FCTM Flashcards

1
Q

Who is responsible for above and below on TCAS?

A

Pm

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2
Q

What is cue to start the “before start checklist”?

A

Finishing the performance data steps

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3
Q

What are the 4 things required before pushback ?

A

C - ELF

Cabin ready
Engineering
Loadsheet
Fuel

Pm can auto start flow when ENG and ATC clearance given.

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4
Q

What is proper order for flight controls check?

A

L R FWD AFT

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5
Q

Before take off checklist, take off data, what is proper response?

A

RWY 07R
J2 (intersection should be verbalised)
Valid

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6
Q

Who holds the brakes in engine Run up on the runway?

A

PF

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7
Q

Rotation technique?

A

Towards 15 degrees, but follow flight director

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8
Q

If putting rings around airports in busy area, how far apart should these diversion airports be?

A

400 nm apart if possible
(Example: Japan, Europe)

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9
Q

How to calculate turn radius?

A

3 * Mach

Approx 25nm in cruise

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10
Q

Programming escape route in RTE 2, beware of?

A

Do not program escape route behind an arrival, because waypoints may not sequence properly.

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11
Q

What can PM do automatically at the 5 above call?

A

Cabin crew be seated for landing

Bring up landing checklist
(Tick off first item when appropriate)

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12
Q

What is required in order to arm the APP?

A

Clearance
Ils identified (verbalise)
Pointers showing (no need for correct)
Waypoints correct sequence

(If only cleared for loc, do not arm app)

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13
Q

Below which altitude should hands be in thrust and controls?

A

2500’ AGL (as much as poss)

1000’RA hands on thrust and control, until main gear touch down.

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14
Q

FLCH not allowed below which alt?

A

1000’ AGL

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15
Q

How do you call for landing checklist?

A

F25/F30 Landing checklist

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16
Q

How do you call for landing checklist?

A

F25/F30 Landing Checklist

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17
Q

RET turn off speeds?

A

ICAO (Hong Kong) = 50 knots
(30 degree angle)

Others = 35 knots

(No tiller input above 30 knots)

(Valid for dry and wet runway)

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18
Q

Do you need to wait for chocks in to call Shutdown checklist?

A

No.
Not on 777
A7.10.1

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19
Q

Periods of significant flight deck work load, what can Captain do to optimise task management and workload?

A

Make FO the PF

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20
Q

For the equipment cooling override checklist. What is definition of low altitude and low cabin differential pressure?

A

Below 9000’ and 3.4 PSI

(Above these values, no need to rush approach)

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21
Q

Min requirement when get Fuel imbalance message?

A

Read condition statement

Do EFC

Override checklist

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22
Q

When do we set QNH in rapid descent?

A

As soon as received, to avoid missing it later
A-7.12.8

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23
Q

When can cabin crew resume duties after Depress?

A

Below F140
(Same for Pax)
So consider making normal PA and instructing everyone that oxygen no longer required.

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24
Q

Events requiring a maintenance inspection may include?
Give IOC/Maint a heads up before arrival.

A

Hard landing
Or suspected hard landing
Bounced landing
Overweight landing (hard or not?)

High drag side load event (see desc)

Severe turb
Over speed flap slat, mmo etc.

High energy stop

Lightning strike

Extreme dust

Tail strike

If in doubt, report it.

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25
Q

Can you use synoptic displays for diagnosis?

A

FCTM 1.7

Crew should not rely solely on displays for determining aircraft status.

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26
Q

What kind of manoeuvre margin do you have at flap manoeuvre speed?

A

Full manoeuvre
(40 degree of bank to stick shaker or approx 1.3G)

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27
Q

Does stick shaker indicate actual stall?

A

No.
Set to activate before actual stall.
Sufficient margin to recover from stick shaker without stalling.

FCTM 1.8

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28
Q

What is difference between
flap manoeuvre speed and
Min manoeuvre speed?

A

Flap manoeuvre speed:
- aircraft weight

Min manoeuvre speed;
- speed
- angle of attack

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29
Q

Flaps up Amber band:
MMS gives what?

A

Below 10000 full manoeuvre

Decreasing with altitude

Above 20,000’: give full manoeuvre but 1.3G only.

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30
Q

What bank angles equal
1.1g
1.3 g
2.0 g

A

25 degree

40 degree (important one)

60 degree

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31
Q

What does reduced manoeuvre margin mean with regards to Anti Ice and stall?

A

Stall warning adjusts stick shaker to a lower angle of attack.

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32
Q

With AT disconnected, what’s the max gust additive you can use?

A

Vref + 15

(Half steady plus full gust)

With AT:
Norm is + 5
Max is + 10

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33
Q

What is the command speed on take off? And what manoeuvre capability does it give you?

A

V2 set in MCP.

Gives you manoeuvre to 30 degree bank.

FCTM 1.16

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34
Q

The term “set thrust”, does it require setting of the exact indication?

A

No.
Crew should not focus on this at the expense of situational awareness.

FCTM 1.17

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35
Q

How is max thrust achieved in EEC normal
Mode vs alternate mode ?

A

Normal: thrust full forward

Alternate : take off or go around limit
(Full forward only if terrain contact imminent)

Note:
Fixed derate is considered a limit for take off.

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36
Q

When should unnecessary conversation be avoided?

A

Not recommended below 10,000’.

1.18

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37
Q

If automatic call-outs not available on landing, what calls should make?

A

100’
50’
30’
(This is a may call out… anything helpful)

1.19 FCTM

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38
Q

What are approved sources of take off and landing performance?

A

Opt

ACARS RTOW

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39
Q

If very cold, and must do a APV approach, but temp outside the chart limit, what can you do?

A

NPA down to LNAV minima
Using the cold weather corrections

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40
Q

What are some symptoms of ICE crystal icing?

A

Surge
Flameout
High vibration

(If suspect, do the NNC or Supp proc)

1.23

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41
Q

What are some symptoms of Ice Crystal Icing?

A

Surge
Flameout
Vibration

(If suspected, do NNC or Supp Proc)

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42
Q

What’s difference between primary and secondary rudder trim technique?

A

Primary: rudder only
(Level control wheel)
- follow procedure in FCTM if necessary)
- AP in, HDG hold or Sel for 30 sec
- trim rudder as necessary

Secondary:
Rudder and aileron trim

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43
Q

What is a good mode choice if flight plan changes during high work load environment?

A

Don’t hesitate to get out of LNAV/VNAV.

1.25

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44
Q

When checking FmC charter procedures against database, what’s of main concern?

A

Waypoint sequence
Speed and Alt restrictions
No unexpected discontinuities

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45
Q

FMC performance predictions are good for fuel, eta etc, except when?

A

Operating in Non Normals
(Extended gear down, reduced thrust, spoilers, etc)

FCTM 1.26

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46
Q

In a hold, the hold time available is accurate for which flap settings?

A

Flaps up and flaps 1
(Provided FmC hold speed maintained)

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47
Q

RNP 10 routes require what updating?

A

GPS
or
If no gps, radio update within previous 6 hours.
In general, oceanic routes require dual FMC or single FMC in combo with alternate nav capability)

1.27

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48
Q

Oceanic RNP’s are usually what?

A

4 or higher

Good table to know
(FCTM 1.28)

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49
Q

RNAV approaches require what?

A

DME-DME
OR
GPS
UPDATING ACTIVE AT BEGINNING OF APPRoach (IAF)

RNP must be equal or greater than ANP.

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50
Q

Should you ever set RNP smaller than specified on approach?

A

Not recommended as may cause nuisance alerts.

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51
Q

ANP refers to what?

A

Actual navigation performance
(Only related to accuracy of FMC)

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52
Q

During RNP approach, what should you do if deviation exceeds me or Amber deviation alert?

A

Change to Non RNP procedure
(Ie: VOR or LOC) using raw data

If not possible, do MAP unless suitable visible reference.

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53
Q

What is the typical route width of a RNP route segment.

A

Usually 2 X the RNP from either side of LNAV course.

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54
Q

What can you do to ensure tracking in a RNP procedure with low RNP?

A

Autopilot and LNAV

If autopilot not available, crews should use flight director and at least one
ND MAP set to 10 NM

1.32

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55
Q

Radius to Fix considerations?

A

Speed requirements important

Do not begin procedure by going direct to RF leg

Direct to second waypoint in RF will delete the RF leg

If MAP done during RF, ensure LNAV re-engaged asap.

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56
Q

Is manual flight encouraged?

A

Yes.

Only when conditions and workload permit for both PM and PF.

FCTM 1.33

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57
Q

If flight directors not giving you what you need or will not be followed, what should you do?

A

Turn them off.

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58
Q

Should VS be used for passenger comfort?

A

No.
FLCH has logic to allow shallow climbs and descents for
Small alt changes.

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59
Q

Difference between Normal MCP setting tech and Alternate?
1.36

A

Alternate really only used when altitude constraints are tightly spaced.

Normal:
Set next constraint until compliance assured (generally within 2NM)

Alternate:
Used with care: legs and constraints should be thoroughly checked.

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60
Q

What to do if getting MCP faults?

A

1.38
Modes not responding normally to MCP selections?
Disengage AP and FD, then turn back on.
If still not working, use raw modes.

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61
Q

Should you fly into moderate to heavy rain? Hail? Sleet?

A

1.39 FCTM
Aircraft designed to do so, but should be AVOIDED.

IF encounter, slow down airspeed to reduce precip intake.

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62
Q

Considerations for Moderate turbulence?

A

Normally no change to altitude or speed required.

Severe:
270 below F250
280 or m0.82 which ever lower at or above F250
(Speed not less than 15 knot above mms when speed below M0.82)

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63
Q

Passed what angle of bank is back pressure required?

A

30 degrees

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64
Q

Take off briefing is important, what additional items might warrant attention ?

A

Weather
Runway conditions
Unique noise abatement
MEL’s
ENG OUT
Others requiring crew attention.

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65
Q

Receive taxi clearance, should you right it down?

A

FCTM says yes.
Stop plane if clearance in doubt
Do not let ATC or anyone else rush you.
2.3

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66
Q

GMCS
Ground Maneuvre Camera system.
Is it necessary for taxi?

A

Visual outside still primary.

It is useful tool.

Prohibted for T/O App and Landing

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67
Q

What limit should you put on thrust for taxi?

A

FCTM 2.5
Idle is adequate for most conditions.

Try not to go above 40% N1

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68
Q

What are taxi speed limits?

A

Normal is 20 knots

Straights up to 30 knots

Turns approximately 10 knots

2.6

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69
Q

If nose wheel skidding or scrubbing encountered while taxiing, what to do?

A

Reduce speed or steering angle
2.7

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70
Q

How to prevent main gear configuration warning on take off?

A

Taxi forward on or near runway centreline to make sure main gear aft axle steering locked.

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71
Q

What is required for a tight corner while taxing?

A

More oversteer, as main wheels will track inside.

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72
Q

Turns of 90 degrees or more should be started when?

A

Taxiway centreline approaches aft edge of number 2 window.

2.10

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73
Q

2 types of 180 degree taxi turns?

A

Normal:
Main gear tires close to taxi edge
Stop
Max tiller
Thrust outboard
Maintain 5-10knots
(If more than min, don’t have to stop)

Pivot (tight!): less than 45M
TOWING PREFERRED
- not above MLW
-Similar to above, but main gear must be within 1 foot of edge.
- max braking on inside brake
- sufficient thrust on outside

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74
Q

Considering RETI? When not to?

A

HELPS
Hydraulics
Engine
Landing gear
Pneumatics
Sustained wind of 25 knots or more

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75
Q

What do larger flaps settings do for take off?

A

Provide shorter take off distance
(Hence why used in strong cross wind or gusty situation)

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76
Q

Are auto throttle and FD required for take off?

A

No, recommended.
Do not follow FD until after lift off.

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77
Q

Is rolling take off or stopped start recommended?

A

Rolling.
- expedites
- less FOD
- less chance of Engine stall.

(Negligible take off roll difference)

3.4

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78
Q

What parameters do you set engines to on take off to watch them stabilise and why?

A

1.05 EPR (300)

55% N1 (ER)

Do this to ensure both engines coming up at same time.

Shouldn’t do stabilise for longer than 2 seconds (perf reasons)

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79
Q

Target thrust on take off should be set by when?

A

80 knots

Or else goes into Hold

(If hold does not appear, no need to reject, but any other fault causes unwanted thrust movement)

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80
Q

I’d get engine exceedance on take off, what to do?

A

If thrust set, and decide to continue, do not retard thrust. Performance degraded.
Wait until 400 AGL. Confirm failure, and run the Eng lim surge stall
Memory items.

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81
Q

When does the rudder become effective during take off?

A

40-60 knots

3.6

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82
Q

When headwind is how strong, might you have an issue getting HOLD on take off before AT can make take off thrust adjustments?

A

20 knots.

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83
Q

When do we retract the landing gear on takeoff?

A

Positive rate of climb indicated on ALTIMETER

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84
Q

What can cause a tail strike?

A

Early or rapid rotation

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85
Q

What is the target speed of FD on take off?

A

V2+15 to V2+25

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86
Q

What is the target number on take off to end initial take off phase?

A

35’ AGL

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87
Q

What can you do to assist take off with light weight and aft CG?

A

Reduce thrust

Rolling take off

3.10

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88
Q

What does AFT CG do for take off?

A
  • Increases lift available
    (Reduction of nose up trim required on HOR STAB)
  • reduces VR and V2
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89
Q

Is Alternate FWD CG avail on all aircraft?

A

300 uses more restrictive FWD CG.

ER:
OPT uses Alt CG for all take offs

ACARS only uses for weights above 280T

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90
Q

Is rolling take off recommended for crosswind or tailwind take off

A

Yes. 3.12

XW exceeds 20 knots
TW more than 5 knots

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91
Q

Is full forward ever required on 777 take off?

A

Strong cross wind and aft CG conditions, may require full forward.

Below 80 knots, full rudder may be required to maintain runway centreline.

Begin take off roll always with control wheel Centered.

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92
Q

Considerations for strong crosswind or gusty take off?

A

Higher thrust than minimum
(Remove the AST if can, or bump up to next derate)

Avoid rotation in gust

Consider using F15 or 20 to reduce TO distance.

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93
Q

When is AST take off not allowed ?

A

Contaminated runway.

More than 3mm of slush ice snow SW
(Take off not recommended in more than 1/2 inch contaminated 13mm SW
Or 4 inch dry snow )

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94
Q

Considerations when using derated take off thrust?

A

Considered takeoff operating limit for VMCG VMCA

Allowed on contam

Can increase thrust if required with both engines.

If engine failure, any increase thrust beyond fixed derate could cause loss of directional control

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95
Q

Can climb thrust ever be more than take off thrust?

A

Yes:
Combining high derate with AST

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96
Q

What does improved climb do?

A

Increases take off and climb speeds.

Improves gradient and limit weights.

This is automatic from OPT and ACARS

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97
Q

Low vis take off, when do you need take off alternate?

A

When weather below landing min.

400 Nm.

Have dispatch nominate.

Take off readings, all RVR must be AT OR ABOVE required for take offf.

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98
Q

What is take off field length?

A

Longest of:
-Accel and Go:
Eng fail 1 sec before V1 and to reach 35’ at V2

-Accel and stop:
Eng fail 1 sec before V1 and stop
(Max brakes and speed brakes, no reverse)

-1.15 times TODR to reach 35’

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99
Q

80 knots is considered low energy RTO, what would cause RTO?

A

FCTM 3.23
Master caution
Unusual vibrations
Tire failure

QRH:
Same as above but also:
System failure
Slow accel
Take off config warning
Engine fail
PWS
Window open
Unsafe to fly

After 80 knots:
Fire or fire warning
Engine fail
PWS
unsafe to fly

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100
Q

RTO, when is latest to stop?

A

Decision must be made by V1
(FIRST ACTION MUST BE TAKEN BY V1)

(Rejecting near V1 usually causes over run, as usually not executed perfectly)

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101
Q

If V speeds disappear, is that enough to warrant RTO?

A

No
3.24 FCTM
Rotate 5-10 knots before V2 (MCP)

PM should announce V1 and VR

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102
Q

With AT in hold, does it need to be disconnected in RTO?

A

Yes!
For consistency, disconnect Autothrottle for all RTO

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103
Q

What is leading cause of RTO?

A

Note:
If captain decides it’s safer to fly, must state: “CONTINUE”

Only 25% because engine problem.

Other: ATC, wheels bird strikes

Airborne and turn back allows full runway length.

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104
Q

After lift off, what speed does FD command?

A

V2+15 to V2+25
Until another pitch mode engaged

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105
Q

What’s max bank angle after take off?

A

30 degrees with take off flaps
(15 bank and 15 overshoot)
(Flap retraction speed)

(Always 15 overshoot)

Cruise is 40 degrees:
(25 bank and 15 overshoot)
(Flap maneuvre speed)

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106
Q

When immediate turn after take off necessary, can you preset heading?

A

Yes 3.31

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107
Q

What is best indicator of engine failure on take off?

A

HDG

Lead indicator of opposite rudder required
(Initial aileron, then use rudder to kick control up)

Smooth with pitch, just nail 8-10 degrees. Rest easy

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108
Q

FD target speed with EO takeoff?

A

V2 to V2+15

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109
Q

What roll mode does FD give you until LNAV engaged?

A

Ground track in TOGA

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110
Q

Is noise abatement still a factor with a EO take off?

A

No

3.38

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111
Q

In AST take off only, what commands VMCG and VMCA?

A

Full rated thrust, so if you have EO, can take full thrust or push TOGA airborne.

More:
Perf data shows that performance should be enough even in case
Of EO

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112
Q

DTO-1 or 2, what commands the VMCG/A?

A

VMCG/A calculated using Derated thrust, so taking more could cause directional control loss.

Only do if terrain clearance not assured.

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113
Q

Combination take off using AST and Derate, is it recommended to take more thrust if have engine failure?

A

No.
Fixed derate limit not displayed and could be exceeded.

Theoretically if at acceleration, still not getting desired climb, you’ll be far enough away from VMcA, that shouldn’t be an issue.

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114
Q

When are the derates completely washed out in climb?

A

ER
Starts at 10,000 and gone by 12,000

300
Starts at 10,000 and gone by 30,000

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115
Q

Is there a time where you would select a higher climb rating during the climb?

A

Yes, if climb rate falls below 500 fpm
FCTM 4.1

Also if ATC ask to expedite, or clear that you might not make restriction.

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116
Q

Is it ok to select a different CLB thrust before TAKE off?

A

Yes. FMC should default to same derate:
IE: DTO2 AST 49, it’ll give you CLB 2.

So if have alt restriction, perfectly ok to take CLB thrust.

Or max take off weight, DTO1 no AST.
Gives Climb 1.
But no restrictions in climb, can just select CLB 2 right off the bat.
Won’t affect take off entry.

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117
Q

Even if cleared to high altitude, but you’re on SID or STAR, need to set hard altitude constrains in MCP.

No questions

A
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118
Q

What would be the ideal speed schedule if no ATC or SID restrictions?

A

Flap up maneuvre speed until clear of all obstacle or min crossing altitude.
(Bekol, no need for 250).
Consider flap up, max angle, max rate,

Then accelerate to climb speed schedule

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119
Q

What is Econ speed?

A

Optimise operating cost.

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120
Q

ECON climb speeds?

A

Below 10,000:
250 or min clean (which ever higher)

Above 10000
310/M0.84
(Same as transition speeds)

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121
Q

Maximum rate climb speeds ?

A

Ref30+140 (or clean plus 60)

Until intercepting 0.82

(Good option when leaving Japan in winter)

Usually something like 300/0.82

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122
Q

Max angle speed is for what?

A

BEKOL!

Best climb in distance, obstacle clearance, or Min crossing ALT

Only shown in FMC

Approx same gradient as flaps up manoeuvre speed

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123
Q

EO in climb and lose FMC, what speed should you climb at?

A

Flaps up maneuvre speed at max cont thrust
4.5

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124
Q

What determines maximum altitude?

A

Three basic characteristics:

Lowest of:
Certified altitude:

thrust limit: 300 ft./m

buffet or manoeuvre margin:
Minimum margin available is 40° bank prior to Buffett 1.3 G

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125
Q

In which mode is bank angle protection available in?

A

LNAV

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126
Q

If you’re in a mode other than LNAV near maximum altitude, how should you protect your bank angle and manoeuvre margin?

A

Fly at least 10 kn above the lower Amber band and use bank angles of 10° or less

4.7

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127
Q

Is Flight above maximum alt recommended?

A

No, no

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128
Q

What determines optimum altitude?

A

Gross weight and cruise speed in still air.
(NO WIND)

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129
Q

What determines recommended altitude?

A

It accounts for
-forecast winds and
-temperatures
over the next 250 to 500 nautical miles.

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130
Q

Is recommended alt based on minimum Trip cost or minimum fuel Burn?

A

Depends:
ECON equals minimum Trip cost
(Cost Index)

LRC equals minimum fuel burn

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131
Q

What does cost index 0 give you?

A

Maximum range

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132
Q

What does LRC give you?

A

Maximum range -1% fuel mileage

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133
Q

Should you ever request an altitude above optimum prior to takeoff?

A

Yes, if it is advantageous to obtain a higher altitude early in the flight.

The requested initial level should never be above Max

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134
Q

What should be a concern when operating near maximum altitude?

A

Unanticipated temperature increase could result in insufficient thrust available.
Entry of accurate temperature is the best way to avoid.

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135
Q

How much fuel does it cost to do an en route 4000 foot climb?

A

Varies between 225 to 450 kg

Usually, it’s beneficial to climb to a higher altitude if recommended by the FMC or flight plan provided the wind is correct

Though note:
Better fuel wise to stay 2000’ below Opt rather than 2000 above OPT.

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136
Q

Which fuel freeze temperature should you use?

A

If the operator measures the actual freeze point, CAN USE

OTHERWISE:
-40 jet A
-49 A1

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137
Q

What to do if you have blended fuel for the fuel freeze temperature?

A

Supplementary procedures have the blended fuel temperatures.

Blended tables must be used until
3 CONSECUTIVE refuellings have been completed

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138
Q

In the event of a low fuel temperature situation, how can the total air temperature be raised?

A

Climber or descend to warmer air
Deviate to warmer air mass
Increase Mach number
(M0.01 is .5 to .7 degrees)

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139
Q

How long should it take to stabilise your fuel temperature with your new warmer air mass or speed?

A

fifteen minutes to sixty minutes

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140
Q

What mach number equates to long range cruise LRC?

A

Within 2000 feet from optimum altitude, you can use M0.84.

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141
Q

When you execute an FMC drift down, what thrust do you get?

A

CON thrust

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142
Q

After an engine out drift down, you select LRC, how does that affect your altitude or speed?

A

Lower drift on altitude but better fuel performance

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143
Q

With engine out, what speed would you use if the FMC was INOP in a drift down?

A

Turbulence penetration speed for the drift down

Then LRC engine out from QRH

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144
Q

Does the triple seven have a Mach tuck tendency?

A

No

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145
Q

If diverting into Russia, what ALTIMETER setting can you expect?

A

QFE

Some airports provide QNH upon request

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146
Q

Inmarsat Satcom unavailable above?

A

82 North

Luckily, I think all of our aircraft have iridium now for global sitcom

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147
Q

What must be on for you to use SATCOM on the ground?

A

ADIRU

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148
Q

What primary roll mode should be used in polar Operations?

A

LNAV (HDG REF NORM)

If use TRK or HDG SEL, be sure to use TRUE

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149
Q

Does the loss of both GPS units restrict polar Operations?

A

4.17
Loss of both units or loss of GPS updating results in increased ANP and possible NAV unable RNP but normally does not prevent polar operation

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150
Q

What are some considerations if the redundant ADIRU fails?

A

Auto pilot inoperative

HDG Reference must be entered into FMC

POLAR, may need to use TRUE track ( get from OFP)

Plan Raw instrument approach

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151
Q

What descent rate does the plane use to achieve deceleration at 10,000 feet?

A

Approx 500 fpm

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152
Q

In descent what can be done to respond to an ATC speed change requirement?

A

Speed intervention
VNAV SPD
(Pitch will change to get speed while keeping at idle)

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153
Q

In off path descent, what is the outer circle and what is the inner circle?

A

Outer circle is Clean configuration

Inner circle is with speed brakes

Both circles assume normal speed descent schedules, including deceleration at transition .

They do NOT waypoint speed and alt constraints

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154
Q

Typical descent rates below F200 at:

310 knots
250 knots
Clean

A

2200 clean 5300 dirty

1400 clean 3300 dirty

1000 clean 2300 dirty

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155
Q

How long does it take to decelerate from 310 kn to 250 kn?

A

60 seconds or 6 nautical miles

(Approx 1 nm per 10 knots)

Speed brake can half these figures.

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156
Q

When does the use of speed break cause buffeting?

A

Speed brakes with flaps greater than 5 should be avoided.

If necessary speed brakes should be retracted before reaching 1000 feet

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157
Q

If doing a procedural approach, which flaps should be selected prior to the fix going outbound?

A

Flaps 5

Same as entering downwind visual

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158
Q

How does engine anti-ice affect your descent profile? 

A

Increases descent distance.

Anticipated altitude can be entered on the descent forecast page to assist FMC.

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159
Q

When should you start reducing to hold speed when approaching the holding fix?

A

3 min prior, to reach fix at or below max hold speed.

(In Hong Kong, if they say no speed control, it means fly the hold at your best speed)

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160
Q

Can you hold with flaps?

A

Best to hold clean.

Can hold with flaps 1
(7% more fuel burn)

Estimate about 6 min per hold.

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161
Q

What are standard leg lengths in a hold?

A

One minute when below 14,000

1.5 minute at or above 14,000

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162
Q

When the FMC shows PROC HOLD on legs, what is funky?

A

Exiting the holding pattern is automatic (NO NEED TO EXIT HOLD)

If desire to remain holding a new pattern must be entered

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163
Q

The requirement to tune an identify NAVAID can be satisfied how?

A

1) Alphabetical ident on PFD/ND

2) aurally
(be sure to select on ACP L/C/R)

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164
Q

What approach category is the 777 considered?

A

D

FCTM 5.3

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165
Q

Is updating the legs on approach necessary if in radar vectors ?

A

Only as time permits
FCTM 5.1

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166
Q

What are the two methods to tune and identify a NAVAID

A

1) Alphabetical identifier on PFD or ND

2) AURALLYidentifying

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167
Q

What approach category does the 777 use?

A

D
(Base on max landing weight)
Or
FAA uses Vref speed

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168
Q

How to ensure you comply with airspace requirements in a procedure turn or holding pattern?

A

FMC depicted complies with airspace limits, determined by ground speed at the IAF.

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169
Q

FCTM elements of a stabilised approach:

A

Note:
Satisfied by 1000 feet
And maintained thereafter!

+10 to -5 knots

Sink rate no greater than 1000 ft./m
(Unless special briefing required)

Landing checklist complete

ILS approach within one.
Loc/ GS

Wings level by 300 feet AGL

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170
Q

What is the normal touchdown zone?

A

5.5
normally touchdown at second markers

1500 feet

TDZ the first 3000 feet or first third whichever less

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171
Q

FCTM missed Approach considerations?

A

Navigation, radio or flight instrument failure

Instruments show significant disagreement

LOC or GS full deflection

ANP exceeds RNP

RNP approach Amber deviation alert unless Air crew able to change to non-RNP approach (rare)

Radar vectors and communication loss

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172
Q

What is required for landing minimum visibility or ceiling?

A

RVR or Vis

FCTM 5.6

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173
Q

When the situation dictates an earlier than normal speed reduction on an approach, what can be done?

A

Flaps 15 or flaps 20 with gear up is acceptable
(Take off flaps, so still high lift devices, requiring speed brake perhaps)
FCTM 5.7

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174
Q

Is timing required during instrument approaches?

A

Timing is not the primary means to determine MAP

Only required if NAV unable RNP

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175
Q

Are NDB approaches approved in Cathay aircraft?

A

No

5.10

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176
Q

Doing a procedure turn what is the recommended flap overhead the fix?

A

F5 overhead procedure turn fix.

If ILS has been selected from CDU, the initial approach phase may be completed in LNAV AND VNAV

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177
Q

Approach mode should not be selected until?

A

ILS tuned and identified

Airplane is inbound maximum 120° intercept

LOC and GS pointers showing

Clearance Given

(As captain, tie it into when you arm the APP)

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178
Q

What is the maximum intercept angle for the LOC?

A

120°

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179
Q

Is it possible to intercept GS before LOC?

A

No

All triple seven aircraft have glideslope inhibit before loc capture

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180
Q

Is LOC overshoot acceptable upon capturing??

A

Yes

Bank angles up to 30°, maybe commanded

For large intercept angles, some overshoot can be expected

Let AP do its thing.

5.15
FCTM

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181
Q

How can false glideslope signals be detected?

A

FAF crossing altitude and VNAV path information
(300’ per NM)
3NM approx 1000

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182
Q

If false glideslope capture is suspected, what should you do?

A

Go around unless visual

FAF altitude way off ?

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183
Q

During an autoland, when does the auto pilot begin runway alignment from Crabb to a side slip?

A

500’ AGL

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184
Q

Below alert height on an autoland when should the pilot interfere?

A

Pilot should not interfere unless clearly evident that action is required

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185
Q

During LVO landing when should the auto pilot and auto brakes be disengaged?

A

They should remain engaged until safe stop is assured and adequate visibility exist to control Airplane using visual reference

5.16

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186
Q

What is the lowest altitude you can set when intercepting the GS from above?

A

FAF/FAP ALT
OR
GS Intercept altitude

ATC cleared ILS intercept altitude

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187
Q

What must be captured before attempting to intercept GS from above?

A

LOC

5.17

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188
Q

Intercepting GS from above what VS should be used?

A

1000 to 1500 ft./m

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189
Q

Can you auto Land if the final approach scores is not aligned with the runway central line?

A

No.
, risk of rollout departing the runway are real thing

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190
Q

Above what weather minimum is the ILS critical area not protected?

A

Whether above 800 foot ceiling
And or
Two statute mile visibility

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191
Q

How do you know your experiencing glide slope interference?

A

Auto pilot will remain engaged in stabilised mode

Amber line through GS on PFD

Auto pilot caution

If not visual go around

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192
Q

Can you auto land on a contaminated runway?

A

5.20

BEWARE OF ROLLOUT

Theoretically, you can

Be prepared to disengage the auto pilot if rollout directional control becomes in adequate

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193
Q

What is considered the runway environment?

A

Threshold
Threshold lights
Markings
Touchdown zone
Touchdown zone lights and markings

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194
Q

Can you do a category two approach using Flight Director only?

A

Yes according to FCTM

5.22

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195
Q

Can you fly an ILS to cat three minimums using flight directors only?

A

No.

Cat Three operations are based on approach to touchdown using automatic learning system

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196
Q

How do you know if you cannot autoland off an ILS ?

A

Non-normal checklist (no Autoland)

MEL

Port page

ILS localiser offset from runway QDM

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197
Q

What do you do if above alert height you get a
Fault
Instrument flag
Engine indication?

A

Check Autoland status annunciation

Go around,
Adjust minimum if required
And if visual

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198
Q

Below alert height, you receive master caution or warning, should you disconnect the auto pilot?

A

No. 5.23

Do not disengage the auto pilot unless the auto pilot system is not controlling the Airplane

Pilot should not intervene below alert height unless it is evident that pilot action is needed (master caution light and oral below alert height in IMC requires a go round 5.25)

(WHAT DOES THIS MEAN?)
Realistically if I get major failure causing EICAS below alert height, I’m going around.

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199
Q

Do you need auto throttles for an Autoland?

A

CAT IIIB requires at least 1 A/T
(Can do with engine failure now)

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200
Q

What do you do if you have a flashing glide slope or LOC indicator?

A

Go around

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201
Q

If you have an engine failure on short final, should you continue?

A

Biggest limit if at flaps 30 is your climb limit weight in the go round.

Performance in Flight in the QA has the table

230 tons and 30°
(Above that, start worrying)

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202
Q

Engine approach what controls the rudder inputs with land to or land three annunciated?

A

Regardless of TAC status, the auto pilot controls the rudder below 500 feet

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203
Q

Do we need to 0 the Rutter trim on an engine out approach?

A

Pilot discretion

If going to set zero must be accomplished by 500 feet (usually 1000 for Cx)

I don’t zero the rudder trim
(In case of go around)

A bit more work on landing

5.27

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204
Q

Engine failure on short final and you decide to keep flaps 30 and continue, which flaps do you select if go around?

A

Flaps 20

Adequate performance

(Note: on approach with engine failure on short final thrust will need to be increased to maintain speed)

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205
Q

Engine failure on short, final and climb and limit weight is a factor and you decide to select flaps 20 any other consideration?

A

Yes, as a rule of thumb increase your speed by 20 knots.

This should command a speed that is equal to at least the ref 20+5

5.28

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206
Q

Engine failure on short final, what are your three options?

A

The decision decision should be made immediately 5.29

1: continue approach with Normal flaps

2: reduce flaps to flaps 20 and increase speed 20 kn

3) go around

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207
Q

What is preferred mode of accomplishing a non-ILS approach that has a vertical path to defined in legs page?

A

VNAV

VS and FPA can be used as alternate method

Auto pilot use is recommended until suitable visual reference

Pilots may use flight Director only without auto pilot when in VMC conditions 

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208
Q

What extra thing needs to be done when conducting:
-LOC based approach (LOC, LDA
-non-localiser APP(VOR, RNAV, GPS)

A

Monitoring Raw data is RECOMMENDED

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209
Q

When using LNAV without GPS updating (DME DME) an instrument approach what should we done?

A

Raw data must be monitored

No later than the FAF

210
Q

What is the best way to monitor raw data during approach?

A

Select POS and compare the display raw data with the NAVAID symbols

Display the VOR pointers on the map display and using them to verify your position and tracking

211
Q

When doing a few are approach, should you manually tune the VOR?

A

VOR automatically tunes after passing the first waypoint on the approach

It will auto tune the missed approach NAVAID as well.

However, good to Manually tune the approach aid on one side.

212
Q

For LOC or LOC back course what do you use as QDM?

A

Front course

213
Q

What are some specific approach requirements relating to RNP?

A

One GPS or one DME is operational

No NAV unable RNP alert

214
Q

Are RNAV and GPS approaches allowed to be manually entered?

A

No, they should be selected from the database.

No manual data entry between FAF and MAP

If approach is not in database, can select the ILS and use that as an overlay (LNAV/VNAV)

If additional waypoint reference is desired, use the fix page and do not modify waypoint on the legs page
(If you do, you may mess with on approach logic.

215
Q

Can procedure turns and DME arcs be manually entered into the FMC?

A

No, unless they can be defined by a series of waypoint.

Make use of intercept course, two when intercepting the inbound course

Constant monitoring required

May require use of HDG SEL/ TRK SEL

216
Q

Below which altitude should map building be avoided in the FMC?

A

10,000 AGL

217
Q

Are the waypoint in the navigation database from the FAF onwards allowed to be modified?

A

No
Except to add a cold temperature correction 

218
Q

If the glidepath is out, is there any means of using the glide slope from the FMC?

A

Yes

Can select ILS from FMC and then only arm LOC and VNAV PTH

219
Q

Fact
When on approach logic is active and the Airplane is below VNAV path when ALTITUDE intervention selected level flight is commanded until reaching the BA path then the Airplane captures

A

This is the exact issue for the RNAV transition 25R.

Therefore, get down to 4500 feet enter your current speed into VNAv then select VNAv.

This prevent an advertent level off at 6000 feet one ATC wants you to descend

220
Q

How far out is the final approach course fix usually located?

A

7 NM

If this waypoint is coded as at or above it may be a good idea to change it to an AT altitude

This shallows descent and allows flap
And slow down before
FAF.

Example: RUNSU

221
Q

When setting an MDA, what should we do?

A

Add 50’

5.45 FCTM

222
Q

Why do we turn FD off on VNAV approach without runway fix

A

VNAV Path guidance transitions to level Flight once the missed approach fix is passed

5.46

223
Q

What MCP setting should be selected if the next alt on the approach is 1990’?

A

1900’

Set to the nearest 100 ‘ increment below ALT constraint.

224
Q

What is beneficial about FPA?

A

Automatically compensates for headwind or tailwind component

225
Q

If ever using VS on an approach, when do you select the miso approach altitude?

A

300 feet above the MDA

This is to max use of the altitude range arc

226
Q

RNP AR approach, you you change a
At or above altitude to AT?

A

Yes.
If there is an at or above altitude before the FAF, it may be changed

227
Q

RNP AR APPROAach. Is DME DME updating usually on ?

A

Follow FCOM SP or QRH, it will tell you to turn the inhibit on.

228
Q

If 0.3 or 0.15 is available for the RNP approach which one do you select?

A

The highest available RNP should be selected by the crew that is permitted by the prevailing weather conditions

Avoids nuisance alerts

229
Q

When is the latest that BA path can be engaged on an RNP AR approach?

A

Must be engaged for all segments that contain a GP angle
And
No later than the FAF or published GP intercept point

230
Q

What do you do if you lose GPS on an RNP AR approach?

A

ANP will grow and eventually NAV unable RNP alert will occur

no need to go round until
NAV unable RNP

231
Q

RNP AR approach what to do if deviation exceeds limit or amber deviation alert occurs?

A

Go around unless visual.

232
Q

Visual approach, what is the typical altitude?
How far a beam should you be on the downwind?
Which flaps should you have on downwind?

A

-1500 AGl
-2 nm
(3 Nm ring on runway helps for 1000’ stable and just inside of that for down wind)
- Flaps 5

233
Q

If a go around is initiated at 50 feet radio altitude will you touch the ground?

A

Not necessarily

Approximately 30 feet altitude is lost

234
Q

Can an automatic go around be initiated after touchdown?

A

No.

Disconnect autopilot and Autothrottle

Manual thrust
Stow speed brake

Ask for VREF speed.

Rotate to 15 degrees

Push toga airborne

Call go around, flaps 20

Positive rate, etc.

235
Q

When does LNAV automatically engage in a go round?

A

50 feet manual
200 feet auto pilot

236
Q

What is the normal method of acceleration in a all engine go round versus engine out?

A

All engine select VNAV (CLB THRUST)

EO manually increase speed at Accel
(FLCH AT CLEAN SPEED) = CON THRUST

237
Q

And go around the Rudder is controlled by the auto pilot until what altitude?

A

When another role mode or pitch mode is selected at approximately 400 feet AGL

TC takes over or pilot input

238
Q

FCTM 6.1

Can we use 2 bar VASI system

A

Should not be used

Visual aim point that results in main gears basically touching threshold

239
Q

Can we use 3 bar VASI?

A

Yes

1 red
2 white

Is on profile

240
Q

When does FCTM recommend disengaging the auto pilot and auto throttle if required??

A

1 to 2 nm
(300-600’AGL)

241
Q

FCTM recommends initiating flare at what altitude? What’s the pitch change?

A

30’

2-3 degrees PA

AT starts towards idle at 25’

242
Q

After landing, what could lead to tail strike?

A

After landing:
Increase pitch attitude,
Trim, or
holding the wheel off the runway

243
Q

What is the minimum speed at touchdown?

A

6.9 FCTM

Touchdown should occur at no less than VREF -5knots
(Any slower dramatically increases risk of tail strike)

244
Q

What happens to speed brakes on a bounce to landing?

A

Speed break retracts once aeroplane becomes airborne again.

 Manual extension required once Airplane returns to runway

245
Q

What are the two options if a bounce landing occurs?

A

1) hold or re-establish a normal landing attitude and thrust to Land

2)
Initiate a go around, retract speed brakes if required
Once airborne, press TOGA and initiate normal go around.

246
Q

What is the definition of a balked landing?

A

Discontinued landing attempt and go around initiated at or after touchdown but prior to reverse thrust.

247
Q

During landing, when are the Toga switches inhibited?

A

Near touchdown and on the ground

248
Q

What are the step-by-step procedures for a balked landing?

A

Disengage auto pilot
Disconnect auto throttle
Advanced thrust levers
Verify speed break retracted
At VREF, rotate 15°
Once airborne press TOGA
Perform Normal go around 

249
Q

In the event of a balked landing, what causes a takeoff configuration warning?

A

Landing flap configuration

250
Q

If suspect a hard landing, what should you do?

A

Report in AML as either suspected hard landing or hard landing

ASR?

Should specify if landing was hard on nose gear only
main gears only or
both main and nose

251
Q

Why do we not attempt to hold the nose Wheel off the runway on landing?

A

Results in high nose gear Sink rates upon break application

252
Q

Speed brakes are not raised after touchdown how much breaking effectiveness do you lose?

A

As much as 60%

253
Q

Who should monitor automatic speed brake extension after touchdown?

A

Both pilots

254
Q

What is the maximum amount of breaking that you can achieve?

A

Max manual

255
Q

Is it okay to use Max auto on the auto brakes?

A

Yes
Used when minimum stopping distance is required

Still less than maximum manual

256
Q

When should auto break three and four be used?

FCTM 6.26

A

Wet or slippery runway
Or
Landing rollout, distance limited

257
Q

When should auto break one or two be used??

A

Moderate deceleration suitable for all routine operations

258
Q

When using reverse thrust, is it important to activate it sooner than later?

A

Establishing desired reverse thrust ASAP after touchdown cannot be over emphasised

Minimises break temp and break wear and
reduces distance and very slippery runways

259
Q

What does using max versus minimum reverse thrust do to the brakes?

A

Minimum reverse thrust can double the brake energy compared to Max

260
Q

FCTM 6.26
Should the PF notify the p.m. when disconnecting auto break?

A

Should

261
Q

What are the three methods of disconnecting the auto brake on landing?

A

1) stow the speed break

2) smoothly apply break (fleet norm)

3) select auto brake selector off

262
Q

What is the most important thing for the anti-skid to operate properly?

A

Steadily increasing brake pressure
(do not modulate breaking)

Allows antiskid system to function at its optimum capability

263
Q

How much can the delayed onset of brakes cost you distance wise?

A

800 to 1000 feet

264
Q

Key points for breaking with anti-skid inop?

A

Nose Wheel on ground and speed break extended before start breaking

Very light initial pressure
Increase as ground speed decreases

Apply steady pressure

Use minimum breaking required

Greater care during lightweight landings

265
Q

What severely decreases the brake life of carbon brakes?

A

Primarily dependent upon number of breaking applications

One firm break application better than multiple light applications

266
Q

What auto brake settings are optimum for brake wear passenger comfort and stopping Performance?

A

2 or 3

267
Q

What is the best way to determine overheat situations for brakes?

A

QRH brake energy and cooling table
PI 31.39

268
Q

Overweight or heavy landing what is an interesting method of keeping brakes cool using reverse thrust?

A

6.30

Stopping assured ?
Turn auto brakes off
Continue slowing with reverse thrust
(MMMX TECHNIQUE)

269
Q

What is the queue to reduce from max reverse to idle reverse?

A

Start reducing a 60 kn

Reverse idle by Taxi speed

270
Q

On landing if encountered directional control problems, what are the steps to correct?

A

Release brakes
Reduce reverse thrust to idle

When directional control regained
And correcting towards centreline

Apply Max breaking and
symmetrical reverse

271
Q

Does the TAC operate during reverse thrust operations?

A

No

6.34

272
Q

How are maximum Crossman components affected by engine out or asymmetric reverse thrust ?

A

Reduce crosswind allowance by 5 Kn

on wet or contaminator runways

With Asymmetric reverse

273
Q

If you just took off, can you land at the same weight?

A

6.39

Landing distance is normally less than takeoff distance for flaps 20, 25 or 30
At all GW.
(Still run OPT)

Do NNC

REFERS To QRH CLIMB LIMIT WEIGHT

(Beware super hot or EO)
EO F20 no problem.

F30 landing only becomes and issue at 38 degrees sea level

274
Q

What does the NNC overweight landing checklist get you to check?

A

Making sure there’s a 10 kn margin between flaps 30 approach speed and flaps 30 placard speed.

If there isn’t then flaps 25 is recommended

Landing a concern plan to reduce weight

275
Q

Speed may become an issue in overweight landing scenario.

Name an interesting fact about speed reduction and flap extension for overweight landings?

A

6.40
During flap extension, airspeed can be reduced as much as 20 kn below normal manoeuvers speeds before extending to the next flap position.

Full manoeuvre capability, but no 15° overshoot

276
Q

Can you do an autoland during an overweight landing?

A

Not recommended
6.41

277
Q

7.1
What to do if deviate from an ATC clearance due to a non-normal manoeuvre ?

A

Expeditiously returned to the applicable ATC clearance
(Unless directed otherwise)

278
Q

Can the air plane be trimmed above VMO MMO?

A

No

279
Q

What is the first indication of an asymmetric condition?

A

Roll

Triple seven has excellent note controllability during takeoff and lift off

280
Q

Is VMCA greater or lesser than VR?

A

The MCA is always less than VR and VRef
(Meaning you always have enough speed to control an engine out condition)

281
Q

Can the auto throttle be used in an engine out condition?

A

FCTM 7.5

Yes.

Left and right auto throttle can be used independently

TAC provides automatic yaw compensation

282
Q

During descent, when does the Mach change to IAS?

A

At approximately 310 knots

7.7 FCTM

283
Q

When descending with auto pilot near VMO MMO is it acceptable to go above the speed momentarily?

A

FCTM 7.7

Acceptable

Maybe consider lowering speed slightly.

Any airspeed above VMO/MMO should be documented in AML

284
Q

If doing a rapid descent manually, what would be your initial pitch attitude?

A

10 degrees nose down

285
Q

Performing a high-speed approach, what are some key numbers?

A

3000 feet
15 nautical miles

Set MCP speed to approach speed
Full speed break

Extend flaps and gear on schedule

286
Q

FCTM 7.12

What is the first indication of a stall?

A

Airspeed low

Recover at either :
Airspeed low
Stick shaker
Initial buffet

287
Q

Is there ever a scenario where you would change the flap setting and in stall recovery?

A

Inadvertent flaps up takeoff

Stall warning at lift off

Extend to flaps 1

288
Q

FCTM 7.15

Beyond which bank angle is back pressure required to maintain level flight

A

30 degrees

289
Q

FCTM 7.16

Terrain considerations on an RNAV RNP AR approach

A

Momentary caution:
verify you’re on the required path using LNAV/VNAV

Any WARNING:
Immediate action

290
Q

FCTM 7.17
TA only may be appropriate in which conditions

A

EO (only time we really see it)
(Forces us into master)

Others;
Takeoff towards known traffic
Closely spaced parallel approaches

291
Q

Important note when conducting an RA manoeuvre?

A

FCTM 7.17

Properly executed: mild and does not require large inputs

292
Q

Adjust vertical speed adjust always means an increase or a decrease of vertical speed?

A

Decrease (reduction)

FCTM 7.17

293
Q

FCTM 7.18

What are the parameters for a upset?

A

(Older def)
-Pitch attitude greater than 25° nose up
-Pitch at its greater than 10° nose down
-Bank angle greater than 45°
-Less than the above, but airspeed below appropriate for the conditions

Airplane deviating from the intended Airplane state (newer def)

294
Q

What is a good reference to aid you in knowing which direction to roll in an upset recovery?

A

Roll the shortest direction to wings level
(TOWARDS BANK POINTER)

295
Q

Stall may be recognised by any of the following:

A

Inability to arrest descent
(Airbus Air France in Brazil)

If unreliable and cannot stop your descent, you’re most likely in a stall

And of course:
Stall warning :
- stick shaker (artificial)
- Buffet (natural)
Lack of pitch authority
Lack of authority

296
Q

FCTM 7.22

Beyond which bank angle can level Flight not be achieved without exceeding AFM G- limits ?

A

67 degrees

297
Q

If you have a huge positive windshear low on approach, what should you do?

A

If below 1000’, the positive positive shear is greater than 15 kn, go around Windshear

Be ready for the negative sheer which will probably come (JFK 04R)

298
Q

What are the three components to a positive Windshear outcome?

A

Avoidance
Precaution
Recovery

FCTM 7.24

299
Q

FCTM CHAPTER 8

How to handle multiple NNC?

A

8.1
Analyse
Good judgment
Choose NNC that take priority

300
Q

Quick fun fact

A

PF must exercise positive control by allowing time for acknowledgement and execution

  • lots of NNC, don’t rush Pm
    Be clear and concise, allow time for action.
301
Q

If have multiple EIC AS messages how best to determine the priority

A

8.2

Flight Crew should review all EICAS messages

Especially important in situations with multiple alerts

302
Q

What is the primary means of system alert identification in the flight deck?

A

EICAS

OTHER ANNUNCIATIONS AND AURAL WARNINGS CAN HELP

Use maximum auto pilot and automation

303
Q

Should the Flight Crew ever enter the electronics compartment in Flight?

A

Not recommended by Boeing

8.5

(In fact I think they’ve taken away the key)

304
Q

Is it always necessary to complete a non-normal checklist?

8.5

A

Boeing recommends completion of non-normal checklist as published
- Especially for Flight control malfunctions that are addressed in the NNC

Don’t rush

Unless immediate landing required complete all corrective actions before beginning the final approach

305
Q

Which braking scenario provides the shortest breaking distance?

A

8.3

Maximum manual braking provides shortest stopping distance, however

Auto brakes are still recommended
(Manual has human error issues)

306
Q

What is the definition of a suitable Airport?

Example in the case of an engine failure

A

Adequate plus whether and NOTAMS

307
Q

For persistent smoke or fire, do you need to land at a suitable airport?

A

Earliest possible descent landing in evacuation
(Not necessarily “suitable”)

8.7

308
Q

Should you consider jettisoning fuel if you are going to ditch?

A

Yes

309
Q

Is there a minimum oil quantity?

A

No
No oil quantity low checklist

310
Q

What is the most significant of the oil system indications?

A

Oil pressure

If abnormal oil quantity indications are observed check oil pressure and oil temperature

311
Q

Will an engine tailpipe fire be indicated in the cockpit??

8.9

A

No

It will be reported

Accomplish the NNC without delay
(Unannunciated)

Motoring the engine is the primary means of extinguishing the fire

The engine fire checklist is inappropriate

312
Q

What checklist options do you have for a loss of engine thrust control?

A

ENG Lim surge stall NNC

OR

Engine response NNC
(300 only)

313
Q

8.11

Dual engine fail memory items :
What is the point of cycling both fuel control switches?

A

Reset both EEC’s

8.11

314
Q

Air frame vibration due to engines severe damage or separation:

What would be a method to reduce vibration?

A

8.11

Go down AND slow down

315
Q

What is the most common indication of an engine birdstrike?

8.12

A

Significant vibration due to fan blade damage

EGT increase

After any Bird strike the engines should be inspected by maintenance
(ASR AND AML)
Give notice before landing.

316
Q

8.13

What are some considerations if large flocks of birds are reported or observed near the runway?

A

Delay takeoff landing when fuel permits, advise ATC and wait for action before continuing

Consider another runway

317
Q

Does weather radar scare birds if there’s large flocks in the area?

A

Not proven to be effective

318
Q

If you have a birdstrike should you use reverse thrust landing?

A

8.13

No reverse thrust should be used if a bird strike occurs

319
Q

What to do if a bird strike occurs between 80 kn and V1?

A

8.13

No immediate evidence of :
Engine engine failure
Fire
Power loss
Surge stall

Preferred option is to continue followed by an immediate return if required

(Honestly, Nick speaking out loud here if I go through a large flock of birds at 100 kn. I will probably reject.)

320
Q

Flight Crew actions if encounter birdstrike on a approacher landing?

8.13

A

If landing assured continue the approach (preferred)

Maintain a low thrust setting as possible

Limit reverse thrust on landing

321
Q

What are the two methods of evacuation?

A

Emergency evacuation (using slides)

Precautionary disembarkation

(These are the two that the flight attendants want to hear)

8.14

322
Q

What are some considerations if you are thinking about evacuating?

A

IF IN DOUBT CONSIDER AN EMERGENCY EVACUATION, USE THE SLIDES

Is it urgent? Possibility of significant injury or death if you don’t.

Type of threat :
Structural damage , fire, reported bomb on board

Spilled flammable fluid or materials

Possibility of passenger injury during evacuation using the slides

CAPTAIN SHOULD ASSUME ROLE AS
PF

323
Q

Are we required to discharge the fire bottles during every evacuation?

8.15

A

No

There is no reason to discharge the engine or a fire bottle for every evacuation

(Ex: cargo fire, bomb threat)

324
Q

What does slats primary fail indicate?

A

Failure of the primary hydraulic drive, reversion to secondary mode electric.

8.16

325
Q

What does slats drive indicate?

A

8.16

Slats fail to respond in the electric drive mode or an asymmetry exists

326
Q

What landing flap can you expect if the slats cannot extend fully?

A

Do the NNC and the flap extension be limited to flaps 20

327
Q

What is different about setting command speed when using secondary or alternate flap system?

A

Wait To reduce speed until flaps are extended to the commander position

Flaps extend more slowly, therefore its recommended Crew delay setting new command speed into the flaps reach the selected position

FCTM 8.17

328
Q

All Flight controls are electronically linked except for which Flight controls which have mechanical links?

A

Stabiliser
And
One spoiler pair (4 and 11)

329
Q

What are some indications of an elevator Jam?

A

Unexplained auto pilot disengagement

Auto pilot cannot be engaged

Undershoot or overshoot of an altitude during auto pilot level off

Higher than normal control forces during speed or configuration changes

330
Q

Is there a jammed Flight controls NNC?

A

Yes
Unannunciated

331
Q

Can you use too much force when trying to clear a jammed elevator or override?

A

No, there should be no concern about damaging the Flight control mechanism by applying too much force 

332
Q

Airspeed unreliable memory items (pitch and thrust), will result in level flight or climb?

A

Climb

333
Q

When is airplane considered stabilised with regards to airspeed unreliable?

A

When Thruston pitch been set and the pitch trimmed with no further trim movement needed

334
Q

When changing phase of flight or Airplane configuration with airspeed unreliable, do you move thrust first or pitch first?

A

8.19
Initial thrust change
then sit pitch attitude

335
Q

What are some good ways to check your ground speed during airspeed unreliable?

A

Ground speed on PFD

Also, most ATC radars can measure ground speed

336
Q

Actions to be taken if you get unreliable airspeed during takeoff or after V1?

A

Rotate smoothly towards 15°
Retract landing gear
Maintain flap configuration

At acceleration height :
Call for airspeed unreliable memory items (ap, fd, at off)
Set 10°
85% N1

Declare Mayday

Call for airspeed unreliable NNC

337
Q

Airspeed unreliable considerations for the approach?
8.23

A

Do ILS approach if possible

Establish landing configuration early

338
Q

Airspeed unreliable missed approach do you press TOGA?

A

No
8.24

Be prepared with thrust and pitch attitudes from the performance in Flight QRH tables 

339
Q

What is the purpose of fuel balancing?

A

Structural life of the airframe and landing gear
Not for controllability

Usually you get fuel imbalance approximately 20 minutes after engine failure

340
Q

When should fuel balancing be avoided?

A

During critical phases of Flight
(wait until workload permits)

341
Q

What is the best way to determine if you have a fuel leak?

A

Maintaining a few log and comparing actual fuel Byrne to the flight plan feel Byrne

342
Q

What is the most common type of fuel leak?

A

Engine fuel leak
Leak between the front bar and the engine

343
Q

If a few leak is suspected, what is the most important thing to do?

A

Follow the NNC carefully

8.27

344
Q

When do you get the EICAS message? Fuel quantity low?

A

When either main tank fuel quantity is less than 2041 kg

345
Q

If you have fuel quantity low, what can help during the approach?

A

Maintain the clean configuration as long as possible

The NNC calls for flaps 20 approach and landing

Avoid heavy breaking and max reverse thrust (may uncover fuel pumps)

346
Q

What should be considered when doing fuel jettison?
8.28

A

Ensure weather is good enough at intended landing airport

Jettison fuel above 4000 feet AGL

Avoiding fuel jettison in a holding pattern with other airplanes below

Take note of start fuel and end fuel (for CAR)

347
Q

Considerations for hydraulic systems in operative on landing?
Can you retract the landing gear if you’ve used the alternate gear extension? Should you continue Taxi with no wheel steering inoperative?

A

If the landing gear is extended using alternate gear extension, the gear cannot be raised

Continue with nose steering inoperative is not recommended
(Difficulties and heat buildup)

348
Q

When does the Rutter become effective for controllability?

A

Approximately 60 kn

Below this breaking action becomes primary means of directional control on landing

349
Q

Can you retract the land gear if you suspect that you have tire failure during takeoff?

A

Yes

350
Q

What do you do if you cannot get the landing gear lever up?

A

Do the gearlever lockdown and NNC
8.29

351
Q

If you have a tire failure during takeoff, do you need to return or continue?

A

Inform ATC immediately

Crew should consider continuing to destination unless there is an indication that other damage has occurred )

Continuing all allows the amount of fuel to be reduced normally

352
Q

Can you land safely with a flat nose Wheel or main gear tire?

A

8.30

Yes

With a single tire failure, TOWING is not necessary

353
Q

Considerations, if you have a flat nose wheel tire or flat main gear tire

A

Nose Wheel, lower the nose slowly landing

Main gear:
Max use of reverse thrust
Do not use auto brakes
8.30

354
Q

If you have gear disagree, should you cycle the landing gear lever?

A

Cycling the landing gear or manoeuvering the Airplane in an attempt to extend the remaining gear is not recommended
8.30

Consider jettisoning fuel and pull out the FCTM gear disagree 8.30

Coordinate with emergency services

Advise ISM and passengers

Have cabin crew be ready for an evacuation

355
Q

Should speed brakes be used on a partial gear or gear up landing?

A

8.31
Speed should be extended only one stopping distance is critical

356
Q

Are most gear disagree events, real or indicator malfunctions?

A

Usually indicator malfunction

357
Q

Can the Airplane be safely operated in an overspeed condition?

A

VMO MMO should not be exceeded intentionally

However, Crew can occasionally experience an inadvertent overspeed safely

Happens at high altitude deploy partial speed brakes slowly
Avoid reducing thrust

358
Q

If you exceeded VMO MMO, should you enter that into the AML?

A

Yes, and the maximum speed should be noted

359
Q

What are some indications that a tail strike occurred?

A

Noticeable bumper jolt
Scraping noise
Tail skid or tail strike EICAS

(Tail skid just means it’s not in the commanded position, no need for a return) 36

360
Q

When does the Flight Director provide accurate pitch guidance?

A

Airborne only

361
Q

Is a tail strike on landing or takeoff more serious?

A

Tail strike on landing tends to be more serious

362
Q

What is the common cause of a tail strike on landing?

A

Go around, initiated very late in the approach during flare or touchdown

MISSED Approach after touchdown, be sure to hold the nose and only rotate when at VREF

363
Q

What is important to do quickly if you get a wheel wheel fire?

A

Do the fire Wheel well non-normal checklist (basically extend the gear

Alt Hold and 250 kn

364
Q

What would be a consideration if both the FWD windows are damaged and you cannot see?

A

ILS to auto land

8.39

365
Q

Cann, the side windows in the cockpit be opened in Flight

A

Yes
Intentions should be briefed and ATC notified prior to opening the window because the noise levels can be high

366
Q

Is the inadvertent opening of a side window worthy of high-speed RTO?

A

No, continue airborne stabilise and close the window

Flight can continue once the window is closed locked and pressurisation Normal

367
Q

If manoeuvre capability is in question what should you limit the bank angle to?

A

15°

8.41

368
Q

Are Boeing aircraft able to land flaps up?

A

All Boeing airplanes have the capability to land using any flap position, including flaps up

369
Q

If the operation of flaps is in doubt, should you move the flat position?

A

Leading and trailing edge flap position should not be changed unless it appears the Airplane performance immediately requires such action

370
Q

If possible, should you complete all non-normal checklist before landing?

A

8.43

Complete all applicable non-normal checklist prior to beginning final approach

Immediate landing is required

371
Q

If the Airplane is very difficult to control, what would be a last resort help?

A

Disconnecting the primary flight control computers (PFCs)

372
Q

When should the arrival briefing be completed by?

A

No later than 10 minutes before top of descent
(Recommended)

373
Q

Briefing aid can be found in FCTM A4.1.2
What are some key briefing points I usually miss?

A

Airport elevation

RNP 0.___ (RNP AR only)

RSA and BTA

Weather that requires mitigation
(Gusty, contamination, LVO, WS)

374
Q

How to measure SGR?
Specific ground range?
KG/NM

A

FF/GS

Useful for comparing efficiency scenarios

375
Q

What are the two methods of calculating contingency fuel?

A

5% of trip (old)

PBC system (statistical) - new
- usually 15 min

(A5.1.3)

376
Q

How should you consider taking extra fuel?

A

For likely scenarios only, not what ifs…

Use fuel summary data to help assess the normal extra fuel burnt on the sector

377
Q

Is it required to report when the APU is used unnecessarily or if ground equipment is not serviceable?

A

A 5.1.4
Yes

Report through the EFF sector report clearly stating reasons

378
Q

For efficiency, when should you aim to have the engine stabilised on start up?

A

Aim to stabilise the engines no sooner than when the tug is clearing

379
Q

FCTM a 5.1.5
Wider radius turns to allow faster protect Taxi energy
what speed?

A

12-15 knots

380
Q

Is a full stop Takeoff or a rolling takeoff technique more desirable.

A

Normally use a rolling takeoff technique when clearance is issued prior to lining up

381
Q

ATC gives you an intermediate cruise altitude should you put it in FMC?

A

Yes
Example flying into Chinese airspace consider entering the intermediate cruise out dude and cruising at the ECON speed

382
Q

As pilots should we regularly change the cost index?

A

No
Cost or speed should not normally be increased unless requested by IOC or to meet curfew

383
Q

Early weather deviation is crucial try to keep deviations to less than how many degrees if possible?

A

15 degrees
FCTM a 5.1.7

384
Q

Is remaining below optimum altitude or going above optimum altitude better for fuel burn.

A

Remain below

Flying above optimum altitude can consume 60% more fuel

FCTM appendix 5.1.8

385
Q

If you forgot to clear the 1st to send out to constraint prior to transitioning the waypoint and Vee Vee goes into point point how can you reset it into an idle descent?

A

Enter a cruise out to on the Vee Vee cruise page to establish an idle path descent

FTM appendix 5.1.9 

386
Q

At what altitude are fuel flows the lowest while maintaining holding speed?

A

20,000’
FCTM appendix 5.1.9

387
Q

In VNAV SPD or FLCH, what happens when you use speed break?

A

Increase rated descent, not speed reduction

388
Q

Approximately how much fuel do you burn in one hold?

A

One hole is approximately six minutes

Somewhere between 500 kg and one ton per hold

389
Q

Does the FMC arrival fuel taken into account landing configuration?

A

No, it is not considered generally about 700 kg less

390
Q

Should commanders ever except or create a situation that will result in landing below minimum divert fuel?

A

No
Unless reasonably assured of landing

This means aircraft should be in the final arrival sequence with no further holding possible (showing below min divert)

391
Q

How to calculate fuel required direct to an en route alternate from present position?

A

SGR * Distance + approach and landing + reserve

Example: FF/GS*16+700+3000

7000/220*16+700+3000

4200kg (go around for 25R direct to visual 16)

392
Q

Using flaps 30 instead of flaps 25 uses how much more fuel?

A

Approximately 100 kg
(2-3 min taxi fuel)

393
Q

In normal conditions at what speed should you leave the runway centre line and at once speed should you enter the high-speed Taxi way?

A

Leave the runway Central line around 50 kn ground speed

Enter high-speed Taxi at around 35 kn

No TILLER above 30 knots

394
Q

How much of a headwind is used for your landing performance assessment?

A

50%

10 kn of headwind makes the aircraft feel approximately 27 tons lighter
(You’d have to input 20 knots)

395
Q

Extra considerations when considering RETI?

A

Achieve 15 kn ground speed before shutting down an engine

Larger radius turns
(12 to 15 kn)

Uphill parking bay apply thrust early

396
Q

If ground Equipment is available, how soon should the APU be shut down?

A

Policy is within five minutes of STA

397
Q

When should you start the APU when taxing to the bay?

A

Aim to start the APU so that is providing power just prior to come to rest on the park Bay
(Start just prior to turning in)

398
Q

When does the STEP TO line turn into the top of descent line?

A

Within 200 nautical miles on top of descent or within 500 nautical miles of destination 

399
Q

What wind does the ETA and fuel prediction use?

A

Predicted wind which is a mix of forecast and sensed wind and temperature

400
Q

Predicted wind is only used for one calculation what is that?

A

ETA/FUEL

Measured wind and forecast wind are 50-50 at 200 nautical miles from Airplane

401
Q

Normal step size is RVSM, what are other options?

A

FCTM appendix 5.1.22

Transiting China set 2000

ULH over pole or pacific, set 1000

402
Q

Min speed in cruise is what?
A.6.1.1

A

300:
Below optimum = MMS

Above optimum =
M0.82
(which equates approximately to FMC hold best speed) Tell Ron Chan next time I see him.

ER:
MMS
(All altitudes)

403
Q

Above Flight level 150 what is the best way to determine your required distance to go?

A

Approximately three times your altitude +20 miles for energy

404
Q

Which flap settings cause major buffeting with the use of speed brakes?

A

So flaps 15 onwards, avoid speedbrake if can.

Use of speed brakes with greater than flaps FIVE should be avoided

405
Q

F15 is not normally used during the approach however it can be useful, when?

A

Early speed reduction is required without the associated increased drag of flaps 20

406
Q

If speed reduction is required using idle descent in FLCH or VNAV SPD, what’s a good rule of thumb for distance to bleed speed?
A 6.1.6

A

1.5nm for 10 knots (in descent)
1.0nm for 10 knots in level flight

Descent:
(300knot-250knot =7-10nm)

300 to 180 is approx 18-20 nm

250 to 180 is approx 7-10 nm

407
Q

FCTM CALLS FOR WHAT Distances for configuration on the approach?

A

7 NM:
2100’ / F20 gear down/ 180 slowing to 160

6 NM:
1800’ / F30 / 150-160

5 nm:
1500’ f25 150-160

(I like to use 8/7/6) covers all

408
Q

If using VNAV, what should be used in a speed control environment?

A

MCP speed Window

409
Q

What is the lowest altitude you can set if intercepting the glide slope from above?

A

Charted FAF/FAP or GS intercept alt

Or

ATC cleared ILS intercept alt

410
Q

What can you expect if the EAI is on in the descent?

A

Deceleration rate and descent angle decrease

Use greater acceleration allowance or speed break

411
Q

What descent rate is normally required to intercept the glass slope from above?

A

1500-2000 FPM

F5 and full speed brake:
2000 FPM can hold speed

412
Q

Who is responsible for positioning the aircraft and maintaining visual separation with terrain and traffic during a visual approach?

A

Crew

Use TEAM
Track miles
Energy
AIDS (3Nm ring, and ILS)
Missed approach plan

(If in doubt, decline the visual )

413
Q

If cleared for a visual approach, should you use the auto pilot?

A

A – 6.1.11

PF should continue to make optimum use of automation (AP, FD, AT)

Set 1500 feet in MCP
(Visual approach pattern altitude)

(Set 3NM ring)

Minimums should be: 300 AGL
(Wings level)

414
Q

What are some some key things to do before leaving 1500 feet on a visual approach?

A

Continued use of auto pilot and flight Director is acceptable and according to normal procedures
- Eventually select AP and FD off
- SET Runway QDM
- set MAP ALT
- Auto throttle recommended

Poo poo poo poo

415
Q

When do you turn base in a visual circuit?

A

45 seconds after passing abeam threshold (+/- 1 second for every 2 knots wind… so 20knot TW on downwind, turn base at 35 seconds)

416
Q

Wings should be level by when on visual circuit?

A

300’ AGL

417
Q

3 requirements by 1000’ on visual approach?

A

Landing config

Constant 3 degree vert path to touch down

Stabilised (speed, configuration, checklist)

Not 4 white or 4 red

418
Q

Upset recovery mouth music
A 6.1.16

A

Stall/Attitude

Disengage

Push

Roll

Thrust

Stabilise

419
Q

When is an upset recovery required?

A

-Normal flight envelope exceeded:
25 degrees nose up
10 degrees nose down
45 degrees bank

  • rapidly trending towards envelope exceedance
  • approach to stall/stall indication occurs
  • you see AIRSPEED LOW and actions do no correct trend
420
Q

Does the PF need to announce that he’s disconnecting the auto pilot and auto final prior to doing so in case of upset?

A

Yes

PF shall call “ disengage”
Prior to disconnecting the auto pilot and auto

421
Q

FCTM Training standardisation:
how far from waypoint can altitude compliance be assured?

A
  • Approximately 2 nautical miles from an ATC cleared waypoint
  • on a published segment of the approach
  • VNAV engaged
422
Q

Who is responsible for the TCAS switch?

A

PM

Training standardisation 

423
Q

Is manual tuning of the ILS for a departure on runway 07 right required?

A

Permitted but not required

FCTM training standardisation.

424
Q

Is there a requirement to check LS against the NOTOC?

A

No.
Except if there’s a hand written amendment to the NOTOC, then check it against LS.

425
Q

Is flap retraction schedule required in departure brief?

A

May be considered on 777 when needed.

Example:
F5 required for 220 knot 07R

426
Q

Once Perf Data Steps are finished, what should you call for?

A

Before start checklist to the line

(Good grouping)

427
Q

When does the position update on take off for the GPS?

A

When TOGA selected

428
Q

Four items to manage prior to closing doors and push back..?

A

C-ELF

Cabin ready
Engineer
Load sheet
Fuel

429
Q

Do we need to wait for boxes to populate before setting FCS to run on engine start.

A

No

A7.4.3

430
Q

When is the RUNWAY/TAKEOFF DATA CHANGE checklist required?

A

If the before start checklist has been ACTIONED. (Started)
The NNC MUST BE COMPLETED

431
Q

What is the standard sequence for flight control check?

A

Left Right Up Down

432
Q

Can the flight control check be done before de-icing?

A

No.
Do any time after de-icing.

Can be done before flaps are set.
(Ie: save time, do flight controls, and only set flaps once close to runway)

433
Q

Is verbalising the runway intersection required in response to RWY Takeoff data?

A

Yes:
RWY 07R J2 Valid

Valid means: PEAT
Packs
Environmental
APU
Tech defects

434
Q

Who should hold the brakes in icing conditions at 3 degrees or less?

A

PF

(No need to display ENG on Lower MFD)

435
Q

Can you follow FD on all take offs?

A

Yes.
EO 8-11 degree

and

All Eng. 11-15 degree

436
Q

When flaps indicate up after take off, what should happen?

A

PM Auto select
lights as required
EAI as required.

Then

PF ask for ATOC

437
Q

Should crew consider turn radius on departure?

A

Pausing the acceleration
“IE: speed intervene”
At beginning of turn can help alleviate track violations.

438
Q

If all permitting: what speed should crew select once above 5000’ AGL ?

(ATC AND WEATHER DEPENDENT)

A

ECON SPEED

439
Q

High ROC with early ALT capture and speed decaying, what to do?

A

Select ALT HOLD
Then
VS or FLCH

440
Q

Are we allowed to set MRA or grid mora in Min?

A

No.
Can use fix page.

441
Q

What is the equation for turn diameter?

A

3 * Mach

M0.8 * 3 = approx 25 nm

442
Q

Do we need to time holds?

A

No need to:
time or
display raw data or
Program EFC time

443
Q

Is accurate speed flying required?

A

Yes.
Requests for min clean speed when ATC speed is just below, may be granted

Accurate speed to DME is required at most HUBS

444
Q

What is linked to the 5 above call?

A

Pm Auto:
Seat cabin crew
Open ECL

445
Q

What is linked to 10 above call?

A

Cycle signs
Landing lights on
Open ECL

446
Q

What needs to be verbalised vs verified when on LOC intercept heading?

A

Verbal:
ITFR identified (CAD REQUIREMENT)

Verified:
-Pointers shown (no need correct sense)
- waypoint sequence
- select app

(If cleared LOC only, don’t arm both!)

447
Q

Below which altitude should your hands be on the thrust and Control column?

A

2500 AGL
(Mandatory below 1000 AGL)

448
Q

Below which altitude is flight level change not allowed?

A

1000agl

449
Q

How do you call for the landing checklist?

A

Flaps 30/25, landing checklist

450
Q

What are the speed to be used for a rapid exit Taxi way?

A

30° RET (Hong Kong and ICAO)
Can leave centreline at 50 kn groundspeed

All other RET equals 35 kn

Should be tiller above 30 kn

451
Q

If going around at minimums, should you press TOGA, prior to minimum?

A

No delay in selecting TGA at minimum, but not before.

PF should advance the thrust levers positively

452
Q

When should the p.m. commence the shutdown procedure? (Seatbelts etc)

A

Parking and brakes Set

Fuel control switch to cut off

Commence flow automatically when fuel flow reads 0.0

453
Q

Should the PF make modifications in the FMC?

A

The PF could consider handing over Control to the PM

During periods of high workload, the Captain may consider becoming p.m.
(Task management)

454
Q

Who is responsible for the fuel control switches?

A

The PF during engine start

The p.m. thereafter

455
Q

Only two checklist need to be read exactly from left to right which checklists are they?

A

Evacuation

And

Fire engine on ground

456
Q

What speed is the best rate of climb speed with an engine out?

A

Flaps manoeuvre speed

(that’s why we maintain the speed until MSA)

457
Q

Equipment cooling override checklist, what is considered low altitude and low cabin differential pressure?

A

9000’

and

3.4 PSI

FCTM APPENDIX 7.12.3

458
Q

Does the fuel need to be balanced within an FCOM limitations prior to landing?

A

No

A 7.12.4

459
Q

What is the minimum you need to do if you get the fuel imbalance EICAS?

A

Read the condition statement

Do a quick EFC check

Eng synoptic

Fuel flow

CDU (prog page 2)

460
Q

During a depress when should you set the QNH?

A

Set QNH as soon as received to avoid missing it later

461
Q

Cockpit crew need to wait until what alt feet in order to remove the oxygen mask?

A

10,000’

(be practical with implementing this, i.e. 10,100 feet is fine)

FCTM 7.12.9

462
Q

During a depress, when can the cabin crew and passengers remove their oxygen?

A

At or below 14,000 feet

(ISM should not come to Flight deck)

Perhaps, double tap CAB button
(Give ism NITS briefing, and assure her you’ll make normal PA soon)

463
Q

What to do if the fuel imbalance checklist does not get over written or done?

A

If the fuel balance checklist is not completed before the approach commencement the checklist non-normal iOS will need to be cancelled and ignored by the Flight Crew at 1000 feet.
(RARE OCCASIONS, usually either do or override)

464
Q

What is the first step of the Flight Deck Management Model?

A

SSE
Stabilise
Solve
Execute

(Basically
Aviator navigate communicate)

465
Q

If having trouble solving the problem, what pneumonic is used in the Flight deck management model??
To help SOLVE

A

DOGAM
Diagnose
Objectives (set ambitious objective)
Generate options
Anticipate threats
Manage

466
Q

OPT
Our takeoff and landing performance app is managed by who ?

A

Ops engineering

467
Q

Is reverse thrust assumed for all RTOW OPT calculations?

A

Not considered for dry runway

Wet or contaminated :
all available reverse thrust assumed

468
Q

What is the buffer for an AST TAKE OFF PERFORMANCE?

A

+400kg and -1 HPa

469
Q

What is the lineup allowance for a 90° turn onto the runway for OPT?

A

82 feet

A 9.1.2

470
Q

What is the difference between the FMC and the OPt speed is generated for takeoff?

A

Opt considers the
stop way
clearway and
runway slope

FMC does not, and is therefore more conservative

471
Q

Cx policy is to enter the wind into OPT in which format?

A

As headwind or tailwind

472
Q

Where is TOB rating activated?

A

Only in Johannesburg
JNB/FAOR

473
Q

In optimum, how is the flap selection chosen?

A

OPT will select the flap that results in the highest assume temperature

474
Q

For APU to pack takeoff, takeoff is prohibited above pressure altitude?

A

6900 feet

475
Q

Is EAI ever assumed for the OPTT calculation?

A

Yes, Wen select ENG auto and the temperature is 10° or less
The performance calculation will assume anti ice ON

476
Q

For OPT takeoff calculation, what happens if you leave the takeoff weight input blank?

A

OPT will display maximum RTOW for given conditions

477
Q

Will OBT ever tell you that the crosswind limit has been exceeded??

A

Yes, OPT will crosscheck the runway condition versus Crosswind component versus CG and give warning.
(NOTE: this only happens if the wind is entered as a wind direction and magnitude 040/40)

478
Q

An OPT WHAT DOES THE ABBREVIATION CTBK HT, mean?

A

Thrust reduction altitude or flap setting
the default is 1000

479
Q

How do we know if the go around climb gradient is enough for an approach?

A

Ops manual says all engine climb gradient on triple seven is approximately twenty three percent.
Only real issue would be with engine out , which ops engineering has already assessed.

480
Q

For a manual landing, how many seconds flare is assumed for OPT?

A

7 second flare

481
Q

When selecting runway intersection, what is used for the calculation?

A

Lineup angle allowance (82’ for 90 degree)
Clearway and stop we are included as well

482
Q

How do you know if an improved climb has been used for OPT?

A

Improve climb zero means it has not been used.

Any value greater than zero means that VR and V2 have been increased

A 9.1.16

483
Q

Does OPTT prioritise minimum thrust or the highest assumed temperature?

A

Prioritises minimum thrust

Then AST

484
Q

Why do we crosscheck the flaps 30 reference speed at the end of performance status steps?

A

Gross error check for the performance calculation

(Ie: did you both enter 250 tons instead of 350?)

485
Q

What does the quick turn around weight represent?

A

On landing, if weight exceeds the quick turn around weight, wait the specified time and check the wheel thermal plugs have not melted before I executing a subsequent takeoff. 

A9.1.19

486
Q

Are all landing OPT performance calculations factored?

A

If any NNC is selected, it does not include any factoring

487
Q

What does the caution range represent for landing OPT?

A

Fuse plugs may melt, delay takeoff and inspect after one hour.

Follow QRH flow chart

488
Q

What does the PF announce when wanting to tell the Crew which information to put in for takeoff performance OPT?

A

KPA, no lights, Hong Kong runway 07R J2, 0 wind, AltCG1

When complete. PF announces complete and initiates the compare.

489
Q

What to do when there is contamination on the runway for takeoff for OPT?

A

Type and depth must be entered
Greater than 3mm SW etc.

(No AST)
No buffer

490
Q

Should TOW be rounded down or up by one decimal place for OPT calculation?

A

Up!

333,419 would be 333.5 for OPT

491
Q

Are MACTOW values rounded up or down for the OPt calculation?

A

Rounded down

24.39 becomes 24.3 (FWD)

A 9.1.22

492
Q

Where is WIP for a runway selected in OPT?

A

Usually found in the drop-down menu for
- intersection runway
- Just the runway selection
- Worst case scenario manually input via NOTAM

493
Q

If MEL for OPT, requires packs off or APU on for example, ensure that these are selected appropriately for the OPT (STATEMENT)

A
494
Q

How should the takeoff weight for the OPTT calculation be verbalised?

A

Load sheet TOW +200 kg
(Example)

At no stage should eat at the PF or p.m. verbalise the takeoff weight to be used

495
Q

If the OPT compare function is not working, can you still go?

A

Yes, referred to contingency procedures.

Basically, just read out the results :
Flap five
07R
Full length
TW315.0
EO1400
D-TO1 98.1
Sel Temp 32
V1
V2
VR

Ref 30 171

496
Q

OPT have buffers for takeoff:
+400kg example, decrease by more than 1HPa.

Is there any restriction when doing RNP AR EO procedures (such as EO 07R SID?)

A

Yes. A9.1.29

Take off data shall be recalculated if the temperature is changed by more than +/- 3 degrees

497
Q

Should an en route landing performance be assessed for every flight for destination prior to landing?

A

Yes, shall be independently assessed by PF and PM for every landing.

(Training wise, doesn’t need to match up the exact same)

498
Q

When shall an OPT dispatch landing calculation be performed?

A

When any of following apply:

  • MEL’s that affect landing perf
  • Dest or ALTERNATE runway forecasted to be contaminated at time of arrival
  • RWY NOTAM reducing LDA

(SHALL NOT DISPATCH IF PLANNED LANDING WEIGHT IS ABOVE DISPATCH LANDING WEIGHT)

499
Q

Can you select an auto brake setting that gives an unfactored Land Dist below LDA?

A

Auto brake setting Shall be selected such that the factored landing distance is less than the landing distance available

(So for NNC, may have to add 15% and make sure that’s less than LDA)

500
Q

What does the PF announce when wanting to complete an OPT landing performance?

A

Example:
KPA, no lights, Hong Kong, 25 left, no wind, flap 25

(Only state reverse if doing unusual max)

501
Q

There are any discrepancies between the Learning performance and OPT, Should you try to reconcile?

A

FCTM 9.1.35
Says YES

Any discrepancies IN input or output SHALL be reconciled by the PM and a further performance calculation and compare SHALL BE completed

502
Q

There are any discrepancies between the Learning performance and OPT, Should you try to reconcile?

A

FCTM 9.1.35
Says YES

Any discrepancies IN input or output SHALL be reconciled by the PM and a further performance calculation and compare SHALL BE completed

503
Q

Which landing weight do you use for the OPT calculation?

A

Greater of:
Final load sheet landing weight

ZFW Plus HIGHEST OF FMC calculated TOT or CALC

(Without configuration allowance)

FCTM 9.1.35

504
Q

Which landing weight do you use for the OPT calculation?

A

Greater of:
Final load sheet landing weight

ZFW Plus HIGHEST OF FMC calculated TOT or CALC

(Without configuration allowance)

FCTM 9.1.35

505
Q

What is the purpose of doing a landing Dispatch calculation?

A

To ensure that the plan landing weight does not exceed the limit weight

506
Q

What are the contingency procedures for Opt EFB?

A

1) calculations using one iPad

2) compare function not working (takeoff or landing) 

507
Q

What are the contingency procedures for Opt EFB?

A

1) calculations using one iPad

2) compare function not working (takeoff or landing) 

508
Q

What does the FCTM say about capturing and saving the takeoff performance calculations?

FCTM 9.1.47

A

CAD requirement to save the calculation used for takeoff

Once the final load sheet is received and takeoff performance validated takeoff performance must be retained

Use CPA

If takeoff data or runway has changed after initial OPT takeoff that has been saved just repeat the process

509
Q

What does the FCTM say about capturing and saving the takeoff performance calculations?

FCTM 9.1.47

A

CAD requirement to save the calculation used for takeoff

Once the final load sheet is received and takeoff performance validated takeoff performance must be retained

Use CPA

If takeoff data or runway has changed after initial OPT takeoff that has been saved just repeat the process

510
Q

What is the backup procedure for OPt takeoff and landing?

A

ACARS RTOW

(Beware no longer provides performance data with MEL or CDL)

(if need RTOW Calc with Emmy CD IOC should be contacted)

511
Q

What is the backup procedure for OPt takeoff and landing?

A

ACARS RTOW

(Beware no longer provides performance data with MEL or CDL)

(if need RTOW Calc with Emmy CD IOC should be contacted)

512
Q

For ACARS, is there anyway to get a full list of available runway codes or a full list of runway lengths at an airport?

A

In the runway code, enter:

LST : for a list of runway length data

ALL: list of available run my codes

513
Q

What is the maximum valid contaminant depth that you can enter in the ACARS?

A

Standing: 12 mm (1/2 inch)

Dry loose snow : 101 mm (4 inch)

Same as limitation

514
Q

For ACCARS, do you need to calculate a coldweather correction for the engine out acceleration altitude?

A

No, the acceleration included cold temperature pad that considers the coldest temperature at that airport

515
Q

For ACCARS, do you need to calculate a coldweather correction for the engine out acceleration altitude?

A

No, the acceleration included cold temperature pad that considers the coldest temperature at that airport

516
Q

What is the QNH buffer for a takeoff performance calculation using ACARS?

A

Drop more than 2 HPa (AST)

No drop allowed for max thrust

517
Q

What is the default Mactow range used on ACARS takeoff performance?

A

ACG1

Use runway code F07R for FWD
Use runway code A07R for Aft of 29%

518
Q

Is it possible to include a WIP for a landing using the ACARS?

A

No WIP Landing data is available

Therefore, if the LDA is shorter than full length, you must enter the distance instead of runway code

519
Q

When would a slope need to be included if doing a landing calculation using ACARS?

A

Not needed if using a runway code

If entering an elevation instead of Airport code, then the default will be 2% down slope if nothing entered

520
Q

Is alternate send still available using ACARS?

A

No

521
Q

When would you apply the gusty or Strong crosswind condition policy?

A

Patrick Lau likes to tie in reasons:

RETI limit and landing with STC limit :
25 knot XW

So why not? Define your gusty and Strong crosswind condition policy as that number?

522
Q

When would you apply the gusty or Strong Crown crosswind condition policy?

A

Patrick Lau likes to tie in reasons:

RETI limit and landing with STC limit :
25 knot XW

So why not? Define your gusty and Strong crosswind condition policy as that number?