the hospital b) Treat the child at the scene and wait for the parent to arrive and give consent c) Begin transport at once and have the parents meet you en route to the hospital d) Withhold treatment until the parents arrive and give you consent for treatment.

Answer 28

A

Question 29

When is forcible restraint permitted? a) Anytime the EMT feels threatened b) Only if consent to restrain is given by a family member c) When the patient poses a significant threat to self and others d) Only if law enforcement personnel have witnessed threatening behavior

Answer 29

C

Question 30

Which aspect of the HIPAA MOST affects EMS personnel? a) controlling insurance costs b) protecting patient privacy c) preventing insurance fraud d) ensuring access to insurance

Answer 30

B

Question 31

You respond to the home of a 59 y/o man who is unconscious; has slow, shallow breathing; and has a weak pulse. The family states that the patient has terminal brain cancer and does not wish to be resuscitated. They further state that there is a DNR order for this patient, but they are unable to locate it. You should: a) begin treatment and contact medical control as needed b) honor the patient's wishes and withhold all treatment c) transport the patient without providing any treatment d) decide on further action once the DNR order is produced

Answer 31

A

Question 32

Putrefaction is defined as: a) decomposition of the body's tissues b) profound cyanosis to the trunk and face c) blood settling to the lowest part of the body d) separation of the torso from the rest of the body

Answer 32

A

Question 33

Where would you MOST likely find information regarding a patient's wishes to be an organ donor? a) driver's license b) insurance card c) social security card d) voter registration card

Answer 33

A

Question 34

The EMT's scope of practice within his or her local response area is defined by the: a) medical director b) state EMS office c) EMS supervisor d) local health district

Answer 34

A

Question 35

In which of the following situations does a legal duty to act clearly exist? a) The EMT witnesses a vehicle crash while off duty b) a call is received 15 minutes prior to shift change c) The EMT hears of a cardiac arrest after his or her shift ends d) A bystander encounters a victim who is not breathing

Answer 35

B

Question 36

Maintaining the chain of evidence at the scene of a crime should include: a) quickly moving any weapons out of the patient's sight b) placing the patient in a private area until the police arrive c) making brief notes at the scene and then completing them later d) not cutting through holes in clothing that were caused by weapons

Answer 36

D

Question 37

Effective therapeutic communication skills require______. a) verbal and nonverbal communication techniques b) english-speaking patients or family members c) supervision by advanced life support personnel d) correct use of complex medical terminology

Answer 37

A

Question 38

Which of the following types of questions allow for the most detailed response? a) yes or no questions b) close ended questions c) open ended questions d) multiple questions asked at once

Answer 38

C

Question 39

Which of the following will help improve radio communication? a) wait 1 second after pressing the transmit button before speaking b) hold the radio at least 6 inches from your mouth c) use codes to speed communication d) answer questions with yes or no

Answer 39

A

Question 40

Ethnocentrism is defined as: a) understanding that people from different cultural backgrounds respond to pain and stress differently b) suspecting that a person has an ulterior motive based on the tone of his or her voice when answering a question c) subconsciously forcing you cultural values onto a patient because you feel that your own values are more acceptable d) considering your own cultural values to be more important when interacting with people of a different culture

Answer 40

D

Question 41

During your assessment of a 20 y/o man with a severe headache and nausea, you ask him when is headache began, but he does not answer your question immediately. You should: a) repeat your question because he probably did not hear you b) allow him more time to think about the question and respond to it c) ask him if he frequently experiences severe headaches and nausea d) tell him that you cannot help him unless he answers your questions.

Answer 41

B

Question 42

When you are communicating with an older patient, it is important to remember that: a) your questions should focus exclusively on the patient's obvious problem b) most older people think clearly and are capable of answering questions c) hostility and confusion should be presumed to be due to the patient's age d) speaking loudly and distinctly will ensure that the patient can hear you

Answer 42

B

Question 43

A 4-year old boy had an apparent seizure. He is conscious and calm and is sitting on his mother's lap. His father is sitting in a nearby chair. The child's mother suddenly begins crying uncontrollably, which causes the child to start crying. You should: a) ask the father to hold the child so you can assess him while your partner tries to calm the mother b) give the child a favorite toy and perform your assessment to the best of your ability c) reassure the child's mother that seizures in children are very common and that there is nothing to worry about d) attempt to calm the mother, but avoid separating her from her child because this will increase anxiety

Answer 43

A

Question 44

Communicating with patients who are deaf or hard of hearing can be facilitated by doing all the following, EXCEPT: a) shining a light on your face when you are in a darkened environment b) elevating the tone of your voice and exaggerating word pronunciation c) placing yourself in a position to ensure that the patient can see your lips d) providing pen and paper if the patient prefers to write his or her response

Answer 44

B

Question 45

As you are wheeling your patient through the emergency department doors, you receive another call for a major motor vehicle crash. You should: a) place the patient in a high visibility area and then respond to the call b) inform the admissions clerk of the situation and then respond at once c) leave a copy of the run form with a nurse and then respond to the call d) respond only after giving a verbal patient to a nurse of physician

Answer 45

D

Question 46

Which of the following statements is NOT appropriate to document in the narrative section. a) "General impression revealed that the patient was intoxicated" b) "Significant damage was noted to the front end of the vehicle" c) "The patient admits to smoking marijuana earlier in the day" d) "After oxygen was administered, the patient's breathing improved"

Answer 46

A

Question 47

Which of the following statements regarding a patient refusal is correct? a) a patient who consumed a few beers will likely be able to refuse EMS treatment b) Advice given to a patient who refuses EMS treatment should not be documented c) A mentally competent adult has the legal right to EMS care and transport d) Documentation of proposed care is unnecessary if the patient refuses treatment

Answer 47

C

Question 48

Which of the following incidents does NOT require a report to be filed with local authorities? a) spousal abuse b) animal bites c) cardiac arrest d) gunshot wounds

Answer 48

C

Question 49

The suffix "-pathy" means: a) enlargement b) study of c) specialist d) disease

Answer 49

D

Question 50

The root "melan/o" means: a) white b) black c) red d) gray

Answer 50

B

Question 51

"Chondro" in the word chondritis means: a) tendon b) rib c) cartilage d) joint

Answer 51

C

Question 52

The meaning "around" can have which of the following prefixes? a) "epi-" and "sub-" b) "sub-" and "infra-" c) "infra-" and "peri-" d) "peri-" and "circum-"

Answer 52

D

Question 53

"Myo" in the word myocarditis means: a) cartilage b) muscle c) bone d) vein

Answer 53

B

Question 54

Which of the family suffixes mean "pertaining to"? a) "-al" and "-ic" b) "-ic" and "-ology" c) "-ology" and "-oma" d) "-al" and "-ology"

Answer 54

A

Question 55

Which of the following suffixes mean "two"? a) "primi-" and "dipl-" b) "dipl-" and "bi-" c) "bi-" and "null-" d) "primi-" and "bi-"

Answer 55

B

Question 56

"Gastro" in the word "gastroenteritis" means: a) intestine b) tongue c) stomach d) bowel

Answer 56

C

Question 57

A 5-year-old boy has fallen and has a severe deformity of the forearm near the wrist. He has possibly sustained a fracture of the ________ forearm. a) proximal b) superior c) dorsal d) distal

Answer 57

D

Question 58

The topographic term used to describe the location of body parts that are closer toward the midline of the body is: a) lateral b) medial c) midaxillary d) midclavicular

Answer 58

B

Question 59

An intoxicated 40-year-old male is found lying face down. How would you document his body's position? a) dorsal b) supine c) prone d) recumbent

Answer 59

C

Question 60

In relation to the chest, the back is: a) ventral b) inferior c) anterior d) posteror

Answer 60

D

Question 61

The ______ of the heart is the inferior portion of the ventricles. a) apex b) base c) dorsum d) septum

Answer 61

A

Question 62

A patient has fractured both femurs. Anatomically, these injuries would be described as being: a) medial b) proximal c) bilateral d) unilateral

Answer 62

C

Question 63

A diabetic patient has polydipsia. This means that she: a) is excessively thirsty b) has low blood sugar c) is unable to swallow d) urinates frequently

Answer 63

A

Question 64

After applying a tourniquet, the injury from a patient's leg stops bleeding. This is called: a) hemostasis b) hemiplegia c) hemolysis d) hematemesis

Answer 64

A

Question 65

The term "pericardiocentesis" means: a) a surgical opening made in the heart b) surgical repair of the sac around the heart c) the removal of fluid from around the heart d) narrowing of the arteries supplying the heart

Answer 65

C

Question 66

EMTs should have a strong working knowledge of medical terminology in order to: a) perform and document more accurate patient assessments b) more clearly explain to patients the nature of their condition c) communicate effectively with other members of the health care team

Answer 66

C

Question 67

You are transporting to a 66 y/o patient with a history of heart problems. The patient chart indicates that he has hepatomegaly. The root term indicates that: a) the problem is with the patient's liver b) the organ involved is enlarged c) the problem is a direct consequence of the patient's heart disease d) the problem is unrelated to the patient's heart condition

Answer 67

A

Question 68

You are transporting to a 67 y/o female patient to the hospital for investigation of abdominal pain. The patient care record indicates that the patient has a history of AAA. Based on this information, the patient care record includes an abbreviation for: a) acute abdominal assessment b) against ambulance advice c) acute abdominal aneurysm d) abdominal aortic aneurysm

Answer 68

D

Question 69

Bile is produced by the liver and concentrated and stored in the: a) kidneys b) pancreas c) stomach d) gallbladder

Answer 69

D

Question 70

The _____ is made up of the maxilla and zygoma, as well as the frontal bone of the cranium. a) orbit b) occiput c) mastoid d) sphenoid

Answer 70

A

Question 71

The brain connects to the spinal cord through a large opening at the base of the skull called the: a) foramen ovule b) vertebral foramen c) spinous foramen d) foramen magnum

Answer 71

D

Question 72

Which of the following structures does NOT contain smooth muscle? a) blood vessels b) urinary system c) skeletal system d) GI tract

Answer 72

C

Question 73

A by-product of the involuntary muscle contraction and relaxation is: a) heat b) oxygen c) nitrogen d) lactic acid

Answer 73

A

Question 74

If a patient's chest barely moves during inhalation, even if the patient's respiratory rate is normal, you should suspect that: a) minute volume is decreased b) inspiratory reserve is increased c) overall tidal volume is increased d) expiratory reserve volume is decreased

Answer 74

A

Question 75

What happens when blood volume is lost from the body? a) arterial blood is diverted to the skin and muscles b) the veins dilate to increase systemic perfusion c) widespread vasodilation causes blood pressure to decrease d) the arteries contract to increase the blood pressure

Answer 75

D

Question 76

A patient has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg. The 130 in their measurement represents: a) atrial contraction b) ventricular filling c) ventricular contraction d) ventricular relaxation

Answer 76

C

Question 77

The central nervous system is composed of the: a) brain and spinal cord b) brain and sensory nerves c) motor and sensory nerves d) spinal cord and sensory nerves

Answer 77

A

Question 78

Which of the following is not a function of the skin? a) sensory reception b) temperature regulation c) metabolic coordination d) pressure and pain perception

Answer 78

C

Question 79

Which organ lies in the lateral and posterior portion of the left upper quadrant of the abdomen? a) liver b) stomach c) cecum d) spleen

Answer 79

D

Question 80

To protect a restrained patient and prevent him from using leverage to break free, the EMT should secure _____. a) both arms above the head b) both arms at the patient's sides c) only the patient's torso d) one arm above the head

Answer 80

D

Question 81

The _____ is both the mechanical weight-bearing base of the spinal column and the fused central posterior section of the pelvic girdle. a) coccyx b) sacrum c) thorax d) ischium

Answer 81

B

Question 82

An EMT may injure his back, even if it is straight, if the: a) back is bent at the hips b) hands are held close to the legs c) shoulder is aligned over the pelvis d) force is exerted straight down the spine

Answer 82

A

Question 83

The proper technique for using the power grip is to: a) lift with palms up b) rotate palms down c) hold the handle with your fingers d) position hands about 6 inches apart

Answer 83

A

Question 84

Which of the following statements regarding patient weight distribution is correct? a) the majority of a horizontal patient's weight is in the torso b) most of the patient's weight rests on the foot end of the stretcher c) a semi-sitting patient's weight is equally distributed on both ends d) The EMT at the patient's head will bear the least amount of the weight

Answer 84

A

Question 85

To minimize the risk of injuring yourself when lifting or moving a patient, you should: a) flex at the waist instead of the hips b) avoid the use of log rolls or body drags c) use a direct carry whenever possible d) keep the weight as close to your body as possible

Answer 85

D

Question 86

Which of the following is the MOST appropriate device to use when immobilizing a patient with a suspected spinal injury? a) long backboard b) scoop stretcher c) portable stretcher d) wheeled stretcher

Answer 86

A

Question 87

To facilitate a safe and coordinated move, the team leader should: a) be positioned at the feet so the team can hear b) use preparatory commands to initiate any moves c) speak softly but clearly to avoid startling the patient d) never become involved in the move, only the direct move

Answer 87

B

Question 88

As you and your partner are carrying a stable patient down a flight of stairs in a stair chair, you feel a sudden, sharp pain in your lower back. You should: a) reposition your hand and continue to move the patient b) stop the move and request additional lifting assistance c) guide your partner while moving the chair backwards d) stop the move and have the patient walk down the stairs

Answer 88

B

Question 89

When pulling a patient, you should extend your arms no more than _____ in front of your torso. a) 5 to 10 inches b) 10 to 15 inches c) 15 to 20 inches d) 20 to 30 inches

Answer 89

C

Question 90

Which of the following statements regarding an emergency patient move is correct? a) the spine must be fully immobilized prior to performing an emergency move b) an emergency move is performed before the primary assessment and treatment c) the patient is dragged against the body's long axis during an emergency move d) it is not possible to perform an emergency move without injuring the patient

Answer 90

B

Question 91

Upon arriving at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, you find a single patient still seated in his car. There are no scene hazards. As you approach the vehicle, you note that the patient is semiconscious and has a large laceration to his forehead. You should: a) direct your partner to apply manual in line support of the patient's head b) apply a cervical collar and quickly remove the patient with a clothes drag c) apply a vest-style extrication device before attempting to move the patient d) slide a long backboard under his buttocks and lay him sideways on the board.

Answer 91

A

Question 92

The MOST serious consequence of a poorly planned or rushed patient move is: a) unnecessarily wasting time b) injury to you or your patient c) causing patient anxiety or fear d) confusion among team members

Answer 92

B

Question 93

Which of the following conditions or situations presents the MOST unique challenge to the EMT when immobilizing an elderly patient on a long backboard? a) joint flexibility b) patient disorientation c) naturally deformed bones d) abnormal spinal curvature

Answer 93

D

Question 94

What is the correct consequence to ventilation ratio for adult CPR? a) 30:1 b) 5:1 c) 3:2 d) 30:2

Answer 94

D

Question 95

Between each chest compression, you should: a) allow full chest recoil b) remove your hands from the chest c) check for a pulse d) administer a breath

Answer 95

A

Question 96

Your conscious patient has a mild partial airway obstruction. You should: a) encourage the patient to cough b) perform abdominal thrusts c) administer back blows d) place the patient supine

Answer 96

A

Question 97

Your partner is performing one rescuer CPR on a middle aged woman in cardiac arrest. When you apply the AED pads, you note that she has a medication patch over the same area where one of the AED pads will be placed. You should: a) apply the AED pad at least 1 inch away from the medication patch to avoid skin burns b) continue CPR until you can determine the name of the medication contained in the patch c) move the patch to another area of the patient's chest and then properly apply the AED pads d) remove the medication patch, wipe away any medication residue, and apply the AED pads

Answer 97

D

Question 98

CPR will NOT be effective if the patient is: a) prone b) supine c) horizontal d) on a firm surface

Answer 98

A

Question 99

A 60 y/o man is found to be unresponsive, pulseless, and apnea. You should: a) start CPR and transport immediately b) withhold CPR until he is defibrillated c) determine if he has a valid living will d) begin CPR until an AED is unavailable

Answer 99

D

Question 100

CPR should be initiated when: a) rigor mortis is obvious b) a valid living will is unavailable c) the carotid pulse is very weak d) signs of perfusion are present

Answer 100

B

Question 101

Upon arriving at a potentially unsafe scene, you should: a) remove all bystanders b) request another ambulance c) move the patient to safety d) ensure you are safe

Answer 101

D

Question 102

A patient who does not respond to your questions, but moves or cries out when his or her trapezius muscle is pinched, is said to be: a) conscious and alert b) completely unresponsive c) responsive to verbal stimuli d) responsive to painful stimuli

Answer 102

D

Question 103

A patient's short term memory is MOST likely intact if he or she correctly answers questions regarding: a) time and place b) date and event c) event and person d) person and place

Answer 103

B

Question 104

A 29 y/o male with a head injury opens his eyes when you speak to him, is confused as to the time and date, and is able to move all of his extremities on command. His glasgow coma scale (GCS) score is: a) 10 b) 12 c) 13 d) 14

Answer 104

C

Question 105

When you inspect a patient's pupils with a pen light, the pupils should normally react to the light by: a) constricting b) enlarging c) dilating d) fluttering

Answer 105

A

Question 106

Which of the following statements regarding stridor is correct? a) it is a whistling sound heard in the lower airway b) it is caused by incorrect airway positioning c) it is a high pitched, crowing upper airway sound d) it suggests the presence of fluid in the lungs

Answer 106

C

Question 107

Which of the following findings indicates that your patient has a patent airway? a) audible breathing b) forceful coughing c) inspiratory stridor d) unresponsiveness

Answer 107

B

Question 108

A 40 y/o male crashed his motorcycle into a tree. He is semiconscious, has snoring respirations, and has a laceration to the forearm with minimal breathing. You should: a) apply a cervical collar and sanction his airway b) open his airway with the jaw thrust maneuver c) apply a pressure dressing to the patient's arm d) tilt the patient's head back and lift the chin

Answer 108

B

Question 109

After performing a head tilt chin lift maneuver to open the airway of an unresponsive patent who has a pulse, you should: a) place him in the recovery position b) provide CPAP c) assess respiratory rate, depth, and regularity d) suction as needed and insert an airway adjunct

Answer 109

D

Question 110

A patient with spontaneous respirations is breathing: a) at a normal rate b) with a shallow depth c) without difficulty d) without assistance

Answer 110

D

Question 111

Supplemental oxygen without assisted ventilation would MOST likely be administered to patients: a) who are semiconscious with shallow respirations b) with rapid respirations and a reduced tidal volume c) who have accessory muscle use and slow breathing d) with difficulty breathing and adequate tidal volume

Answer 111

D

Question 112

You are dispatched to the county jail for an inmate who is "sick." When you arrive, you find the patient, a 33-year-old male, unresponsive. His airway is patent and his respirations are rapid and shallow. Your initial action should be to: a) apply a pulse oximeter b) request a paramedic unit c) provide assisted ventilation d) assess his blood pressure

Answer 112

C

Question 113

If a patient develops difficulty breathing after your primary assessment, you should immediately: a) determine his or her respiratory rate b) begin assisting his or her breathing c) reevaluate his or her airway status d) auscultate his or her breath sounds

Answer 113

C

Question 114

Normal respiratory rates should not exceed _____ breaths per minute in toddlers and _____ breaths per minute in infants. a) 18, 28 b) 20, 30 c) 30, 40 d) 40, 60

Answer 114

D

Question 115

Which of the following is the MOST effective method of assessing the quality of air movement in the lungs? a) evaluating the patient's chest for cyanosis b) applying a pulse oximeter and monitoring the SpO2 c) Auscultating breath sounds with a stethoscope d) looking for the presence of accessory muscle use

Answer 115

C

Question 116

Which of the following abnormal breath sounds indicates obstruction of the upper airway? a) Rales b) Stridor c) Crackles d) Rhonchi

Answer 116

B

Question 117

Clinical signs of labored breathing include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) shallow chest movement b) use of accessory muscles c) supraclavicular retractions d) gasping attempts to breathe

Answer 117

A

Question 118

When a patient's respirations are shallow: a) chest rise will be easily noticeable b) tidal volume is markedly reduced c) oxygenation occurs more efficiently d) carbon dioxide elimination is increased

Answer 118

B

Question 119

Which of the following signs of respiratory distress is seen MOST commonly in pediatric patients? a) Seesaw breathing b) Rapid respirations c) Pursed-lip breathing d) Accessory muscle use

Answer 119

A

Question 120

An adult patient who is NOT experiencing difficulty breathing will: a) be able to speak in complete sentences without unusual pauses b) assume a position that will facilitate effective and easy breathing c) exhibit an indentation above the clavicles and in between the ribs d) have a respiratory rate that is between 20 and 24 breaths/min

Answer 120

A

Question 121

Which of the following is the MOST accurate guide to palpating a pulse? a) avoid compressing the artery against a bone or solid structure b) place the tips of your index and long fingers over the pulse point c) use your thumb to increase the surface area that you are palpating d) apply firm pressure to the artery with your ring and little fingers

Answer 121

B

Question 122

In responsive patients who are older than 1 year of age, you should palpate the pulse at the _____ artery. a) radial b) carotid c) brachial d) femoral

Answer 122

A

Question 123

A patient is sitting in a chair, leaning forward on his outstretched arms. His head and chin are thrust forward. This position indicates that he: a) has abdominal muscle spasms b) is experienced severe back pain c) has a decreased level of consciousness d) is experiencing difficulty breathing

Answer 123

D

Question 124

When palpating the carotid pulse of a responsive patient, you should: a) avoid compressing both carotid arteries simultaneously b) ensure that his head is in a hyperextended state c) avoid gentle pressure so that weak pulses can be detected d) firmly compress the artery because the pulse is often weak

Answer 124

A

Question 125

You receive a call to a daycare center for an unresponsive 8 month old infant. Upon arrival, you perform an assessment and determine that the infant is not breathing. Your next action should be able to: a) open the airway and give two rescue breaths b) begin chest compressions and request backup c) immediately transport the child to the hospital d) assess for a a brachial pulse for 5 to 10 seconds

Answer 125

B

Question 126

If you cannot palpate a pulse in an unresponsive patient whose collapse was not witnessed, you should: a) apply an AED at once b) immediately begin CPR c) palpate at another pulse site d) assess for adequate breathing

Answer 126

B

Question 127

You respond to the residence of a 62 y/o male who is unresponsive. Your primary assessment reveals that he is apneic and pulseless. You should: a) start CPR and attach the AED as soon as possible b) ask the family if the patient has a terminal disease c) perform CPR and transport the patient immediately d) notify dispatch and request a paramedic ambulance

Answer 127

A

Question 128

Which of the following factors would MOST likely cause a patient's pulse rate to be slower than normal? a) anxiety or severe stress b) beta blocker medications c) internal bleeding from trauma d) lack of a regular exercise routine

Answer 128

B

Question 129

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that it is grossly irregular. You should: a) count the pulse rate for at least 30 seconds to ensure accuracy b) count the number of pulsations in 15 seconds and multiply by four c) count the number of pulsations in 30 seconds and multiply by two d) count the pulse rate for a full minute to obtain an accurate reading

Answer 129

D

Question 130

For an adult, the normal resting pulse should be between: a) 50 and 60 beats/min b) 50 and 70 beats/min c) 60 and 100 beats/min d) 70 and 110 beats/min

Answer 130

C

Question 131

In the adult, bradycardia is defined as a pulse rate less than _____ beats/min, and tachycardia is defined as a heart rate greater than _____ beats/min. a) 60, 100 b) 50, 110 c) 40, 120 d) 30, 130

Answer 131

A

Question 132

A pulse with a consistent pattern is considered to be: a) weak b) strong c) regular d) irregular

Answer 132

C

Question 133

When palpating a patient's pulse, you note that there is a short interval between pulsations. This indicates that the pulse is: a) slow b) rapid c) irregular d) thready

Answer 133

B

Question 134

When assessing a 62 y/o female with a crushing chest pain, you note that her pulse is rapid and irregular. You should administer supplemental oxygen if needed and then: a) apply the AED and analyze her cardiac rhythm b) transport at once and consider requesting a paramedic unit c) document your findings and perform a detailed assessment d) conclude that the irregular pulse is normal based on her age

Answer 134

B

Question 135

Poor peripheral circulation will cause the skin to appear: a) pink b) ashen c) flushed d) cyanotic

Answer 135

B

Question 136

When assessing the skin of an unresponsive patient, you note the bluish tint to it. This finding is called: a) pallor b) flushing c) cyanosis d) mottling

Answer 136

C

Question 137

Cyanosis of the skin is caused by: a) increased blood oxygen b) peripheral vasodilation c) venous vasoconstriction d) decreased blood oxygen

Answer 137

D

Question 138

Normal skin color, temperature, and condition should be: a) pink, warm, and dry b) pale, cool, moist c) pink, warm, and most d) flushed, cool, and dry

Answer 138

A

Question 139

A patient with high blood pressure is expected to have skin that is: a) flushed and red b) mottled and cool c) pale and moist d) cyanotic and dry

Answer 139

A

Question 140

A 40 y/o male presents with pain to the upper right quadrant of his abdomen. He is conscious and alert with stable vital signs. During your assessment, you note that his skin and sclera are jaundiced. You should suspect: a) acute pancreatitis b) liver dysfunction c) gallbladder disease d) renal insufficiency

Answer 140

B

Question 141

A patient with profuse sweating is referred to as being: a) flushed b) plethoric c) diaphoretic d) edematous

Answer 141

C

Question 142

When you assess capillary refill time in an infant, normal color to the tested area should return within: a) 1 second b) 2 seconds c) 3 seconds d) 4 seconds

Answer 142

B

Question 143

With regard to the assessment of a patient's cardiovascular status, refill time is MOST reliable in: a) patient's who are younger than 6 years of age b) patient's who are significantly hypotensive c) patients who were exposed to cold temperatures d) patients who are older than 70 years of age

Answer 143

A

Question 144

After performing a primary assessment, a rapid exam of the body should be performed to: a) determine the need for spinal motion restriction precautions b) identify less-obvious injuries that require immediate treatment c) look specifically for signs and symptoms of inadequate perfusion d) find and treat injuries or conditions that do not pose a threat to life

Answer 144

B

Question 145

You should gently palpate a patient's pelvis only if: a) you note gross deformity to the pelvic area b) the patient does not complain of pelvic pain c) the MOI suggests significant trauma to the pelvis d) the possibility of a pelvic fracture has been ruled out

Answer 145

B

Question 146

A 71 y/o female slipped on a rug and fell. She is conscious and alert and complains of severe pelvic pain. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min with adequate depth and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Which of the following is NOT indicated for this patient? a) rapid head-to-toe exam b) application of a cervical collar c) treating her for possible shock d) gentle palpation of the pelvis

Answer 146

D

Question 147

When assessing a patient's abdomen, you will evaluate for all of the following, EXCEPT: a) subcutaneous emphysema b) open wounds or eviscerations c) gross bleeding and tenderness d) rigidity and obvious bleeding

Answer 147

A

Question 148

Which of the following situations or conditions warrants immediate transport? a) mild pain in the lower abdomen b) severe chest pain and cool, pale skin c) decreased ability to move an extremity d) responsiveness and ability to follow commands

Answer 148

B

Question 149

When performing a rapid exam on a supine patient, what part of the body is typically assessed last: a) abdomen b) posterior c) extremities d) anterior chest

Answer 149

B

Question 150

As you assess the head of a patient with a suspected spinal injury, your partner should: a) maintain stabilization of the head b) look in the ears for gross bleeding c) prepare the immobilization equipment d) assess the rest of the body for bleeding

Answer 150

A

Question 151

A 50 y/o male presents with altered mental status. His wife tells you that he had a "small stroke" three years ago but has otherwise been in good health. The patient is responsive but unable to follow commands. After administering oxygen if needed, you should: a) repeat the primary assessment b) inquire about his family history c) prepare for immediate transport d) perform a head to toe assessment

Answer 151

C

Question 152

The "Golden Hour" begins when an injury occurs occurs and ends when: a) the patient receives definitive care b) the patient is admitted to the ICU c) you depart the scene for the hospital d) you arrive at the emergency department

Answer 152

A

Question 153

As time progresses following a significant injury: a) the patient's blood pressure elevates significantly b) the patient's injuries will most likely be irreparable c) most patients will die secondary to internal bleeding d) the body's ability to compensate for shock decreases

Answer 153

D

Question 154

During a 30-minute transport of a stable patient, you should reassess him or her at least _____ times. a) 2 b) 3 c) 4 d) 6

Answer 154

A

Question 155

What part of the patient assessment processes focuses on obtaining additional information about the patient's chief complaint and any medical problems he or she may have? a) history taking b) general impression c) primary assessment d) secondary assessment

Answer 155

A

Question 156

Upon arriving at the scene of a patient with difficulty breathing, you determine that the scene is safe. You enter the residence and find the patient sitting in a chair in respiratory distress. Your first action should be to: a) ask the patient what's wrong b) obtain a set of baseline vital signs c) assess the patient's airway status d) introduce yourself to the patient

Answer 156

D

Question 157

Which of the following questions is used to determine a patient's chief complaint? a) what seems to be the matter? b) when did the chest begin? c) are you having trouble breathing? d) do you have a history of diabetes?

Answer 157

A

Question 158

When interviewing a patient, you can show him or her that you understand the situation by: a) repeating statements back to him or her b) using medical terminology whenever possible c) maintaining constant eye contact with him or her d) interrupting him or her as needed for clarification

Answer 158

A

Question 159

Which of the following medical history questions would be of LEAST pertinence in an acute situation? a) does the pain stay in your chest? b) does your mother have diabetes? c) has this ever happened to you before? d) are there medications that you cannot take?

Answer 159

B

Question 160

Which of the following questions would you ask a patient to ascertain the "M" in the SAMPLE history? a) have you ever had any major surgeries? b) how long have you had your chest pain? c) how much Tylenol do you take each day? d) When was the last time you ate a meal?

Answer 160

C

Question 161

Which of the following patient responses would establish the "E" in the SAMPLE history? a) I was in the hospital a week ago b) I am not having any difficulty breathing c) The chest pain started about 45 minutes ago d) I was mowing the lawn when the pain began

Answer 161

D

Question 162

Palliating factors regarding a patient's pain involve those that: a) worsen the pain b) alleviate the pain c) initiate the pain d) change the pain

Answer 162

B

Question 163

Pain that moves from its point of origin to another body location is said to be: a) radiating b) referred c) palliating d) provoking

Answer 163

A

Question 164

In which of the following situations is a pertinent negative identified? a) a 50 y/o woman states that nothing makes her chest pain better or worse b) a 53 y/o man with dizziness also tells you that he has vomited three times c) a 56 y/o woman states that her chest hurts when she takes a deep breath d) a 59 y/o man complains of crushing chest pain but denies shortness of breath

Answer 164

D

Question 165

When using the pulse oximeter as part of your assessment of a patient, it is important to remember that: a) pulse oximetry is especially useful in patients who have cold extremities because vasoconstriction forces blood to the capillary beds b) carbon monoxide has no effect on pulse oximetry readings because the pulse oximeter presumes that oxygen is saturating the hemoglobin c) as long as the patient's oxygen saturation is greater than 95%, oxygen is usually not necessary, even if the patient is experiencing respiratory distress d) any situation that causes vasoconstriction or loss of red blood cells, such as anemia or bleeding, may result in an inaccurate or misleading value

Answer 165

D

Question 166

Capnography is used to: a) determine how much carbon dioxide is being exhaled b) assess how much oxygen is bound to hemoglobin c) trend a patient's blood pressure and assess for shock d) assess how much oxygen is reaching the body's tissues

Answer 166

A

Question 167

Which of the following assessment would be the MOST useful in determining the possible cause of a patient's altered mental status? a) respiratory rate b) blood pressure c) blood glucose level d) capillary refill time

Answer 167

C

Question 168

Which of the following would the EMT likely NOT perform on a responsive patient with a headache and no apparent life-threatening conditions? a) focused secondary assessment b) assessment of oxygen saturation c) systematic head to toe examination d) noninvasive blood pressure monitoring

Answer 168

C

Question 169

The goal of the systematic head-to-toe exam that is performed during the secondary assessment is to: a) detect and treat all non-life threatening injuries b) asses only the parts of the body that are injured c) definitively rule out significant internal injuries d) locate the injuries not found in the primary assessment

Answer 169

D

Question 170

The systematic head-to-toe assessment should be performed on: a) stable patients who are able to tell you exactly what happened b) all patients with traumatic injuries who will require EMS transport c) responsive medical patients and patients without a significant MOI d) patients with a significant MOI and unresponsive medical patients

Answer 170

D

Question 171

When performing the secondary assessment on a trauma patient, you note the presence of Battle sign. This is defined as: a) unequal pupils b) bruising behind the ear c) swelling to the orbital area d) fluid drainage from the nose

Answer 171

B

Question 172

A decrease in blood pressure may indicate: a) loss of vascular tone b) arterial constriction c) increased blood volume d) forceful cardiac contraction

Answer 172

A

Question 173

The pressure exerted against the walls of the artery when the left ventricle contracts is called the: a) blood pressure b) systolic pressure c) diastolic pressure d) pulse pressure

Answer 173

B

Question 174

The diastolic blood pressure represents the: a) average pressure against the arterial walls during a cardiac cycle b) minimum amount of pressure that is always present in the arteries c) increased arterial pressure that occurs during ventricular contraction d) difference in pressure between ventricular contraction and relaxation

Answer 174

B

Question 175

While evaluating a patient with chest pain, your partner tells you that the patient's blood pressure is 140/94 mmHg. The lower number represents the pressure from the: a) atria relaxing b) atria contracting c) ventricles relaxing d) ventricles contracting

Answer 175

C

Question 176

A blood pressure cuff that is too small for a patient's arm will give a: a) falsely low systolic and diastolic reading b) falsely high systolic but low diastolic reading c) falsely high systolic and diastolic reading d) falsely low systolic but high diastolic reading

Answer 176

C

Question 177

A properly sized blood pressure cuff should cover: a) two thirds the length form the armpit to the crease at the elbow b) one half the length between the armpit and the crease at the elbow c) one third the length from the armpit to the crease at the elbow d) the entire upper arm between the armpit and the crease at the elbow

Answer 177

A

Question 178

Which of the following statements regarding blood pressure is correct? a) The systolic pressure represents ventricular relaxation b) blood pressure falls early in patients with hypo perfusion c) blood pressure is the most reliable indicator of perfusion d) blood pressure is usually not measured in children younger than 3 years of age

Answer 178

D

Question 179

When auscultating the blood pressure in a patient's upper extremity, you should place the head of the stethoscope over the _____ artery. a) radial b) apical c) femoral d) brachial

Answer 179

D

Question 180

When you use the palpation method to obtain a blood pressure, the measurement you obtain is the: a) pulse pressure b) systolic blood pressure c) diastolic blood pressure d) cardiac output pressure

Answer 180

B

Question 181

When assessing motor function in a conscious patient's lower extremities, you expect the patient to: a) wiggle his or her toes on command b) feel you touching the extremity c) note any changes in temperatures d) identify different types of stimuli

Answer 181

A

Question 182

A crackling sound produced by air bubbles under the skin is called: a) crepitus b) rhonchi c) Korotkoff sounds d) subcutaneous emphysema

Answer 182

D

Question 183

Jugular venous dissension suggests a problem with blood returning to the heart if the patient is: a) in a supine position b) in a prone position c) in a recumbent position d) sitting up at a 45 degree angle

Answer 183

D

Question 184

Which of the following MOST accurately describes paradoxical movement of the chest wall? a) multiple rib fractures that cause a marked deformity of the chest wall b) a marked decrease in chest wall movement due to abdominal breathing c) only one section of the chest rises on inspiration, while another area falls

Answer 184

C

Question 185

Inadequate circulation of blood throughout the body is called: a) hypotension b) shock c) perfusion d) hypoxia

Answer 185

B

Question 186

What are the three components of the perfusion triangle? a) arteries, veins, capillaries b) plasma, red blood cells, platelets c) heart, brain, lungs d) heart, blood vessels, blood

Answer 186

D

Question 187

You suspect your patient is in shock. You note the patient's skin is pale. This is likely due to _____. a) an increased heart rate b) peripheral vasodilation c) peripheral vasoconstriction d) hypothermia

Answer 187

C

Question 188

Shock due to severe infection is called _____. a) septic chock b) neurogenic shock c) anaphylactic shock d) hypovolemic shock

Answer 188

A

Question 189

Your patient has a decreased cardiac output and poor myocardial contractility. This will likely lead to _____. a) hypovolemic shock b) cardiogenic shock c) neurogenic shock d) septic shock

Answer 189

B

Question 190

Foods, medication, and insects are common causes of _____. a) septic shock b) anaphylactic shock c) neurogenic shock d) psychogenic shock

Answer 190

B

Question 191

Your patient is in shock, but the body's defense mechanisms are currently able to maintain adequate circulation. This is called _____. a) compensated shock b) decompensated shock c) late shock d) irreversible shock

Answer 191

A

Question 192

A you approach a patient lying at the side of the roadway, you observe severe bleeding from the leg. What should your first action be? a) check for a pulse b) control the bleeding c) open the airway d) administer oxygen

Answer 192

B

Question 193

When should non lifesaving interventions be performed for your multi system trauma patient? a) en route to the hospital b) prior to transport c) during the primary assessment d) immediately after the injuries are discovered

Answer 193

A

Question 194

To protect vital organs, the body compensates by directing blood flow away from organs that are more tolerant of low flow, such as: a) skin b) heart c) brain d) lungs

Answer 194

A

Question 195

Pulmonary edema and impaired ventilation occur during: a) septic shock b) neurogenic shock c) cariogenic shock d) anaphylactic shock

Answer 195

C

Question 196

Which of the following injuries would MOST likely cause obstructive shock? a) liver laceration b) cardiac tamponade c) simple pneumothorax d) spinal cord injury

Answer 196

B

Question 197

Distributive shock occurs when: a) an injury causes restriction of the heart muscle and impairs its pumping function b) severe bleeding causes tachycardia in order to distribute blood to the organs faster c) temporary but severe vasodilation causes a decrease in blood supply to the brain d) widespread dilation of the blood vessels causes blood to pool in the vascular beds

Answer 197

D

Question 198

In an acute setting, neurogenic shock is commonly accompanied by: a) hypovolemia b) tachycardia c) diaphoresis d) hypothermia

Answer 198

D

Question 199

Hypovolemic shock caused by severe burns is the result of a loss of: a) plasma b) platelets c) whole blood d) red blood cells

Answer 199

A

Question 200

When assessing a patient with signs and symptoms of shock, it is important to remember that: a) the patient's respirations are deep during the early stages of shock b) blood pressure may be the last measurable factor to change in shock c) multiple fractures are the most common cause of hypovolemic shock d) irreversible shock ofter responds well to a prompt blood transfusion

Answer 200

B

Question 201

The leaf shaped structure located superior to the larynx is called the: a) epiglottis b) vallecula c) cricoid ring d) thyroid cartilage

Answer 201

A

Question 202

Structures of the lower airway include all the following, EXCEPT: a) alveoli b) the trachea c) the epiglottis d) bronchioles

Answer 202

C

Question 203

Which of the following structures is contained within the mediastinum: a) lungs b) larynx c) bronchioles d) esophagus

Answer 203

D

Question 204

Inhalation occurs when the: a) diaphragm and intercostal muscles relax and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure b) diaphragm and intercostal muscles ascend and cause an increase in intrathoracic pressure c) diaphragm and intercostal muscles contract and cause a decrease in intrathoracic pressure d) diaphragm ascends and the intercostal muscles contract, causing a decrease in intrathoracic pressure

Answer 204

C

Question 205

The diaphragm is innervated by the _____ nerve, which allows it to contract. a) vagus b) phrenic c) hypoglossal d) vestibulocochlear

Answer 205

B

Question 206

The partial pressure of oxygen in the alveoli is _____ mm Hg, while the partial pressure of carbon dioxide in the alveoli is _____ mm Hg. a) 70, 28 b) 88, 30 c) 90. 50 d) 104, 40

Answer 206

D

Question 207

Which of the following factors will cause a decreased minute volume in an adult? a) shallow breathing b) increased tidal volume c) respirations of 20 breaths/min d) slight decrease in respiratory rate

Answer 207

A

Question 208

In contrast to inhalation, exhalation: a) requires muscular effort to effectively expel air from the lungs b) is a passive process caused by increased intrathoracic pressure c) occurs when the diaphragm lowers and expels air from the lungs d) is an active process caused by the decreased intrathoracic pressure

Answer 208

B

Question 209

The hypoxic drive is influenced by: a) high blood oxygen levels b) low blood oxygen levels c) low blood carbon dioxide levels d) high blood carbon dioxide levels

Answer 209

B

Question 210

Which of the is a late sign of hypoxia? a) anxiety b) cyanosis c) tachycardia d) restlessness

Answer 210

B

Question 211

Which of the following statements regarding oxygenation and ventilation is correct? a) In carbon monoxide (CO) poisoning, ventilation is impaired because CO binds to oxygen very quickly b) Oxygenation is the movement of air into and out of the lungs, whereas ventilation is the exchange of gases c) In mines or confined places, where oxygen levels are low, ventilation may continue despite adequate oxygenation d) Oxygenation without adequate ventilation can occur in climbers who quick ascend to an altitude of lower atmospheric pressure

Answer 211

C

Question 212

The process of exchanging oxygen and carbon dioxide between the alveoli and the blood of the capillaries is called: a) external respiration b) cellular metabolism c) pulmonary ventilation d) alveolar ventilation

Answer 212

A

Question 213

Gas exchange in the lungs is facilitated by: a) adequate amounts of surfactant b) water or blood within the alveoli c) surfactant destroying organisms d) pulmonary capillary constriction

Answer 213

A

Question 214

Without adequate oxygen, the body's cells: a) rely solely on glucose, which is completely converted into adenosine triphosphate b) cease metabolism altogether, resulting in carbon dioxide accumulation in the blood c) begin to metabolize fat, resulting in the production and accumulation of ketoacids d) incompletely convert glucose into energy, and lactic acid accumulates in the blood

Answer 214

D

Question 215

The primary waste product of aerobic metabolism is: a) lactic acid b) pyruvic acid c) carbon dioxide d) adenosine triphosphate

Answer 215

C

Question 216

Central chemoreceptors located in the medulla provide feedback to increase the rate and depth of breathing when they sense: a) slight increases in carbon dioxide or a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid b) slight decreases in carbon dioxide and an increase an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid c) decreased levels of oxygen in the blood and an increase in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid d) increased levels of oxygen in the blood and a decrease in the pH of the cerebrospinal fluid

Answer 216

A

Question 217

A ventilation/perfusion (V/Q ratio) mismatch occurs when: a) ventilation is inadequate due to a traumatic injury or medical condition, which results in an impairment in pulmonary gas exchange b) a disruption in blood flow inhibits the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide in the lungs, even though the alveoli are filled with fresh oxygen c) ventilation is compromised, resulting in the accumulation of carbon dioxide in the bloodstream, alveoli, and the tissues and cells of the body d) a traumatic injury or medical condition impairs the body's ability to effectively bring oxygen into the lungs and remove carbon dioxide from the body

Answer 217

B

Question 218

Intrapulmonary shunting occurs when: a) the presence of pulmonary surfactant causes a decrease in alveolar surface tension, thus impairing the exchange of gases into lungs b) a decrease in respiratory rate and depth causes carbon dioxide accumulation in the alveoli and an overall decrease in blood oxygen levels c) blood coming from the right side of the heart bypasses nonfunctional alveoli and returns to the left side of the heart in an unoxygenated state' d) any impairment in circulatory function causes a reduced ability for oxygen and carbon dioxide to diffuse across the alveolar capillary membrane

Answer 218

C

Question 219

An unconscious patient found in a prone position must be placed in a supine position in case he or she: a) requires CPR b) begins to vomit c) regains consciousness d) has increased tidal volume

Answer 219

A

Question 220

To select the proper size oropharyngeal airway, you should measure from the: a) corner of the mouth to the earlobe b) center of the mouth to the posterior ear c) corner of the mouth to the superior ear d) angle of the jaw to the center of the mouth

Answer 220

A

Question 221

A nasopharyngeal airway is inserted: a) with the bevel facing the septum b) with the larger nostril with the tip pointing away from the septum c) with the bevel pointing downward if inserted into the left nare d) into the smaller nostril with the tip following the roof of the nose

Answer 221

A

Question 222

The MOST significant complication associated with the oropharyngeal suctioning is: a) oral abrasions from vigorous suctioning b) hypoxia due to prolonged suction attempts c) clogging of the catheter with thick secretions d) vomiting from stimulating the anterior airway

Answer 222

B

Question 223

Proper technique for suctioning the oropharynx of an adult patient includes: a) continuously suctioning patients with copious oral secretions b) suctioning while withdrawing the catheter from the oropharynx c) removing large, solid objects with a tonsil tip suction catheter d) suctioning for up to 1 minute if the patient is well oxygenated

Answer 223

B

Question 224

A 23 y/o male experienced severe head trauma after his motorcycle collided with an oncoming truck. He is unconscious, has rapid and shallow breathing, and has copious bloody secretions in his mouth. How would you manage his airway? a) suction his oropharynx with a rigid catheter until all secretions are removed b) insert a nasopharyngeal airway and provide suction and assisted ventilations c) alternate 15 seconds of oral suctioning with 2 minutes of assisted ventilation d) provide continuous ventilations with a bag valve mask to minimize hypoxia

Answer 224

C

Question 225

Which of the following organs or tissues can survive the longest without oxygen? a) muscle b) heart c) liver d) kidney

Answer 225

A

Question 226

The pressure of gas in a full cylinder of oxygen is approx _____ pounds per square inch (psi). a) 500 b) 1,000 c) 2,000 d) 3,000

Answer 226

C

Question 227

Which of the following oxygen flowmeters is NOT affected by gravity and can be used in any position when attached to an oxygen cylinder? a) vertical-position flowmeter b) Bourdon-guage flowmeter c) Ball-and-float flowmeter d) Pressure-Compensated flowmeter

Answer 227

B

Question 228

An oxygen cylinder should be taken out of service and refilled when the pressure inside it is less than: a) 200 psi b) 500 psi c) 1,000 psi d) 1,500 psi

Answer 228

B

Question 229

Based on current guidelines, in which of the following situations should supplemental oxygen be administered? a) signs of myocardial infarction and an oxygen saturation of 97% b) exposure to carbon monoxide and an oxygen saturation of 95% c) any diabetic patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 98% d) any elderly patient whose oxygen saturation is less than 95%

Answer 229

B

Question 230

With a good mask to face seal and an oxygen flow rate of 15 L/min, the nonrebreathing mask is capable of delivering up to _____ % inspired oxygen. a) 70 b) 80 c) 90 d) 100

Answer 230

C

Question 231

Prior to applying a nonrebreathing mask to a patient, you must ensure that the: a) one way valve is sealed b) flow rate is set at 6 L/min c) reservoir bag is fully inflated d) patient has reduced tidal volume

Answer 231

C

Question 232

At a flow rate of 6 L/min, a nasal cannula can deliver an approximate oxygen concentration of up to: a) 24% b) 35% c) 44% d) 52%

Answer 232

C

Question 233

The main advantage of the Ventuteri mask is: a) the ability to adjust the percentage of inspired oxygen when caring for a critically ill or injured patient b) the use of its fine adjustment capabilities in the long term management of physiologically stable patients c) that it does not contain an oxygen reservoir, so the same percentage of oxygen can consistently be administered d) the ability to adjust the amount of oxygen administered to the patient by increasing the flow rate on the regulator

Answer 233

B

Question 234

A 51 y/o female presents with a sudden onset of difficulty breathing. She is conscious and alert and able to speak in complete sentences. Her respirations are 22 breaths/min and regular. You should: a) administer oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask b) insert a nasal airway in case her mental status decreases c) perform a secondary assessment and then begin treatment d) assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask

Answer 234

A

Question 235

As the single EMT managing an apneic patient's airway, the preferred initial method of providing ventilations is the: a) mouth to mouth technique b) one-person bag-valve mask c) manually triggered ventilation device d) mouth to mouth technique with a one way valve

Answer 235

D

Question 236

Which of the following statements regarding positive pressure ventilation is correct? a) positive pressure ventilation allows blood to naturally be pulled back to the heart from the body b) with positive pressure ventilation, more volume is required to have the same effects as normal breathing c) to prevent hypotension, the EMT should increase the rate and force of positive pressure ventilation d) unlike negative pressure ventilation, positive pressure ventilation does not affect the esophageal opening pressure

Answer 236

B

Question 237

You are ventilating a 40 y/o uninjured man who is apneic but has a pulse. When your partner reassesses his blood pressure, she notes that it has decreased significantly from previous readings. You should: a) reduce the rate or volume of the ventilations you are delivering b) perform a head-to-toe assessment to look for signs of bleeding c) increase the volume of your ventilations and reassess his blood pressure d) increase the rate at which you are ventilating and reassess his blood pressure

Answer 237

A

Question 238

You and your partner are caring for a critically injured patient. Your partner is controlling severe bleeding from the patient's lower extremities as you attempt ventilations with a bag-valve mask. After repositioning the mask several times, you are unable to effectively ventilate the patient. You should: a) begin ventilations using the mouth to mouth technique b) hyperextend the patient's head and reattempt ventilations c) continue attempted ventilations and transport immediately d) suction the patient's airway for 30 seconds and reattempt ventilations

Answer 238

A

Question 239

Which of the following statements regarding the one-person bag-valve mask technique is correct? a) bag valve mask ventilations should be delivered every 2 seconds when the device is being operated by one person b) the c-clamp method of holding the mask to the face is not effective when ventilating a patient with a bag-valve mask c) adequate tidal volume is often difficult to achieve when one EMT is operating the bag-valve mask d) the bag-valve mask delivers more tidal volume and a higher oxygen concentration than the mouth to mouth technique

Answer 239

C

Question 240

Despite your attempts to coach a conscious young female's respirations, she continues to hyperventilate with a marked reduction in tidal volume. You should: a) restrain her and provide ventilatory assistance b) insert a nasopharyngeal airway and give oxygen c) explain to her that you will assist her ventilations d) ventilate her at a rate at which she is breathing

Answer 240

C

Question 241

Your protocols state that during the first few minutes of working on a cardiac arrest patient, you should provide passive ventilation. This means that you will: a) deliver positive pressure ventilation at a rate of only 5-6 breaths/min b) ventilate with a bag-valve mask that is not attached to oxygen c) time your positive pressure ventilations to occur during chest recoil d) allow recoil of the chest between compressions to draw air into the lungs

Answer 241

D

Question 242

Complications associated with using a manually triggered ventilation device include: a) inadequate ventilation and hypercabia b) lung tissue injury and gastric distention c) inadequate oxygenation and tracheal injury d) reduced tidal volume delivery and hypoxia

Answer 242

B

Question 243

While eating dinner, your partner suddenly grabs his throat and has a panicked look on his face. He has a weak cough, faint inspiratory stridor, and cyanosis around the lips. You should: a) encourage him to cough b) deliver up to five back blows and reassess him c) place him in a supine position and open his airway d) stand behind him and administer abdominal thrusts

Answer 243

D

Question 244

You are ventilating an apneic woman with a bag valve mask. She has dentures, which are tight fitting. Adequate chest rise is present with each ventilation, and the patient's oxygen saturation reads 96%. When you reassess the patency of her airway, you note that her dentures are now loose, although your ventilations are still producing adequate chest rise. You should: a) remove her dentures, resume ventilations, and assess adequate chest rise b) attempt to replace her dentures so that they fit tightly and resume ventilations c) leave her dentures in place, but carefully monitor her airway for an airway obstruction d) remove her dentures at once and increase the rate and volume of your ventilations

Answer 244

A

Question 245

While providing CPAP to a patient in severe respiratory distress, you note that his heart rate has increased by 20 beats/min. He is conscious, but is no longer following verbal commands. You should: a) decrease the amount of pressure that the CPAP is delivering b) remove the CPAP device and ventilate him with a bag-valve mask c) increase the amount of pressure that the CPAP divide is delivering d) remove the CPAP device and apply oxygen by nonrebreathing mask

Answer 245

B

Question 246

Which of the following would cause an increase in the amount of exhaled carbon dioxide? a) increased cardiac output b) cardioplumonary arrest c) anaerobic metabolism d) excessive ventilation

Answer 246

A

Question 247

Which of the following statements regarding normal gas exchange in the lungs is correct? a) the oxygen content in the alveoli is highest during exhalation phase b) oxygen and carbon dioxide diffuse across the alveolar walls and capillaries c) the actual exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide occurs in the capillaries d) blood that returns to the lungs from the body has low levels of carbon dioxide

Answer 247

B

Question 248

Which of the following structures is NOT found in the upper airway? a) larynx b) pharynx c) bronchus d) oropharynx

Answer 248

C

Question 249

The physical act of moving air into and out of the lungs is called: a) diffusion b) ventilation c) respiration d) oxygenation

Answer 249

B

Question 250

Which of the following patients is breathing adequately? a) a conscious male with respirations of 19 breaths/min and pink skin b) a conscious female with facial cyanosis and rapid, shallow respirations c) a conscious male with respirations of 18 breaths/min and reduced tidal volume d) an unconscious 52 y/o female with snoring respirations and cool, pale, skin

Answer 250

A

Question 251

Dyspnea is MOST accurately defined as: a) shortness of breath or difficulty breathing b) a complete cessation of respiratory effort c) a marked increase in the exhalation phase d) labored breathing with reduced tidal volume

Answer 251

A

Question 252

When the level of arterial carbon dioxide rises above normal: a) the brain stem inhibits respirations b) respirations increase in rate and depth c) exhalation lasts longer than inhalation d) respirations decrease in rate and depth

Answer 252

C

Question 253

An alert patient presents with a regular pattern of inhalation and exhalation and breadth sounds that are clear and equal on both sides of the chest. These findings are consistent with: a) an obstructed airway b) adequate air exchange c) respiratory difficulty d) respiratory insufficiency

Answer 253

B

Question 254

Which of the following statements regarding the hypoxic drive is correct? a) the hypoxic drive stimulates a person to breathe on the basis of low oxygen levels. b) chronic carbon dioxide elimination often results in activation of the hypoxic drive c) the hypoxic drive serves as the primary stimulus for breathing in healthy individuals d) 100% supplemental oxygen will always cause apnea in patients with a hypoxic drive

Answer 254

A

Question 255

When administering supplemental oxygen to a hypoxic patient with a chronic lung disease, you should: a) recall that patients with chronic lung diseases are stimulated to breathe by increased carbon dioxide levels b) adjust the flow rate accordingly until you see symptom improvement, but be prepared to assist his or her ventilations c) begin with a low oxygen flow rate, even if the patient is unresponsive, because high-flow oxygen may depress his or her breathing d) avoid positive- pressure ventilation because the majority of patients with chronic lung disease are at increased risk for lung trauma

Answer 255

B

Question 256

Acute pulmonary edema would most likely develop as the result of: a) right sided heart failure b) severe hyperventilation c) toxic chemical inhalation d) an upper airway infection

Answer 256

C

Question 257

Which of the following statements regarding anaphylaxis is correct? a) patients with asthma are at lower risk of developing anaphylaxis b) anaphylaxis is characterized by airway swelling and hypotension c) most anaphylactic reactions occur within 60 minutes of exposure d) the signs of anaphylaxis are caused by widespread vasoconstriction

Answer 257

B

Question 258

Hyperventilation could be associated with all the following, EXCEPT: a) a narcotic overdose b) a respiratory infection c) an overdose of aspirin d) high blood glucose levels

Answer 258

A

Question 259

Alkalosis is a condition that occurs when: a) blood acidity is reduced by excessive breathing b) dangerous acids accumulate in the bloodstream c) the level of carbon dioxide in the blood increases d) slow, shallow breathing eliminates too much carbon dioxide

Answer 259

C

Question 260

Common signs and symptoms of acute hyperventilation syndrome include: a) altered mental status and bradycardia b) unilateral paralysis and slurred speech c) anxiety, dizziness, and severe bradypnea d) tachypnea and tingling in the extremities

Answer 260

D

Question 261

You are dispatched to an apartment complex where a 21 y/o female has apparently overdosed on several narcotic medications. She is semiconscious and has slow, shallow, respirations. You should: a) insert an oropharyngeal airway and perform oral suctioning b) apply oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask and transport at once c) insert a nasopharyngeal airway and begin assisted ventilation d) place her in the recovery position and monitor for vomiting

Answer 261

C

Question 262

A 22 y/o female patient is complaining of dyspnea and numbness and tingling in her hands and feet after an argument with her fiancé. Her respirations are 40 breaths/min. You should: a) have her breathe into a paper or plastic bag b) provide reassurance and give oxygen as needed c) request a paramedic to give her a sedative d) position her on her left side and transport at once

Answer 262

B

Question 263

A 62 y/o man with a history of congestive heart failure presents with severe respiratory distress and with an oxygen saturation of 82%. When you auscultate his lungs, you hear widespread rales. He is conscious and alert, is able to follow simple commands, and can only speak in two-to-three word sentences at a time. You should: a) place in a position of comfort, deliver oxygen via nasal cannula, and closely monitor his breathing b) apply a CPAP device, monitor his blood pressure, and observe I'm for signs of improvement or deterioration c) force fluid from his alveoli by hyperventilating him with a bag-valve mask at a rate of at least 20 breaths/min d) place him in a supine position and assist his ventilations with a bag-valve mask and high-flow oxygen

Answer 263

B

Question 264

Blood that is ejected from the right ventricle: a) enters the systemic circulation b) flows into the pulmonary arteries c) has a high concentration of oxygen d) was received directly from the aorta

Answer 264

B

Question 265

What is the function of the left atrium? a) it ejects oxygenated blood into the aorta b) it receives oxygenated blood forms the lungs c) it receives blood from the pulmonary arteries d) it receives oxygenated blood from the vena cava

Answer 265

B

Question 266

When an electrical impulse reaches an AV node, it is slowed for a brief period of time so that: a) blood can pass from the atria to the ventricles b) blood returning from the body can fill the atria c) impulse can spread through the Purkinje fibers d) the SA node can reset and generate another impulse

Answer 266

A

Question 267

The electrical stimulus that originates in the heart's primary pacemaker is controlled by impulses from the brain that arrive by way of the: a) parietal lobe b) pons and medulla c) somatic nervous system d) autonomic nervous system

Answer 267

D

Question 268

Which of the following is NOT a function of the sympathetic nervous system? a) dilation of blood vessels in the muscles b) constriction of blood vessels in the muscles c) increases in the heart and respiratory rates d) constriction of blood vessels in the digestive system

Answer 268

B

Question 269

In contrast to the sympathetic nervous system, the parasympathetic nervous system: a) prepares the body to handle stress b) cause an increase in the heart dilate c) slows the heart and respiratory rates d) dilates the blood vessels in the muscles

Answer 269

C

Question 270

When the myocardium requires more oxygen: a) the heart contracts with less force b) the arteries supplying the heart dilate c) the heat rate decreases significantly d) the AV node conducts fewer impulses

Answer 270

B

Question 271

The myocardium receives oxygenated blood from the _____, which originates from the _____. a) coronary sinus, vena cava b) aorta, inferior vena cava c) vena cava, coronary veins d) coronary arteries, aorta

Answer 271

D

Question 272

The right coronary artery supplies blood to the: a) left ventricle and inferior wall of the right atrium b) right ventricle and inferior wall of the left ventricle c) right atrium and posterior wall of the right ventricle d) left ventricle and posterior wall of the right ventricle

Answer 272

B

Question 273

The head and brain receive their supply of oxygenated blood from the: a) iliac arteries b) brachial arteries c) carotid arteries d) subclavian arteries

Answer 273

C

Question 274

The descending aorta divides into the two iliac arteries at the level of the: a) nipple line b) umbilicus c) iliac crest d) pubic symphysis

Answer 274

B

Question 275

Which of the following veins is located inferior to the trunk? a) cephalic b) axillary c) saphenous d) subclavian

Answer 275

C

Question 276

The iliac arteries immediately subdivide into the: a) femoral arteries b) peroneal arteries c) anterior tibial arteries d) posterior tibial arteries

Answer 276

A

Question 277

The inferior vena cava returns deoxygenated blood to the right side of the heart from all of the following areas, EXCEPT the: a) brain b) kidneys c) abdomen d) legs

Answer 277

A

Question 278

Which of the following is the MOST reliable method of estimating a patient'a cardiac output? a) listien to heart sounds with a stethoscope b) connect the patient to an electrocardiogram c) assess the heart rate and strength of the pulse d) determine the average diastolic blood pressure

Answer 278

C

Question 279

Cardiac output may decrease if the heart beats too rapidly because: a) a rapid heartbeat causes a decrease in the strength of cardiac contractions b) the volume of blood that returns to the heart is not sufficient with fast heart rates c) as the heart rate increases, more blood is pumped from the ventricles than the atria d) there is not enough time in between contractions for the heart to refill completely

Answer 279

D

Question 280

The posterior tibial pulse can be palpated: a) on the dorsum of the foot b) between the trachea and the neck muscle c) in the fossa behind the knee d) behind the medial malleolus, on the inside of the ankle

Answer 280

D

Question 281

Ischemic heart disease is defined as: a) absent myocardial blood flow due to a blocked coronary artery b) decreased blood flow to one or more portions of the myocardium c) death of a portion of the heart muscle due to a decrease in oxygen d) decreased blood flow to the heart muscle due to coronary dilation

Answer 281

B

Question 282

Major risk factors for AMI include all the following, EXCEPT: a) hypoglycemia b) hypertension c) diabetes mellitus d) elevated cholesterol

Answer 282

A

Question 283

Acute coronary syndrome (ACS) is a term used to describe: a) the warning signs that occur shortly before a heart attack b) a group of symptoms that are caused by myocardial ischemia c) a severe decrease in perfusion caused by changes in heart rate d) the exact moment that a coronary artery is completely occluded

Answer 283

B

Question 284

When treating a patient with chest pain, you should assume that he or she is having an AMI because: a) angina usually occurs after an AMI b) most patient with chest pain are experiencing an AMI c) the cause of pain cannot be diagnosed in the field d) angina and AMI present identically

Answer 284

C

Question 285

Common signs and symptoms of AMI include all of the following, EXCEPT: a) irregular heartbeat b) sudden unexplained sweating c) shortness of breath or dyspnea d) pain exacerbated by breathing

Answer 285

D

Question 286

Which of the following statements regarding the pain associated with AMI is correct? a) it is often described by the patient as a sharp feeling b) it often fluctuates in intensity when the patient breathes c) nitroglycerin usually resolves the pain within 30 minutes d) it can occur during exertion or when the patient is at rest

Answer 286

D

Question 287

The MOST common reason that many people experiencing AMI do not seek immediate medical attention is because they: a) are elderly b) are in denial c) cannot afford it d) do not trust EMTs

Answer 287

B

Question 288

When documenting a patient's description of his or her chest pain or discomfort, the EMT should: a) use medical terminology b) use the patient's own words c) underline the patient's quotes d) document his or her own perception

Answer 288

B

Question 289

Rapid, labored breathing in a patient with signs and symptoms of AMI should make you suspicious for: a) a cardiac arrhythmia b) congestive heart failure c) significant hypotension d) right ventricular failure

Answer 289

B

Question 290

Sudden death following AMI is MOST often caused by: a) cardiogenic shock b) severe bradycardia c) ventricular fibrillation d) congestive heart failure

Answer 290

C

Question 291

Ventricular tachycardia causes hypotension because: a) the volume of blood returning to the atria increases b) the right ventricle does not adequately pump blood c) blood backs up into the lungs and causes congestion d) the left ventricle does not adequately fill with blood

Answer 291

D

Question 292

Which of the following cardiac dysrhythmias has the greatest chance of deteriorating into a pulseless rhythm? a) sinus tachycardia b) sinus bradycardia c) extra ventricular beats d) ventricular tachycardia

Answer 292

D

Question 293

The purpose of defibrillation is to: a) stop the chaotic, disorganized contraction of the cardiac cells b) causes a rapid decrease in the heart rate of an unstable patient c) improve the chance of CPR being successful in resuscitation d) prevent systole from deteriorating into ventricular fibrillation

Answer 293

A

Question 294

Cardigenic shock following AMI is caused by: a) decreased pumping force of the heart muscle b) a profound increase in the patient's heart rate c) hypovolemia secondary to severe vomiting d) widespread dilation of the systemic vasculature

Answer 294

A

Question 295

You are dispatched to a residence for a 56 y/o male with an altered mental status. Upon arrival at the scene, the patient's wife tells you that he complained of chest pain the day before, but would not allow her to call EMS. The patient is semiconscious; has rapid, shallow respirations; and has a thready pulse. You should: a) obtain baseline vital signs b) begin ventilatory assistance c) attach the AED immediately d) apply a nonrebreathing mask

Answer 295

B

Question 296

A 67 y/o female with difficulty breathing and chest discomfort that awakened her from her sleep. She states that she has a congestive heart failure, has had two previous heart attacks, and has been prescribed nitroglycerin. She is conscious and alert with adequate breathing. Her blood pressure is 94/64 mm Hg and her heart rate is 120 beats/min. Treatment for this patient includes: a) nitroglycerin for her chest pain b) ventilations with a BVM c) oxygen at 2 L/min via nasal cannula d) placing her in an upright position

Answer 296

D

Question 297

You are assessing a 49 y/o man who complains of chest pressure that began the night before. He is conscious, but anxious, and tells you he has a history of angina and hypertension. After applying high-flow oxygen, you expose his chest to auscultate his lungs and note that he has a nitroglycerin patch on his right upper chest. His skin is cool and pale, his blood pressure is 78/50 mm Hg, and his pulse is 110 beats/min and irregular. You should: a) remove the nitroglycerin patch, place him in a supine position and elevate his lower extremities, and prepare for immediate transport b) immediately remove the nitroglycerin patch, apply the AED in case he develops cardiac arrest, and transport to the closest hospital c) move the nitroglycerin patch to the other side of his chest in case you need to apply the AED, keep him warm, and transport without delay d) ask him if the nitroglycerin patch he is wearing has improved his chest pressure, complete your secondary assessment, and transport promptly

Answer 297

A

Question 298

In contrast to AMI, a dissecting aortic aneurysm: a) is more commonly associated with pressure in the chest b) often presents with pain that is maximal from the onset c) usually presents gradually, often over a period of hours d) is typically preceded by other symptoms, such as nausea

Answer 298

B

Question 299

Upon arriving at the residence of a patient with a possible cardiac problem, it is MOST important to: a) assess the scene for potential hazards b) determine if you need additional help c) request a paramedic unit for assistance d) gain immediate access to the patient

Answer 299

A

Question 300

Which of the following is LEAST important when obtaining a medical history from a patient complaining of chest discomfort? a) history of cigarette smoking b) history of previous heart attack c) presence of personal risk factors d) family history of hypertension

Answer 300

D

Question 301

Nitroglycerin relieves cardiac related chest pain by: a) dilating the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow b) increasing the amount of stress that is placed on the myocardium c) contracting the smooth muscle of the coronary and cerebral arteries d) constricting the coronary arteries and improving cardiac blood flow

Answer 301

A

Question 302

Common side effects of nitroglycerin include all the following, EXCEPT: a) bradycardia b) hypertension c) hypotension d) severe headache

Answer 302

B

Question 303

Prior to assisting a patient with his or her prescribed nitroglycerin,the EMT must: a) ensure the medication is in tablet form b) obtain authorization from medical control c) determine who prescribed the nitroglycerin d) wait at least 5 minutes after assessing the blood pressure

Answer 303

B

Question 304

The most basic functions of the body, such as breathing, blood pressure, and swallowing, are controlled by the: a) brain stem b) cerebrum c) cerebellum d) cerebral cortex

Answer 304

A

Question 305

The spinal cord exits the cranium through the: a) foramen magnum b) vertebral magnum c) foramen lamina d) cauda equina

Answer 305

A

Question 306

A transient ischemic attack (TIA) occurs when: a) medications are given to dissolve a cerebral blood clot b) a small cerebral artery ruptures and causes minimal damage c) a small clot in a cerebral artery causes temporary symptoms d) signs and symptoms resolve spontaneously within 48 hours

Answer 306

C

Question 307

The mental status of a patient who has experienced a generalized seizure: a) progressively worsens over a period of a few hours b) is easily differentiated from that of acute hypoglycemia c) is likely to improve over a period of 5 to 30 minutes d) typically does not improve, even after several minutes

Answer 307

C

Question 308

Which of the following is a metabolic cause of a seizure? a) poisoning b) head trauma c) brain tumor d) massive stroke

Answer 308

A

Question 309

You arrive at a local grocery store approximately 5 minutes after a 21 y/o female stopped seizing. She is confused and disoriented; she keeps asking you what happened and tells you that she is thirsty. Her brother, who witnessed the seizure, tells you that she takes valproate (depakote) for her seizures, but has not taken it in a few days. He also tells you that she has diabetes. In addition to administering oxygen, you should: a) administer one tube of oral glucose and prepare for immediate transport b) place her in the recovery position and transport her lights and siren c) monitor her airway and breathing status and assess her blood glucose level d) give her small cups of water to drink and observe for further seizure activity

Answer 309

C

Question 310

Febrile seizures: a) often result in permanent brain damage b) are also referred to as absence seizures c) are usually benign but should be evaluated d) occur when a child's fever rises slowly

Answer 310

C

Question 311

Individuals with chronic alcoholism are predisposed to intracranial bleeding and hypoglycemia secondary to abnormalities in the: a) brain b) kidneys c) liver d) pancreas

Answer 311

C

Question 312

You are dispatched to a residence for a 66 y/o male who, according to family members, has suffered a massive stroke. Your primary assessment reveals that the patient is unresponsive, apnea, and pulseless. You should: a) assess the patient for a facial droop and hemiparesis b) initiate CPR and attach an AED as soon as possible c) obtain a blood glucose sample to rule out hypoglycemia d) perform CPR for 5 minutes before applying the AED

Answer 312

B

Question 313

You are caring for a 70 y/o female with signs and symptoms of an acute stroke. She is conscious, has secretions in her mouth, is breathing at a normal rate with adequate depth, and has an oxygen saturation of 96%. You should: a) sunction her oropharynx and transport immediately b) insert an oral airway, apply oxygen, and transport c) assist her ventilations with a bag-valve mask d) administer one tube of glucose and transport

Answer 313

A

Question 314

You arrive at the residence of a 33 y/o woman who is experiencing a generalized (tonic clonic) seizure. She has a small amount of vomitus draining from the sides of her mouth. After protecting her from further injury, you should: a) place a bite block in between her teeth, apply high flow oxygen via a nonrebreathing mask, and consider inserting a nasopharyngeal airway b) wait for the seizure to stop, manually open her airway, insert an oropharyngeal airway, and assess her oxygen saturation with the pulse oximeter c) restrain her extremities to stop her from injuring herself, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, and assist her ventilations with a bag mask device d) maintain her airway with manual head positioning, suction her airway to remove the vomitus, insert a nasopharyngeal airway, and administer high-flow oxygen

Answer 314

D

Question 315

You are assessing the arm drift component of the Cincinnati Prehospital Stroke Scale on a 60 y/o woman. When she holds both of her arms out in front of her and closes her eyes, both of her arms immediately fall to her sides. You should: a) repeat the arm drift test and ensure that her palms are facing downward b) repeat the arm drift test, but move the patient's arms into position yourself c) instruct the patient to keep her eyes open and then repeat the arm drift test d) defer this part of the test and assess her for facial droop and slurred speech

Answer 315

B

Question 316

You are transporting a stable stroke patient with a paralyzed extremity, place the patient in a: a) recumbent position with the paralyzed side up b) recumbent position with paralyzed side down c) siting position with the head at a 45 degree to 90 degree angle d) supine position with the legs elevated 6 feet to 12 feet

Answer 316

B

Question 317

Ketone production is the result of: a) acidosis when the blood glucose levels are low b) blood glucose levels higher than 120 mg/dL c) fat metabolization when glucose is unavailable d) rapid entry of glucose across the cell membrane

Answer 317

C

Question 318

Kussmaul respirations are an indication that the body is: a) attempting to eliminate acids form the blood b) trying to generate energy by breathing deeply c) severely hypoxic and is eliminating excess CO2 d) compensating for decreased blood glucose levels

Answer 318

A

Question 319

Common signs and symptoms of severe hyperglycemia include all the following EXCEPT: a) warm, dry skin b) cool, clammy skin c) rapid, thready pulse d) action breath odor

Answer 319

B

Question 320

Which of the following signs or symptoms would the EMT MOST likely encounter in a patient with new-onset type 1 diabetes? a) total lack of appetite b) weight gain and edema c) weight loss and polyuria d) low blood glucose level

Answer 320

C

Question 321

You respond to a residence for a patient who is not acting right. As you approach the door, the patient, a 35 y/o male, begins shouting profanities at you and you partner while holding a baseball bat. The man is confused and diaphoretic, and is wearing a medical identification bracelet. You should: a) calm him down so you can assess him b) be assertive and talk the patient down c) contact medical control for instructions d) retreat at once and call for law enforcement

Answer 321

D

Question 322

When obtaining a SAMPLE history from a patient with diabetes, it would be MOST important to determine: a) if he or she has had any recent illnesses or excessive stress b) approximately how much water the patient drank that day c) if there is a family history of diabetes or related conditions d) the name of the physician who prescribed his or her insulin

Answer 322

A

Question 323

When assessing an unresponsive diabetic patient, the primary visible difference between hyperglycemia and hypoglycemia is the: a) patient's mental status b) rate of the patient's pulse c) presence of a medical identification tag d) rate and depth of breathing

Answer 323

D

Question 324

To which of the following diabetic patients should you administer oral glucose? a) an unconscious 33 y/o male with cool, calmly skin b) a conscious 37 y/o female with nausea and vomiting c) a semiconscious 40 y/o female without a gag reflex d) a confused 55 y/o male with tachycardia and pallor

Answer 324

D

Question 325

The foreign substance responsible for causing an allergic reaction is called a(n): a) allergen b) antibody c) histamine d) leukotriene

Answer 325

A

Question 326

Which of the following patients would MOST likely have a delayed onset of an allergic reaction? a) a 21 y/o female who inhaled pollen b) a 30 y/o male who was stung by a bee c) a 45 y/o male who ingested penicillin d) a 50 y/o male who was exposed to latex

Answer 326

C

Question 327

A raised, swollen, well-defined area in the skin that is a result of an insect bite or sting is called: a) a pustule b) purpura c) urticaria d) a wheal

Answer 327

D

Question 328

Because the singer of a honeybee remains in the wound following a sting: a) the stinger should quickly be removed with tweezers b) the body's immune system deactivates the bee's venom c) the toxicity of the venom decreases within 10 minutes d) it can continue to inject venom for up to 20 minutes

Answer 328

D

Question 329

Which of the following negative effects of anaphylaxis will be the MOST rapidly fatal if not treated immediately? a) diffuse urticaria b) severe hypotension c) upper airway swelling d) systemic vasodilation

Answer 329

C

Question 330

Which of the following physiologic actions does epinephrine produce when given for an allergic reaction? a) bronchodilation and vasodilation b) vasoconstriction and bronchodilaiton c) bronchoconstriction and vasoconstriction d) blocking of further histamine release

Answer 330

B

Question 331

When administering epinephrine via auto load injector, you should hold the injector in place for: a) 5 seconds b) 10 seconds c) 15 seconds d) 20 seconds

Answer 331

D

Question 332

substance abuse is MOST accurately defined as: a) knowingly selling illicit drugs in order to buy more drugs b) willfully using a therapeutic drug to treat a medical illness c) unwillingly and unknowingly consuming drugs or alcohol d) knowingly misusing a substance to produce a desired effect

Answer 332

D

Question 333

Signs and symptoms of a sympathomimetic drug overdose include: a) tachycardia b) hypothermia c) hypotension d) slurred speech

Answer 333

A

Question 334

Your paramedic partner administers atropine to a 49 y/o male with bradycardia. Which of the following side effects would you expect the patient to experience? a) pupillary constriction b) excessive lacrimation c) a fall in blood pressure d) dry mucous membranes

Answer 334

D

Question 335

The poison control center will be able to provide you with the most information regarding the appropriate treatment for a patient with a drug overdose if the center: a) knows the location of the closest hospital b) is aware of the patient's age and gender c) is aware of the substance that is involved d) knows why the patient overdosed on the drug

Answer 335

C

Question 336

Your priority in caring for a patient with a surface contact poisoning is to: a) move the patient to a safe area b) avoid contaminating yourself c) decontaminate the patient's skin d) obtain and maintain a patent airway

Answer 336

C

Question 337

Activated charcoal may be indicated for a patient who ingested: a) iron b) ethanol c) aspirin d) methanol

Answer 337

A

Question 338

In general, injected poisons are impossible to dilute or remove because they: a) are usually absorbed quickly into the body b) are usually fatal within 30 minutes of exposure c) absorb slowly into the body, despite their potency d) react with the blood, which increases their toxicity

Answer 338

A

Question 339

Airborne substances should be diluted with: a) oxygen b) syrup of ipecac c) activated charcoal d) an alkaline antidote

Answer 339

A

Question 340

What is the most common misconception surrounding mental illness? a) feeling "bad" or "depressed" means that you may be "sick" b) all persons with mental disorders are physically violent and dangerous c) many mental illnesses stem from drug or alcohol abuse d) everyone has some form of mental illness

Answer 340

A

Question 341

Why might EMTs encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large? a) EMTs have to restrain patients b) EMTs respond with law enforcement c) EMTs respond to patients who, by definition, are having an emergency d) It is a common misperception; EMTs do not encounter a larger proportion of violent patients than the population at large

Answer 341

C

Question 342

Everyone exhibits some signs and symptoms of mental illness at some point in life _____. a) because mental illness affects everyone b) and needs medication administered to them to control them c) and should be physically restrained for their own safety and the safety of the EMT d) but that does not mean a person is mentally ill

Answer 342

D

Question 343

A behavioral crisis interferes with which of the following? a) activities of daily living b) behavior that is acceptable to the community c) dressing, eating, or bathing d) all answers are correct

Answer 343

D

Question 344

Which of the following is an example of a psychiatric emergency? a) a person going on a week long "bender" after losing a job b) a person violently attacking family members c) a person who is depressed and no longer caring for himself d) a person who is experiencing a panic attack

Answer 344

B

Question 345

When a psychiatric emergency arises, a patient is most likely to exhibit which of the following behaviors? a) disruptions to activities of daily living b) any behaviors unacceptable to the patient, family, or community c) any behaviors that are a violent threat to the patient, EMTs, or others d) visual or auditory hallucinations

Answer 345

C

Question 346

The two basic categories of diagnosis that a physician will use for behavioral crisis or psychiatric emergencies are _____. a) organic brain syndrome and altered mental status b) functional and nonfunctional c) physical and psychological d) all of these answers are correct

Answer 346

C

Question 347

Which of the following is considered an organic brain syndrome? a) schizophrenia b) alzheimer dementia c) anxiety conditions d) depression

Answer 347

B

Question 348

Which of the following is a good guideline for physical examination of any patient? a) always work toe-to-head b) examine extremities first c) avoid touching without permission d) complete the physical exam first, then check the ABC's

Answer 348

C

Question 349

A general impression of the patient is formed by an EMT: a) when the patient is in the ambulance b) at a distance when the patient is first seen c) speaking with family members or bystanders first d) speaking privately with the patient

Answer 349

B

Question 350

Which of the following terms applies to a state of delusion in which the patient is out of touch with reality? a) agitated delirium b) schizophrenia c) suicidal d) psychosis

Answer 350

D

Question 351

Which section of the heart receives deoxygenated blood? a) left b) right c) atria d) ventricles

Answer 351

B

Question 352

Which portion of the blood carries oxygen to and wastes away from body tissues? a) platelets b) plasma c) red blood cells d) white blood cells

Answer 352

C

Question 353

Circulation of blood within an organ or tissue in adequate amounts to meet the cells' oxygen, nutritional, and waste removal needs is termed _____. a) hemorrhage b) hypo perfusion c) perfusion d) coagulation

Answer 353

C

Question 354

Which organ or organ system has the greatest tolerance for lack of perfusion (shock)? a) GI tract b) brain c) skeletal muscle d) kidneys

Answer 354

A

Question 355

Hypovolemic shock occurs when: a) the clothing ability of the blood is enhanced b) the body cannot compensate for rapid blood loss c) the patient's systolic blood pressure is less than 100 mm Hg d) at least 10% of the patient's blood volume is lost

Answer 355

B

Question 356

What mechanism does the body use to control bleeding? a) clotting b) coagulation c) vasoconstriction d) all of these answers are correct

Answer 356

D

Question 357

If applying a dressing to control bleeding of a patient's arm, the EMT should _____. a) apply direct pressure first b) use large or small gauze pads or dressings depending upon the size of the wound c) cover the entire wound, above and below, with the dressing d) all of these answers are correct

Answer 357

D

Question 358

Significant vital sign changes will occur if the typical adult acutely loses more than _____ of his or her total blood volume. a) 5% b) 10% c) 15% d) 20%

Answer 358

D

Question 359

The severity of bleeding should be based on all of the following findings, EXCEPT: a) systolic blood pressure b) poor general appearance c) the MOI d) clinical signs and symptoms

Answer 359

A

Question 360

Which of the following statements regarding hemophilia is correct? a) hemophilia is defined as a total lack of platelets b) patients with hemophilia may bleed spontaneously c) hemophiliacs take aspirin to enhance blood clotting d) approx 25% of the population has hemophilia

Answer 360

B

Question 361

In older patients, the first indicator of non traumatic internal bleeding may be: a) weakness or dizziness b) a low blood pressure c) diaphoresis and pale skin d) a heart rate over 120 beats/min

Answer 361

A

Question 362

a 67 y/o male presents with weakness, dizziness, and melon that began approximately 2 days ago. He denies a history of trauma. His blood pressure is 90/50 mm Hg and his pulse is 120 beats/min and thready. You should be MOST suspicious that this patient is experiencing: a) an aortic aneurysm b) acute appendicitis c) GI bleeding d) intrathoracic hemoragging

Answer 362

C

Question 363

Following blunt trauma to the abdomen, a 21 y/o female complains of diffuse abdominal pain and pain to the left shoulder. Your assessment reveals that her abdomen is distended and tender to palpation. On the basis of these findings, you should be MOST suspicious of injury to the: a) liver b) spleen c) pancreas d) gallbladder

Answer 363

B

Question 364

A young male was shot in the abdomen by an unknown type of gun. He is semiconscious, has shallow breathing, and is bleeding externally from the wound. As you control the external bleeding, your partner should: a) obtain baseline vital signs b) apply a nonrebreathing mask c) perform a secondary assessment d) assist the patient's ventilations

Answer 364

D

Question 365

Which of the following areas of the body has the thinnest skin? a) scalp b) back c) ears d) soles of the feet

Answer 365

C

Question 366

The sebaceous glands produce sebum, material that: a) facilitates shedding of the epidermis b) pulls the hair erect when you are cold c) discharges sweat onto the skin's surface d) waterproofs the skin and keeps it supple

Answer 366

D

Question 367

Which of the following processes occur during the inflammation phase of the healing process? a) the immune system releases histamines, which cause vasodilation and increased capillary permeability, resulting in local redness and swelling b) white blood cells are forced away from the injury site, allowing an increase in flow rate of red blood cells, resulting in increased blood flow c) the blood cells in and around the injury site constrict, forcing bacteria and other microorganisms away, preventing significant infection d) the veins and arteries at the injury site constrict and platelets aggregate, stopping the bleeding and causing temporary increase in the size of the wound

Answer 367

A

Question 368

a closed soft tissue injury characterized by swelling and ecchymosis is called an: a) abrasion b) contusion c) hematoma d) crush injury

Answer 368

B

Question 369

Which of the following statements regarding crush syndrome is correct? a) massive blood vessel damage occurs following severe soft-tissue injuries, such as amputation of an extremity b) compromised arterial blood flow leads to crush syndrome and can occur when an area of the body is trapped for longer than 4 hours c) tissue damage that occurs in crush syndrome is severe, but kidney injury is unlikely because toxins are quickly eliminated from the body d) provided that a patient with a crush injury is freed from entrapment within 6 hours, the amount of tissue damaged is generally minimal

Answer 369

B

Question 370

Which of the following open soft tissue injuries is limited to the superficial layer of the skin and results in the least amount of blood loss? a) avulsion b) abrasion c) incision d) laceration

Answer 370

B

Question 371

A 56-y/o male has an incomplete avulsion to his right forearm. After controlling any bleeding from the wound, you should: a) carefully probe the wound and determine if the bleeding is venous or arterial b) carefully remove the avulsed flap and wrap it in moist, sterile trauma dressing c) replace the avulsed flap to its original position and cover it with a sterile dressing d) thoroughly irrigate the wound with sterile water and cover it with a sterile dressing

Answer 371

C

Question 372

During your assessment of a patient who was shot in the abdomen, you notice a large entrance wound with multiple small puncture wounds surrounding it. This wound pattern is most consistent with a: a) hand gun b) shot gun c) .22 caliber pistol d) .357 magnum

Answer 372

B