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B777 > B777 CBT General > Flashcards

B777 CBT General Flashcards

1
Q

Min width for 180 turn

A

56.5 M
(183 feet) or (143’ min pivot) 2.16

This doesn’t include the minimum PIVOT turn in FCTM, this is hard on the gear system but can be done in less than 150’.

So anything narrower than normal 200’ wide runway, be weary.

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2
Q

Max altitude B777?

A

43,100’

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3
Q

Mechanical flight control is allowed to which controls?

A

Stabilizer through Alternate pitch trim

And

Roll through control wheel to spoiler pair

(The rest is fly by wire)

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4
Q

APU provides what on ground and air?

A

Ground:
Electrical power
Bleed power

Air:
Bleed power up to F220

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5
Q

Max fuel capacity

A

Approx 145.5T

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6
Q

What does ISFD stand for

A

Integrated Standby Flight instrument display

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7
Q

AIMS stands for?

A

Automated Information management system

(Thrust, Data comms, maintenance, FDR 24hr, FMC)

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8
Q

Status cue inhibit

A

Eng start until 30 min after take off

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9
Q

Comm alert inhibit

A

Take off thrust until 400’

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10
Q

Master caution Liights and aural and advisory messages inhibited when during take off?

A

80knots until 400’ or 20 seconds
(The caution will still show on eicas)
Just no sound or light.

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11
Q

Master warning lights for fire inhibited when?

A

V1 or rotation until 400’ or 25 seconds

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12
Q

Take off config warning inhibits when?

A

V1 onwards

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13
Q

Landing inhibit exemptions below alert height?

A

No Autoland
Autothrottle disc
Speedbrake extended
Autopilot

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14
Q

Config Warning sys can occur before take off if a warning sys is inop for?

A

Comfig doors
Gear steering
Parking brake
Flaps
Rudder
Spoilers
Stabiliser

Or
1 or both master warning lights inop
Or
1 or both warning loudspeakers inop.

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15
Q

Do inhibited checklists need to be stated when reading non normal checklist?

A

No.
Do not say

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16
Q

ADIRS gives?

A

ADM ADIRU SAARU GIVE:
Posit
Att
Alt
Flight displays
FMC
Speed
Eng controls
Flight controls

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17
Q

ADM?

A

Air data modules
(Pitot and static info)
Three pitot
6 static ports

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18
Q

ADIRU?

A

Air Data intertidal ref unit
(Replaced IRS)
- att
Heading
Lat long
Gs
(Must be aligned preflight)

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19
Q

How to align ADIRU?

A

Turn off for 30 seconds, then turn on.
(Can take 6-15 min to align)

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20
Q

SAARU?

A

Back up to the ADIRU
SECONDARY ATTITUDE AIR DATA REF UNIT

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21
Q

Reason we turn ADIRU off in secure checklist?

A

It will use up battery if AC power removed. Horn will sound to ground crew.

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22
Q

Does SAARU provide inertial reference?

A

No. If ADIRU fails, a reference heading must be given for SAARU. And periodically updated.

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23
Q

Which Alt do flap speeds show up?

A

Below F200

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24
Q

When does landing altitude automatically get set?

A

When RTE is entered.
It’ll hold departure Landing Alt until 400nm away or half way, then switch to destination Alt

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25
Q

What does ILS freq and front course switching to Identifier mean? Ex IZTF

A

Means it not only is Tuned, but it’s identified too.

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26
Q

What is Air Data/ Att switch for?

A

ADIRU PROVIDES normally.
Saaru auto back up.

Altn selects single channel unchecked air data.

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27
Q

Single source ILS caution?

A

PFD’s show ils from same source
(Cat 1 only)

Means 2 of three ils have failed

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28
Q

Pushing NAV source display does what?

A

Makes the CDU provide data to ND instead of FMC and AIMS. No vertical navigation

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29
Q

Dual FMC failure? What controls ND?

A

On side CDU with centre as auto back up.

No auto tuning Radio Aids. Needs to be done manually.

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30
Q

Where is the AOC located?

A

Document holder in back of cockpit

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31
Q

How to display date on clock?

A

Press the push button.

Can also set local time.
Move to MAN
Set H then M then hold, then Run.

Maybe good habit to get into for PA’s

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32
Q

ISFD is powered by what?

A

Left DC system

Dedicated Pitot Static

Heading from captain PFD info

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33
Q

Main electrics come from?

A

2 EDG
And
1 APU EDG available in flight

(2 out of 3 are enough for full power)

1is enough for all essential flight loads

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34
Q

What is powered by hot battery bus no matter what?

A

Eng fire ext bottles
APU fire ext bottles
ADIRU if selected on

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35
Q

Bus tie breakers keep associated bus by what order?

A

Associated Engine Generator
APU generator
Opposite Eng generator
External power (manual only)

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36
Q

Bus tie breakers auto open when?

A

Associated EDG’s are powered.

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37
Q

Ground handling bus powered by what?

A

External power or APU

For

Cargo doors and lights
Maintenance access lights

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38
Q

Ground service bus is for what?

A

Cabin service:
Lights and out lights
Battery chargers for main and APU battery
And
LEFT FORWARD FUEL PUMP (APU)

Powered whenever RIGHT main bus powered or APU on (either or)

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39
Q

DC power system is used for what?

A

Important stuff:
PFD’s
ADIRU
GPS
ND’s

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40
Q

Primary source of DC power?

A

4 TRU’s
Transformer Rectifier Units
(AC to DC powered by 2 transfer bus)

No controls for this system.
Fully Automatic

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41
Q

What are the back up system for DC system?

A

2 BUGs (back up generators)

1 per engine

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42
Q

If both main DC bussed become unpowered, what powers the L and Center FCDC (flight control DC bus)?

A

Hot battery bus

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43
Q

RAT provides?
Deploys when?

A

Standby Electrical and hydraulic power.
Green Press light shows when pressure reaches 1500 PSI

Deploys automatically if :

1) both AC transfer busses are unpowered.

2) all three hydraulic systems low

3) dual engine failure and C hydraulic pressure low.

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44
Q

What takes priority for RAT?
Electrics or Hydraulics?

A

Hydraulics.

Electrics will shed to provide HYD

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45
Q

Elec Gen Drive Eicas indicates what?

A

Low oil pressure in Generator drive.

High gen drive temps will auto disconnect drive.

Disconnecting gen drive can only be reconnected on ground.

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46
Q

When do you get Approach idle?

A

Higher thrust than min idle.

Auto:
EAI on
F25 or more
C1 or C2 HYD demand pump inop and flaps out of up.
Opposite engine bleed air valve closed.

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47
Q

What is the max flight level for in flight start envelope?

A

F300

Above this, start may be possible, but not assured.

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48
Q

In flight start?

A

Move fuel control switch to run.

If X-Bleed shows, need to move start switch to Start, and with Autostart available, move Fuel control switch to run immediately.

49
Q

Moving reverse thrust to reverse idle does 2 things.

A

1) disconnects Autothrottle

2) Engages auto speed brake, even if it was not armed.

50
Q

Hydraulics:
L and Right primary and secondary power?

A

Primary: Engine

Secondary: Electric

51
Q

Center hydraulic

A

Primary : 2 electric pumps

Demand:
2 demand air pumps (bleed air)

RAT provides back up hydraulics for Center system

52
Q

Left hydraulic system powers?

A

L Rev
Some flight controls

53
Q

Center hyd system powers?

A

Nose gear steering

Alternate/ Res brakes

Main gear steering

Flaps
Flight controls

54
Q

Right hyd system powers?

A

Normal brakes

Rh Rev

Flight controls

55
Q

Preflight hydraulic switch setting?

A

Only primary L and R on.

L/R demand and C1/C2 primary off.

56
Q

Hydraulic system configured for start and finish?

A

Start: counter clockwise

R demand auto

C1 C2 primary to On

L C1 C2 demand auto

(Counter Clockwise circle from
R demand)

Shutdown:

Clockwise from C2 demand (ending where you began with Demand R)

57
Q

If Center hydraulics have an entire leak, does anything remain operative?

A

Standpipe should allow pressure for C1 Elec pump to work, giving:
- Alt/Res brakes
- nose gear and steering

58
Q

If have a hydraulic pressure issue, what to do?

A

Follow checklist.

But basically, Demand should act as auto back up.

Turn demand pump to On, in case auto didn’t work.

If that doesn’t work, turn primary and demand off.

59
Q

Modes of operation of flight controls?

A

Normal
Secondary
Direct

60
Q

When do you need to use trim switches on yoke?

A

Manual flight with a speed change.
1 second blip = 10 knots speed.

Trim switches are inhibited with AP engaged

61
Q

When does TAC operate?

A

Above 70kts

Manual or Auto flight

(And obviously when it senses a 10% difference in N1)

62
Q

Wheel to rudder cross tie assists what?

A

Helps pilot fight engine failure with roll input initially.

Operates below 210 knots

Only in normal mode

63
Q

Which spoiler panels are mechanically controlled

A

4 and 11

64
Q

Flaps have how many modes?

A

Primary (hydraulic)
Secondary (electric)
Alternate (electric)

65
Q

When do we use F15?

A

Take off only

66
Q

Flaps 1 is what?

A

Slats only.
After that, Trailing edge moves. (5,15,20)
30: slats move further and TE move

67
Q

Primary mode has load relief for which flap settings?

A

15-30

68
Q

Flap/Slat control EICAS means what?

A

Primary and secondary flap fail.
Need to manually select alternate.

69
Q

Flap primary fail EICAS means what?

A

Flaps have automatically gone to secondary mode (electric)

Slower

70
Q

Flaps drive EICAS means?

A

Flap assym detected

Hydraulic AND electric drive motors fail

Uncommanded motion

(Flaps stuck, don’t use alt)

71
Q

What to do if C hydraulic system fails or Gear not down and locked?
(With regard to landing gear?)

A

Use alternate gear extension
(Gear can be retracted if C hydraulic system still working, using normal method)

72
Q

Do you still have steeering if you lose C hydraulics?

A

Yes. Hydraulic reservoir in C allows Nose wheel steering only.

73
Q

What does Amber Brake SOURCE light indicate?

A

R and C hydraulic pressure low.
Accumulator pressure needed to set park brake.
Anything below 1000 won’t give you braking.

74
Q

RTO available above what speed?

A

85kts

75
Q

What are the temperature ranges for Aft and Bulk cargo heat for low and high?

A

Low: 4-10 degrees

High: 18-24 degrees

76
Q

What bleed air anti ice do we have?

A

EAI - cowls

WAI - mid wing slats

77
Q

Does 777 have continuous ignition?

A

Yes. It operates automatically when EAI operates.

78
Q

When is WAI inhibited?

A

On ground

And

5 min after take off if TAT is 10 or above (on)

Auto: 10 min after take off in any Takeoff mode

79
Q

Pulling fire switches usually does what?

A

Shuts down fuel valves and bleed valves.
Engine and ApU

80
Q

How many cargo fire bottles are there?

A

5

Air
2 fire immediately
3 fire after a delay of 20 min if haven’t landed yet.
If land within 20 min, 1 bottle discharges on touchdown

Ground:
2 fire
1 bottle fires after 20 min delay

81
Q

Will hot brakes ever set off the wheel well fire detection system?

A

No.
Shouldn’t.
Design to detect fire only.

82
Q

How to put out wheel well fire in flight?

A

No fire fighting.
Follow checklist.

Respect 270knot extension speed
Then
Extend gear

83
Q

What does switching the Serv Intph switch to ON do?

A

All service inter phone stations are connected to Flight inter phone.

84
Q

How do you speed dial the ISM on the audio control panel?

A

Double tap the CAB mic switch.

85
Q

What is the back up if L or R ACP fails?

A

Selecting Obs Audio to captain allows captain to use all normal methods of comms but selecting frequencies through C ACP.

86
Q

SATVOICE LOST means what?

A

Voice capability temporary unavailable!

SATCOM VOICE
OR
SATCOM
(Are much worse, meaning system now inoperative)

87
Q

ACARS comm priority

A

VHF
Satcom
Hf

88
Q

What are three ways you can disengage approach mode?

A

Press TOGA
Or
Disc AP and turn off FD
Or
If above 1500’ RA, press APP.

89
Q

How to enter ApU to pack take off?

A

Enter APU where assumed temp usually goes.

90
Q

Transponder:
What is difference in selecting Normal or Altn?

A

Normal gets info from ADIRU

Altn gets info from SAARU

91
Q

Weather radar system fault indications happen where?

A

On ND

WX WEAK - Calibration fault
WX ATT - attitude input fault
WX STAB - stabilisation fault

WX fail - radar system failure

Map/wxr range disagree: returns cannot be displayed

92
Q

How is turbulence shown on weather radar?

A

Magenta

93
Q

TA is what timing?

A

20-48 seconds before conflict
TRAFFIC TRAFFIC

94
Q

RA issued when?

A

Conflict within 15-35 seconds

95
Q

Proximate traffic is what?

A

Within 6 nm and 1200’ (white solid diamond)
No alert

96
Q

What does TCAS RA FO
OR
TCAS RA CAPTAIN
EICAS mean?

A

There is a RA but the system to help out on respective PFD has failed.
This would be a really tricky scenario.

97
Q

GPWS colour coding?

A

Red - + 2000
Solid yellow +1000-2000 above
Dotted yellow -500 to +1000
Solid green -500 to -1000
Dotted green -1000 to -2000

98
Q

GPWS AMBER TERRAIN WARNING TIMING?

A

40-60 seconds

99
Q

Terrain terrain pull up timing?

A

20-30 seconds.

100
Q

PWS gives warning and caution within how far?

A

Enabled below 1200 RA
Uses Doppler

Warnings within 1.5nm
Caution within 3NM

101
Q

Does PWS have a blind spot?

A

Yes. Up to 0.5NM ahead of aircraft.

102
Q

FMC max alt based on what?

A

Current gross weight, airspeed and number of engines operating.

FCTM
GW
Temp
C of G

103
Q

Recommended ALT based on?

A

Two engines, GW, target speed,
FORECAST WIND ABD TEMP.

104
Q

LRC is what?

A

Max range, ignores Cost Index
Approx 140 CI
Or M0.84 at OPT

105
Q

When does a Step climb show in FMC?
How far from Dest or TOD?

A

More than 500 nm to Dest
More than 200nm to TOD

106
Q

RTA progress is found where?

A

Progress page 3

107
Q

OFFPATH DESCENT function follows LNAV RTE or DIRECT TO the DES TO point?

A

Direct.
So if inside drag circle, need more track miles than direct to.

108
Q

When does thrust limit go to CON thrust after engine failure on takeoff?

A

Ref30+78

109
Q

What if you have FMC eicas?

A

Lose auto pilot.

LNAV AND VNAV LOST.

Can usually re-engage AP with ALT NAV legs page.

CDU maintains most legs from time of failure.

To engage LNAV, engage another roll mode, then LNAV.

VNAV will be lost.

(Auto pressurisation and Nav auto tuning lost)

110
Q

Which Buttons are active after FMC failure, on CDU?

A

Alt:
Legs
Prog
Nav rad

111
Q

What does CI 0 give you?

A

Max Range Cruise (MRC)
Fuel mileage is greatest

112
Q

LRC

A

Fuel
Mileage is 99% of maximum Range
10-25 knot increase for 1% increase fuel.
Approx 0.84M on 777 at OPT ALT

Approx 140 CI

Anything above this will come at significant fuel cost.

113
Q

OPT ALT IS function of what?

A

Weight and CI (NO WIND)

114
Q

What determines max alt

A

Thrust limit (300)

And or

Manoeuvre margin based on CofG
(ER)

115
Q

Recommended Alt is?

A

Based on info for next 500 nm.

GW speed alt route wind temp
step size

116
Q

Restrictions on using AST:

A

Not permitted with contaminated runway.

117
Q

When does IAS CG able to Mach and Mach to IAS in climb and descent?

A

Changes to Mach at 0.84 in climb

Changes to IAS in descent at 310 kt

FCOM 4.10.6

118
Q

Auto brake is available from what system?

A

Right (normal) only

B777 (16 decks)

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