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777 Tech Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

What lights auto extinguish when gear selected up?

A

Taxi light and nose landing gear

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2
Q

How are the annunciation lights affected by the Storm switch?

A

Puts them on full brightness.

As well as:
L/R FWD panel flood
Glareshield flood
Some
Aisle stand floor

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3
Q

Which flight deck lights are powered by standby elec power?

A

Dome lights
Flood lights

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4
Q

Does master brightness control circuit breaker panel lightin?

A

No

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5
Q

Do individual lighting controls operate with master brightness on?

A

Yes, but to limited range.

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6
Q

What EICAS shows that emergency lights are not armed?

A

EMER LIGHTS

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7
Q

What is requirement for door 1L overhead rest to be used for taxi take off and landing?

A

Door open and latched.
(Until at altitude with seat belt signs off)

Make sure supply airflow light NOT illuminated

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8
Q

Can 5L over head rest be occupied while amber airflow light is on?

A

No.
Illuminated until F250

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9
Q

When will upper crew rest alert horn sound continuously?

A

Depress

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10
Q

When will upper free rest alarm sound Pulsate?

A

Smoke detected in crew rest

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11
Q

How can aft galley power be reset?

A

Push and hold AIRFLOW/SMOKE RESET SWITCH at both door 1L and 5L

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12
Q

How can alert horn be silenced at crew rest?

A

Push horn shut off

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13
Q

Is take off permitted in the secondary flight control mode?

A

No. Only in normal mode.

-Normal
-Secondary (can check on flight control synoptic)
-Direct (only if PFC turned off)

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14
Q

The operation of which flight control is limited to 20,000’?

A

Flaps

If try to operate above, you’ll get
“load relief”

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15
Q

Weather radar limitations?

A

Not in hangar or with people near nose.

Can do TEST though.

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16
Q

Can aircraft be operated outside the conditions of MEL?

A

Rarely, but can use Operations Dispensation in OPS A.

Example, lightning strikes exceed limits.
Takes a bit of time.

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17
Q

PADD is for what?

A

Performance downgrade differed item.

Usually CDL is accompanied by PADD.

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18
Q

(L) in MEL signifies what?

A

Autoland capabilities affected

  • MUST ALSO BE A PADD
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19
Q

(E) item signifies what in MEL?

A

Effects EDTO capability.

  • MUST ALSO BE A PADD
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20
Q

When has the aircraft been dispatched?

A

After moves under its own power (so basically after ENG start)

If defect on taxi:
Consider QRH, FCOM, MEL, IOC, ENG

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21
Q

ZADD

A

Cabin defect

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22
Q

What sources can supply bleed air?

A

APU
Ground Cart
Engines

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23
Q

Items that use bleed air?

A

EAI
WAI
Hydraulic reservoir pressure
Potable water tank pressure
Engine starts and APU
Cabin pressure and temp
Center hydraulic demand pumps
Aft cargo heat
TAT probe aspiration

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24
Q

How many engine bleed sources are there?

A

2

High pressure stage for low thrust moments

Low pressure stage for high power settings

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25
Q

List cases for automatic engine bleed valve closure?

A

Start
Bleed source loss
Over temp or over pressure
Bleed duct leak
Eng fire switch pulled
Ground air supplied

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26
Q

When can bleed air from APU be used in flight?

A

F220 and below

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27
Q

Is ground bleed air high or low pressure?

A

High

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28
Q

Which isolation valves are normally open in flight?

A

L and R

Center stays closed to separate sides.

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29
Q

How many steps to isolate a duct leak?

A

1, 2 or 3 steps

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30
Q

What EICAS indicates isolation of a duct leak?

A

Bleed Loss L/C/R

Bleed leak provides auto isolation.

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31
Q

What does the air con system provide to cabin?

A

Conditioned air from PACks and recirculated air from upper and lower recirc.

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32
Q

How many cabin temp zones are there?

A

7

6 cabin
1 cockpit

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33
Q

On ground, which is noisier, 1 pack or 2 packs?

A

One pack, working harder

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34
Q

List the doors on 777

A

Passenger entry
L1,2,4,5 plug

Over wing
Door 3L/R plug

RHS cargo:
FWD and AFT Electric NON PLUG

BULK - plug

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35
Q

When does the door vent panel open?

A

Initially after rotating the handle

Auto flight lock is above 80kts
(Limited door handle rotation)
Vent opens to allow smoke exit

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36
Q

Electrical power lost, what is position of door flight lock?

A

Spring loaded to open

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37
Q

When are the door handles locked?

A

Above 80knots (limited movement)

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38
Q

Which cargo doors are electrically operated?

A

FWD and AFT

(Non plug)

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39
Q

How is bulk cargo door operated?

A

Manually

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40
Q

Can the fwd and aft cargo doors be operated manually?

A

Yes.
Normally electronically, but can manual.

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41
Q

How can the oxygen quantity be determined?

A

STATUS PAGE

1600 PSI is the golden number
(Anything below and should have a look at FCOM limitation)

  • be quick and firm about it with engineering, can take approx 30-40 min to change. It’s a limit and needs to be changed!
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42
Q

How is oxygen shut off and crew usage?

A

Close left o2 door and press the
reset/test switch.

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43
Q

Is the passenger O2 system gaseous or chemical?

A

GASEOUS

(Only ex EK aircraft are chemical)
HNS-HNX

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44
Q

When do passenger oxygen masks auto deploy?

A

Cabin altitude of 13000’

(If switch guarded in Norm)

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45
Q

How can passenger oxygen flow be reset?

A

Flight deck:
push the reset switch on Pass O2

-flow controls close if cabin altitude falls below 13500’

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46
Q

When does bulk cargo ventilation fan operate?

A

Bulk cargo temp selector in high

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47
Q

Which air heats the FWD cargo hold?

A

Air from FWD equip ventilation system

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48
Q

Which equip cooling supply fans normally run?

A

FWD

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49
Q

What will cause automatic override mode of Equipment Cooling?

A

Flight:
-both supply fans fail
- low airflow
- smoke detected
- FWD cargo fire switch armed
- equip cooling switch to OVRD

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50
Q

How is avionics equipment cooled during override mode?

A

Differential pressure

(Hence might have issues alt low altitudes and high temperatures)

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51
Q

What are indications of FWD equip cooling failure on ground?

A

EICAS:
Equip cooling
And
GND crew call horn in wheel well

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52
Q

What draws air through aft electronics equipment, galley and lavs?

A

Aft equip cooling and vent system
(2 aft vents)

So FWD is for FWD cargo and FWD avionics

AFT is for aft avionics, lav and galleys

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53
Q

How is excessive differential pressure protected?

A

Positive
And
Negative relief valves

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54
Q

For pressurisation, how is cabin air discharged?

A

FWD and Aft OUTFLOW valves

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55
Q

What data entry allows for fully automatic pressure control?

A

Flight plan data from FMC for take off and landing altitude and cruise alt

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56
Q

Is the aircraft pressurised for take off?

A

Yes. Slight positive pressute

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57
Q

What is assumed cruise altitude default by cabin pressure system?

A

39000’

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58
Q

What is the max cabin altitude?

A

8000’

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59
Q

Does the aircraft land with pressurisation ?

A

Slight positive pressure

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60
Q

Which altimeter provides landing alt Baro pressure correction? Capt or FO?

A

Captain

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61
Q

What two manual operation will provide pressurisation data on EUCAS?

A

Press AIR

Or

Outflow valve switches to manual

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62
Q

What is the diff between EICAS
PACK L
And
PACK MODE L

A

Pack L means pack has failed

Pack mode L
means it’s in STBY COOLING MODE

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63
Q

When does PACK OPERATING in standby cooling mode shut down?

A

If other pack operating:
The pack in standby cooling mode will shut down if:
Low ALT
Or
High outside TEMP

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64
Q

How is flight deck supplied with conditioned air?

A

100% fresh from L pack
(L Eng bleed and trim for warmth)

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65
Q

What provides L and R trim air?

A

Hot air from bleed goes to trim

CACTCS modulates
(Cabin Air Con Temp Control Sys)

L: flight deck and 3 cabin zones

R: other 3 cabin zones

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66
Q

What are the min and max master temp selections?

A

18-29 C

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67
Q

What is flight attendant range for cabin temp modification?

A

+/- 6 degree

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68
Q

Can flight deck temp be manually controlled?

A

Yes.
18-29C

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69
Q

Which zone control pack output temp?

A

Zone requiring coolest temp

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70
Q

What is default temp if temp selector not available to the CACTCS?

A

24 C

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71
Q

What will control the pack temp after loss of the auto zone control?

A

Air supply and cabin press controllers control the pack control valves

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72
Q

Are shoulder and foot warmers avail on ground?

A

No.
Flight only

No airflow. Electric heating elements only

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73
Q

How are aft and bulk cargo heated?

A

Independent bleed air heating system
(Insulated curtain separates the two)

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74
Q

What system draws air across the cargo temp sensors?

A

Lav and Galley vent fans

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75
Q

What is consequence to Aft and Bulk cargo heat if failure of both Lav and Galley vent fan occurs?

A

No cargo heat

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76
Q

Is auto ice detection available on the ground?

A

No.

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77
Q

Where is EAI indicated while operating?

A

EICAS by N1

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78
Q

List all
Inhibits for WAI

A

Inhibited on ground

If selected on, inhibited for 5 min after lift off if TAT above 10C

If auto, inhibited for 10 min after lift off

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79
Q

Where is WAI indicated?

A

Primary EICAS by EGT

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80
Q

Is WAI available after valve fails closed?

A

No.
Prevents asymmetric

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81
Q

Describe anti ice available for side windows?

A

Anti fog only, on inside.

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82
Q

When does back up anti fogging operate?

A

If primary window heat fails

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83
Q

How many wiper speeds?

A

Off
Int
Low
High

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84
Q

Are pitot and Tat probes constantly heated?

A

TAT is airborne only

3 pitot tubes: GND and AIR with either engine running

2: AOA

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85
Q

Describe how AFDS controls Elevators, ailerons and rudder?

A

Fly by wire

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86
Q

Which surface commands are only added during g auto land?

A

Rudder

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87
Q

How many auto pilot modes have arming phase?

A

LNAV
VNAV
LOC
GS

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88
Q

ILS capture above 1500’. What happens if hit APP again?

A

Disarms approach

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89
Q

How does override of rudder pedals effect autopilot system?

A

Below 1500’ with Land 2 or Land 3, it can disconnect AP. Otherwise nothing.

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90
Q

How does the autopilot react to engaged mode degradation?

A

Remains engaged in a ATT stabilised mode based on inertial data

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91
Q

How is FD affected by overspeed or stall?

A

Cause the pitch FD bar to disappear

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92
Q

During Autoland, will degrade to LAND 2 be announced in PFD?

A

Yes

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93
Q

What 2 occasions cause green box around FMA ?

A

Change of mode + 10 sec

And

after Amber line removed if fail occurred

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94
Q

Which Autothrottle mode controls to VS?

A

THR VNAV SPD
(Thrust VS and SPD on elevator)

SPD VNAV PTH
(Thrust on speed, elevator on VS)

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95
Q

When will LNAV auto activate if selected in flight?

A

If within 2.5 nm of lat ACT route

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96
Q

What heading will be maintained when HDG hold pressed?

A

Holds HDG reached when Wongs rolled level

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97
Q

What are the bank angle limits for ATT mode?

A

5-30 degrees

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98
Q

When are TOGA switches available for GA?

A

Flaps out of up or GS captured

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99
Q

During auto land, when does ROLLOUT engage?

A

Below 2’ RA

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100
Q

In TOGA pitch mode, what can max target speed be?

A

V2+15 to V2+25 max

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101
Q

Where does the AFDS get the V2 speed?

A

MCP

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102
Q

At what altitude will VNAV ACTIVATE?

A

400 AGL

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103
Q

Does flare mode activate at specific ALT?

A

40-60’ RA

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104
Q

Can auto throttle be activated without FD or AP

A

Yes
(As long as AT arm switch on)

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105
Q

Can Autothrottle engage automatically?

A

Yes. As long as ARMED.

Stall protection, slightly into MMS

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106
Q

Which mode will autopilot not position thrust levers?

A

Hold

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107
Q

What action causes normal Autothrottle disconnect on landing?

A

Rev thrust to REV IDLE

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108
Q

What are initial FD commands upon engagement?

A

Preflight:
8 degrees nose up

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109
Q

During takeoff when can TOGA switches be used for AT engagement?

A

0-50 knots

Then again after 400’

50kt to 400’, pushing TOGA cannot activate AT

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110
Q

What does selection of TOGA above 80 knots do?

A

Deselects LNAV and VNAV

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111
Q

What type of altitude is used for LNAV and VNAV enhancement?

A

Lnav: RA
Manual is 50’
Autopilot at 200’

VNAV:
Baro captured at 100knots by FMC on takeoff

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112
Q

Max speed commanded after take off if engine fails?

A

V2 to V2+15
(Or
Speed failure, which ever higher)

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113
Q

What is TOGA roll command after take off?

A

Wings level

50’ LNAV for FmC route

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114
Q

What does TOGA selection do immediately after lift off?

A

Disarm LNAV VNAV

Gives THR REF and removes derates

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115
Q

What is pitch command speed at acceleration height?

A

5 knot below take off flap placard speed

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116
Q

What is VNAV climb speed in clean config?

A

Greater of

Ref30+80
Or
250knots
(FMC VNAV climb page)

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117
Q

When is climb thrust selected?

A

Next flap setting from take off flaps.

Take off flaps 5: CLB AT SELECT F1

Take off flaps 15: CLB AT SELECT F5

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118
Q

What are the altitudes for Flare, idle and rollout on Autoland?

A

Flare: 40-60 ‘

Idle: 25’

Rollout: 2’

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119
Q

How is runway alignment achieved for crosswind approach requiring 10 degrees crab angle.

A

Sideslip introduced at 500’

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120
Q

What will FMA announce in single push go around?

A

THR TOGA TOGA

(Trying to achieve 2000 feet per min)

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121
Q

After GA what cause toga termination?

A

Selection of new roll and pitch mode
(LNAV prob auto engage)
400’ AGL can select new pitch mode.
Usually we wait for 1000’ for VNAV, can also select FLCH.

No EO, this will give you CLB thrust

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122
Q

What are three forms of AP envelope protection?

A

Over speed
Stall
Bank angle

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123
Q

How many PTT push to talk switches does each pilot have?

A

4
Wheel mic
Glare shield
Hand held
ACP

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124
Q

After depress, how are mask microphone deactivated and boom mic reactivated?

A

Close left door and press reset

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125
Q

What audio is recorded by CVR

A

Area mic
Boom mics
Transmit and receive on radar

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126
Q

What is association between radio tuning panels and radios?

A

Used to tune VHF and HF

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127
Q

Which VHF system can be used for DATA?

A

C (normal)
And
R

(Left is only voice)

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128
Q

Describe VHF stuck mic protection?

A

After 30 seconds in flight,
EICAS RADIO TRANSMIT

GND
after 35 seconds, auto shuts off

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129
Q

What do dashes in radio tuning panel frequency window indicate?

A

Selected radio has failed or disconnected

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130
Q

Where can HF sensitivity be set?

A

Knob on Radio Tuning Panel
HF SENS for on side receiver

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131
Q

What action will cause HF antenna tuning?

A

Key the mic and hear 7 second tone

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132
Q

Can both HF systems simultaneously revive from common antenna ?

A

Yes. As long as one side not transmitting

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133
Q

How many radio systems are monitored by SELCAL?

A

VHF L/C/R
HF L and R
Satcom

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134
Q

What systems can provide data comm

A

VHF C and R
HF L and R
Satcom

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135
Q

What does SATCOM CALL mean?

A

Someone trying to call you?
Press the SAT mic button

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136
Q

What action will end a satcom call?

A

Habit of always pressing END call on CDU.
Though other party hanging up should do it.

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137
Q

Which system is used to comm with ground engineer?

A

Flight interphone

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138
Q

What is purpose of Serv Interphone switch on over head?

A

Normally off.

On connects different points around the plane onto the flight Interphone system.

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139
Q

What PA will have higher priority, FD or Cabin direct access?

A

1) FD ACP
2) CABIN HAND DIRECT
3) priority all
4) normal from FA or FD handset
(Normally this what we use)

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140
Q

How is priority call from cabin shown in flight deck?

A

“CABIN CALL”
Or
“CABIN ALERT”

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141
Q

How can a purser call be initiated from ACP?

A

Double tap CAB

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142
Q

What is the flight deck handset PTT switch used for?

A

PA only.

If call doors or other station, do not need to push to Talk

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143
Q

What is indicated on EICAS for long winded ATC message

A

Large ATC message

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144
Q

How to respond to ATC uplink request?

A

Accept/ cancel

Open ATC or new messages in COMM

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145
Q

How many operating modes for the Primary flight control system?

A

Normal
Secondary
Direct

(Never Say Die)
3 PFC
4 ACE

Control - ACE - PFC - ACE - PSA’s
(Fly by wire)

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146
Q

How are the primary flight controls powered?

A

Redundant hydraulic systems

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147
Q

What is back up system for flaps and slats?

A

Slow Electrics

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148
Q

Which controls have Jam override system?

A

Column and wheels

Pull as hard as you like

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149
Q

Which flight controls are rigidly connected?

A

Rudders

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150
Q

How many ACE’s and PFC’s are there in the flight control systems?

A

4 ACE
3 PFC

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151
Q

Where are pilot controls directly sent?

A

To 4 ACE, then PFC, then flight controls
9.20.1

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152
Q

Why do PFC’s receive other aircraft system data?

A

For enhanced handling qualities

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153
Q

How do auto pilot commands cause control movement?

A

AP to PFC to controls

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154
Q

How do Flaperons droop?

A

Proportionally to flaps

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155
Q

What flap settings have aileron droop?

A

Take off flap settings
5, 15, 20

156
Q

Which control surfaces are locked out in cruise?

A

Spoilers 5 and 10
And
Ailerons

(Flaperons and remaining spoilers provide enough roll, and engine can cause buffet on 5-10)

157
Q

What device provides additional use authority?

A

Rudder hinged trim tab

158
Q

Can pilot override AP?

A

Yes

159
Q

Which flight control modes allow for Autopilot?

A

Normal only

Secondary and direct NO

160
Q

What happens to PFC’s when hydraulics are shut down?

A

PFC’s perform self test.
(HYD PRESS SYS L + C + R
will show for approx 2 min = normal)

161
Q

What does flight envelope protection provide?

A

Stall
Over speed
Bank angle

(Tactile, visual, aural warnings)

162
Q

In secondary mode, which protections are not available?
Flight control mode

A

AP
Auto speed brake
Envelope protection
Gust suppression
TAC
Yaw damping
Tail strike protection

163
Q

Which surfaces have cable driven back up?

A

Stabiliser

Spoilers 4 and 11

164
Q

On ground, what are the pitch trim switches on control wheel for?

A

Setting stabiliser position

165
Q

Which flight control surface do the pitch trim switches on control wheel move in flight?

A

Elevator

166
Q

What happens when ALTN PITCH TRIM LEVERS are operated in flight?

A

Directly moves stabiliser
(Doesn’t disconnect autopilot)

167
Q

When will trim in nose up direction be inhibited?

A

Below MMS
9.20.10

168
Q

How is stall protection supported by AT??

A

It will wake up if armed and not currently in use.
(ARMED AND NOT ACTIVE)

169
Q

When will over speed protection occur?

A

Nose down inhibit at MMO VMO

170
Q

EICAS
FLIGHT CONTROL MODE
means what?

A

Flight controls in Secondary mode
(No AP)

171
Q

EICAS
PRI FLIGHT COMPUTERS
means what?

A

Flight controls in DIRECT mode.
No AP.
Can only be achieved by switching PFC’s off.

172
Q

What are the inputs for the Stab Greenband?

A

Thrust
CG
GW (pressure switch sensor)
V1

173
Q

When do control column forces increase?

A

9.20.12
Based on airspeed.
More speed = more force

174
Q

Describe PFC action if tail strike imminent on take off or landing?

A

Downwards elevator deflection
(No indication in flight deck)
Tries to save the tail

175
Q

How are control column commands changed in secondary and direct mode?

A

Skip PFC.
Less handling quality.
Direct proportion of control deflection.

176
Q

How many levels of elevator feel exist in secondary and direct mode?

A

2
Flap up
Flap out

177
Q

Which hydraulic system power the stabiliser?

A

C and R

178
Q

How many STCM (Stab Trim Control Modulator) will be automatically shut off during an uncommanded stab motion?

A

STABILIZER L
STABILIZER R
STABILIZER = both

179
Q

How many STCM (Stab Trim Control Modulator) will be automatically shut off during an uncommanded stab motion?

A

STABILIZER L
STABILIZER R
STABILIZER = both

180
Q

How many STCM (Stab Trim Control Modulator) will be automatically shut off during an uncommanded stab motion?

A

STABILIZER L
STABILIZER R
STABILIZER = both

181
Q

When does passenger O2 auto drop ?

A

In auto
When cabin altitude above 13,500’

182
Q

What electrical equipment is protected by ELMS?
Electrical Load Management System?

A

Critical and essential equipment

183
Q

What loads does ELMS shed first?

A

Galley and utility electrical

184
Q

How do you know if ELMS is load shedding!

A

Electrical synoptic

185
Q

Loadshedding usually occurs during push back, what might you see?

A

Primary C2 pump and some fuel pumps flashing away.
Normal

186
Q

What are the main electrical sources?

A

2 IDG’s
1 APU Gen
2 External power

187
Q

What will cause EICAS message ELEC GEN DRIVE?

A

Low oil pressure in the engine driven generator (manual disc)

If high temp, will auto disconnect.

188
Q

Will IDG auto disconnect for low oil pressure?

A

No

189
Q

List conditions for an APU Autostart.

A

In flight: Two AC transfer bus become unpowered

190
Q

List conditions for AVAIL light to illuminate.

A

Voltage and frequency within limits

191
Q

Which generator has lowest priority for main busses in flight ?
6.20.5

A

Offside IDG

Priority order is:
Onside IdG
APU GEN
OFFSIDE IDG

192
Q

How is ground service bus normal supplied with power?

A

R main AC bus
(Powered in flight as well)

193
Q

How is ground service bus powered without supplying the main bases?

A

APU GEN
AND
PRIMARY EXT POWer

194
Q

What equipment is powered by Ground Service bus?

A

Main battery charger
APU battery charger
Miscellaneous cabin loads

195
Q

How can ground handling bus be powered?

A

Primary external power

APU Gen

(Ground only)

196
Q

What equipment is powered by ground handling bus?

A

Cargo lights and doors and refuel etc.
auto connects

197
Q

Which busses can be supplied by the BUGS ?
6.20.7

A

Flight control DC electrical system.
1 bug has 2 PMG’s

198
Q

What unit converts the back up generator frequency?

A

Frequency converter

199
Q

Can both back up generators supply the busses simultaneously?

A

No.
Only one frequency converter, so can only do one at a time.

200
Q

What is purpose of 2 PMG in each BUG?

A

Supply power to the flight controls by way of FC DC elec system.

201
Q

How are TRu supplied?

A

L and R XFER bus
6.20.10

202
Q

How is hot batt bus voltage normally supplied?

A

Main battery charger

203
Q

When would APU battery be used to start the APU?

A

When not enough bleed air supply, direct power to electric starter given.

Priority is

204
Q

What is secondary power source for C FCDC PSA?

A

Capt flight instrument bus

Back up for L and R PSA is L/R DC bus

205
Q

Which FCDC PSA can be powered by the hot battery bus?

A

L and C
6.20.13

206
Q

How long can dedicatedPSA Battery provide power for?

A

Enough time for power transfer
(Approx 1 min)

207
Q

Does standby electrical system provide AC or DC?

A

Both

208
Q

After primary power failure, what does the standby electrical system supply?

A

Stand by inverter
C1 and C2 TRU
Rat
Main batt

209
Q

What are two sources of power for AC standby bus ?

A

Standby Inverter

Main batt

210
Q

Which TRU’s can the RAT Gen supply??

A

C1 INITIALLY (capt instruments)
and
C2 TRU (FO instruments eventually)

211
Q

Lost RAT generator limitations?

A

No limitations

212
Q

During deployment of RAT, how are the standby loads powered?

A

Main battery

213
Q

What causes auto deploy of RAT?

A

2 transfer bus unpowered in flight

All three HYD low

2 engines down with no C HYD

214
Q

If you see FLT CTL SYS in preflight?

A

Get engineer, that’s a no go item.

215
Q

How can you still get B thrust if not selected in FMC ?

A

If within ALT and Temp, slamming thrust levers forward, the EEC will auto allow Bump thrust

216
Q

List Primary engine parameters

A

N1
EGT

300:
EPR
N1
EGT

217
Q

List secondary engine parameters

A

N2
Oil temp, pressure and QTY
Fuel flow
Vibrations
(no limit, but shows above 4)

218
Q

What pilot actions would cause auto showing of secondary engine parameters?

A

-Press ENG
-Fuel control switch moved to cut off
-Eng fire switch pulled in flight

219
Q

What is AMBER band on EGT indicator?

A

Max continuous thrust
7.20.4

220
Q

When are EGT Amber inductions inhibited?

A

Takeoff and GA for 5 min
(10 min if EO)

221
Q

How is Max takeoff EGT indicated?

A

Red line

222
Q

How can red exceed an d box be removed on EICAS?

A

Cancel/RCL button

223
Q

Which two parameters change to black text when abnormal?

A

Colours invert for

Low Oil QTY (LO adjacent)
And
Vibration

224
Q

What is red line and amber line in N1?

A

Red: Max operating limit

Amber: max rated thrust (115,000 lb)

225
Q

Parameters for setting thrust in normal and ALT?

A

ER:
Normal is N1
ALT is N1

300:
EPR normal

N1 ALT

226
Q

How can max rated thrust be achieved?

A

Thrust levers full forward in normal mode

227
Q

How is SOFT ALTERNATE achieved?

A

EEC selects automatically

HARD ALTERNATE NEEDS TO BE MANUALLY SELECTED ON EEC MODE SWITCH

228
Q

In which modes is AT available for EEC?

A

All
Normal
Soft alt
Hard alt

229
Q

When is max rated thrust achieved in EEC alternate mode?

A

Well before thrust levers are full forward
7.20.8

230
Q

What protections are available in AlTERNATE MODE?

A

AT
Over speed (eec reduces fuel flow)
N1 and N2 rest line

231
Q

Why is approach idle selected with F25?

A

Faster spool up for Go Around

232
Q

What does the start selector control?

A

The starter air valve

233
Q

During Autostart, what does the Fuel control switch control?

A

Ignition and Fuel flow

234
Q

On start up, what condition allows EGT red line to disappear ?

A

Engines stabilised at idle

235
Q

Which fuel valve is opened by the EEC after moving the fuel control switch to run?

A

Spar valve

236
Q

For which events will Autostart not attempt a restart?

A

Hot
Insufficient air pressure
No N1 rotation
Starter shaft fail
Starter duty cycle expire
7.20.11

237
Q

During manual start, when are fuel and ignition introduced?

A

As soon as you put fuel control switch to run

238
Q

How many Autostart attempts will eec perform on ground and in flight?

A

3 on ground
(Single IGN, dual, dual)

Unlimited in flight
(Always dual ignition )

239
Q

How is flameout detected for auto relight activation?

A

Sudden drop in N2
Or
N2 below idle

240
Q

What are the operating limitations for engine oil quantity?

A

No limitations
(Barely needs any oil)

241
Q

Are reverser pneumatic or hydraulic?

A

Hydraulic (on side system)

242
Q

What is the purpose of reverse interlock?

A

Avoids reverse thrust airborn

1) mechanical lock doesn’t allow reverse idle until FWD thrust at idle

2) electrical lock doesn’t allow max REV until REV idle achieved

243
Q

How is the average vibration indicated?

A

BB (broadband)

244
Q

What condition will most likely be combined with High N1 vibration?

A

Tactile vibration.
(You’ll feel it)

245
Q

Is there a limit for Vibration?

A

No.
It’ll show above 4

246
Q

What PFD indication for ENG fail on take off?

A

Red ENG FAIL

247
Q

What does EICAS
ENG THRUST L/R indicate?

A

Thrust significantly less than commanded

248
Q

APU limitations for bleed and electric

A

Bleed, max F220

Elect no limit

249
Q

Which APU starter has priority?

A

Bleed

Then

Electric from APU battery

250
Q

What is powered by the main battery for APU?

A

Inlet door, Fuel Valve , Fire detect

251
Q

Can ground cart be used to start APu?

A

Yes

252
Q

Which AC fuel pump runs auto for APU?

A

FWD Left

(Back up DC pump if unpowered and APU on?

253
Q

How to shutdown APU after auto start?

A

Turn on then off

254
Q

What memo message display when normal APU shutdown?

A

APU cooldown
(If move to on while this shows, you get a quick start)

255
Q

What are the APu operating modes?

A

Attended: engines on or in flight
AND

Unattended:
Engines off on ground
OR

256
Q

What causes an auto shutdown in attended mode for APU?

A

APU fire or overheat
Over speed
APU controller failure
Speed droop

257
Q

Does APU COOLDOWN show during auto shut down?

A

No.
Straight to
APU SHUTDOWN

258
Q

What does APU LIMIT message mean during attended mode?

A

High EGT
HIGH OIL TEMP
LOW OIL PRESS

259
Q

What two fire protections are provided for the engines?

A

1) Detection (fire and overheat)

2) Extinguishing
(Dual loop with 2 bottles)
AND system. 1 loop and second loop need to detect.

260
Q

What is indication after fuel fire loop fault in engine?

A

Det Fire Eng L/R

261
Q

What are indications of engine overheat?

A

overheat Eng L/R
(CAUTION)

262
Q

What is the number of engine fire bottles on 777?

A

2

263
Q

What protection is provided for APU?

A

1) Detect (fire only)

2) Extinguish

(Pull and rotate in either direction)
Only 1 bottle

264
Q

In which APU mode will fire detection operate in AND logic?

A

Attended mode:
Any Engines running or in flight
(AND)

Unattended:
Ground with engines off
(OR) any fault means auto shutdown

265
Q

Will APU fire extinguisher operate automatically with engines running?

A

No.
And logic.
Attended mode

266
Q

Which wheel wells have fire detectors?

A

Main only.
No extinguishing

267
Q

Cargo fire suppression, how many bottles?

A

ER: 6
2 fire immediate in air and 4 after 20 min delay, metered fashion.
Or
1 metered only if land before delay

1 immediate on ground, then another after delay

300: 5
2 immediate
3 delay

268
Q

Approximate cargo fire suppression time?

A

ER
4 hour
(4 metered bottles)

300:
3 hour
(3 metered bottles)

269
Q

How is fire protection provided in upper crew rest?

A

Pulsing horn
And
EICAS

270
Q

What indication of lav smoke?

A

Sound and light

(Double tap CAB. Lav smoke. Walk cabin. Get back to me )

271
Q

How are overheat and fire detection system automatic and manual fault tests performed?

A

Continuously and automatic

272
Q

How many flight control modes are there?

A

Normal
Secondary
Direct
(Never say die)

273
Q

How many ACE and how many PFC?!

A

4 ace
3 PFC

274
Q

How are primary flight controls powered?

A

Redundant Hydraulics

275
Q

What is back up system for flaps and slats?

A

Electrics

276
Q

Which controls have Jam override?

A

Column and wheel

277
Q

Which controls are rigidly connected?

A

Rudders

278
Q

Where are pilot controls sent?

A

4 ACE to PFC to ACE to control
(Fly by wire)

279
Q

Why do PFC receive other aircraft data?

A

Enhanced handling qualities

280
Q

How do Flaperons droop?

A

Proportional to flaps

281
Q

What are the flap settings for aileron droop?

A

Take off flaps
5, 15, 20

282
Q

Where are the control commands of the PFCs sent?

A

To the ACEs

283
Q

Where are the control commands of the PFCs sent?

A

To the ACEs

284
Q

Which surfaces are normally locked out in cruise?

A

In normal mode, the ailerons and spoilers five and 10 are locked out during high-speed flight

285
Q

What devices provide additional yaw authority?

A

The hinged section, tab

286
Q

Which flight control modes allow for auto pilot operation

A

Normal mode only

287
Q

What happens when the hydraulic systems are shut down?

A

The PFCs self test

288
Q

What does the flight envelope protection system provide?

A

It provides Crew awareness of envelope, margins through tactile, aural and visual cues

289
Q

In secondary mode, which protections are not available?

A

Envelope protection
Tail strike protection
Auto pilot, auto speed, brakes, gust, suppression, TAC, your damping

290
Q

Which services have cable driven back up?

A

Stabiliser, selected spoilers

291
Q

On the ground, what are the pitch trim switches on the control wheel for?

A

To move the stabiliser directly

292
Q

Which surfaces do the primary trim switches move in flight?

A

In flight, the pitch trim switches do not position the stabiliser directly, but make inputs to the PFCs to change the trim reference beat. The PFC automatically move the elevators to achieve the trim change, then move the stabiliser to streamline the elevator.

293
Q

What occurs when the alternate pitch trim levers is operated with the auto pilot engaged?

A

The auto pilot does not disengage, but it moves the stabiliser

294
Q

When will trim in the nose up direction be inhibited

A

When the Airplane slows to speed where manoeuvre margin is Limited

295
Q

What will occur when flying near the stall speed?

A

Pilot must continuously apply aft column pressure

296
Q

How is stall protection supported by the autothrottle system?

A

Auto throttle can support stall protection, if armed and not activated if speed decreases to stick Shaker activation or automatically activate the appropriate mode and advanced thrust to maintain minimum manoeuvering speed or speed set in the mode control panel, speed window, whichever is greater

297
Q

When will overspeed protection occur?

A

At VMO/MMO

298
Q

When do column control forces increase?

A

-As Airspeed increases
- As column displacement increases

299
Q

Describe PFC action if tail strike is imminent during takeoff or landing

A

Decreases elevator deflection

300
Q

How are control commands changed in secondary and direct mode?

A

They command a proportional elevator deflection instead of a manoeuvre command

301
Q

How many levels of elevator feel existing secondary and direct mode?

A

Two, depends on flat position

302
Q

What system powers the stabiliser

A

Centre, and right hydraulic

303
Q

How many STCM’s will be automatically shut off during an un commanded stabiliser motion

A

The one that caused the uncommanded stabilisers motion

304
Q

Which FMC entries are used to calculate the stabiliser green band

A

CG, gross weight, TO thrust and V1

305
Q

What will cause the EICAS stab green band advisory message?

A

If the precious switch in green band disagree

306
Q

Which spoiler surfaces are mechanically controlled

A

4 and 11

307
Q

Is manual aileron trim available with the auto part engaged

A

No

308
Q

What is the bank angle protection boundary?

A

Approximately 35°

309
Q

Are the rudder pedal forces affected by airspeed?

A

No

310
Q

Which component produces rudder authority at high speeds

A

The Rudder ratio changer

311
Q

When will the TAC automatically add rudder to minimise yaw

A

If the thrust level on one engine differs by 10% or more

312
Q

Does TAC move the rudder pedals?

A

Yes

313
Q

When can control inputs cause auto deflection?

A

Wheel to Rudder cross tie is operative in flight below 210 KTS in normal mode

314
Q

In normal mode, what is provided by the yaw damping function?

A

Turn coordination and Dutch roll dumping

315
Q

Does Gus suppression move the rudder pedals?

A

No, it does not result in either Rudder pedal or control wheel movement

316
Q

Which yaw functions are inoperative in the secondary and direct flight mode

A
  • gust suppression
  • Yaw Damping
  • tac
  • Manuel Rutter trim cancel switch (in direct mode)
317
Q

Normally how many spoilers operate on the ground as speed brakes

A

14 (all of them)

318
Q

What are the conditions for speed break extension if armed?

A

Landing gear, fully on the ground and thrust levers at idle

319
Q

For RTO, what action will Cause speed brake extension?

A

Pulling reverser to idle

320
Q

What is the purpose of the Kruger flap?

A

The two positions Krueger flop provides a seal between the inboard slat and engine nacelle on each wing

321
Q

What surfaces move with flap one selected?

A

Slats move to mid range position

322
Q

What are the landing flap positions?

A

25 and 30

323
Q

What are the takeoff flap positions?

A

Five, 15 and 20

324
Q

When is flap extension inhibited

A

Above 20,000 feet and speed more than 265 kts

325
Q

Which flap lever position did the slats fully extend hydraulically?

A

Flaps 25

326
Q

What will automatically occur if the slats or flaps fail to move hydraulically

A

Secondary mode automatically engaged

327
Q

Why are the slats fully extended in secondary mode?

A

To improve stall handling characteristics

328
Q

How do the slats and flaps sequence in alternate mode?

A

Simultaneously, but slat retraction is inhibited until flaps are up

329
Q

When is the flap load relief system available?

A

In primary mode

330
Q

When is slat load relief activated?

A

In secondary mode, only if it is speed exceeds 246 kts with slats fully extended, they retract to mid range

331
Q

When is autoslat operation armed

A

At flaps 1,5,15&20 and only in primary mode

332
Q

Describe the flap indication after non-normal condition

A

Extend flap indication is displayed, automatically with the position of the left and right flaps and slats are separately indicated

333
Q

Normally which CDUs can be used for alternate EFIS operation

A

The related CDUS

334
Q

Does alternate EFIS operation using CDU require a failure of the EFIS control panel?

A

No,

335
Q

Cann, the EFIS panel and the CDU be used simultaneously

A

No, since the CDU inhibit input from your respective control panel

336
Q

Which synoptic displays can be compacted

A

ENG, AIR, FUEL

337
Q

Will EICAS ever display on the lower centre?

A

Yes, if upper display fails

338
Q

What is the function of the DSPL CTRL switches?

A

Provide the capability to manually, select PFD and ND sources when auto switching fails after source failures

339
Q

When will the captains cursor appear on the lower display?

A

If neither Curser was in use, CAPT was the last one he used it
Default power up

340
Q

What is the difference between open and close loop item?

A

Open loop:
Requires flight, Crew confirmation
Does not monitor, control position or system state
Closed loop :
Checks off automatically based on monitored flight deck, Control, EICAS Message or Airplane system state

341
Q

When do checklists associated with ECS warnings have priority?

A

Always

342
Q

How many GPS systems are installed on the 777

A

Two. Left and right

343
Q

Which CDU page displays the latitude longitude for both GPS systems?

A

POSREF3/3

344
Q

What action is required to display GPS position on the Capt ND

A

Select the POS switch

345
Q

Is the ADIRU required for GPS navigation?

A

No

346
Q

List four parameter supplied by the ADIRS

A

Altitude speed, attitude, heading and position data

347
Q

What bus power is required in order to turn the ADIRU on?

A

Battery bus power?

348
Q

When can the ADIRU switch be used to turn it off?

A

On the ground only

349
Q

How is ADIRU hot Battery bus operation indicated on the ground

A

The Horne in the landing gear, sounds to alert, ground crew. On bus, light illuminate.

350
Q

What is the effect on ADIRU if the aircraft stops for an extended period

A

Changes to the automatic realign mode and refine the alignment until the Airplane moves again

351
Q

What level is the ADIRU align mode Message?

A

Memo message

352
Q

What parameters can the SAARU supply?

A

Attitude heading and Air data

353
Q

When can the Crew set the SAARU heading?

A

After three minutes

354
Q

On which CDU page is the SAARU heading set

A

CDU POS INIT page, SET HDG prompt

355
Q

What is the pilots normal source for Air data?

A

Left centre and right pitot static systems

356
Q

What will provide pilots Air data after failure of the ADIRU

A

SAARU

357
Q

After an ADIRU and SAARU failure, what will provide captains air data?

A

Left pitot static system

358
Q

Which data channel supplies the ISFD?

A

Centre Pitot static port through standby Air data modules

359
Q

During the manual approach, when does ILS tuning inhibit occur?

A

Either LOC or GS captured and aircraft below 500ft

360
Q

With no inhibit, will the ILS automatically REtune with selection of a new approach

A

Yes

361
Q

Which CDU page displays the VOR/DME stations being used for updates?

A

POS REF 2/3

362
Q

Where are the fuel temperature and minimum fuel temperature displayed?

A

Fuel temp: PRIMARY EICAS AND FUEL SYNOPTIC
MIN FUEL TEMP: fuel synoptic

363
Q

Where does the minimum fuel temperature value originate from?

A

Feel freezing point +3° or manually, entered in CDU

364
Q

Which pumps output the highest pressure

A

The two centre tank pumps

365
Q

On the ground when will both centre tank pumps run

A

When two electrical power sources are available

366
Q

What is inhibited when the centre tank pump switched off?

A

The switch pressure light and pump EICAS msg

367
Q

Which tank can the DC pump feed from?

A

The left tank (to the APU)

368
Q

Describe the DC pump, automatic operation

A

Provides fuel to the APU when AC power is not available and APU selector is on

369
Q

When does the centre tank fuel scavenge system operate

A

When Centre tanks pumps are not operating

370
Q

What is the indication for crossfeed valve disagreement?

A

Switch valve indicates
EICAS FUEL CROSS FEED FWD or AFT Displays

371
Q

When is fuel IMBALANCE display?

A

When quantity in left and the right tank varies significantly

372
Q

What is the total fuel capacity of all three tanks?

A

ER 145,500 KG
300: 137,500 kg

373
Q

Which fuel manifold supplies the APU

A

The left fuel manifold

374
Q

How can the jettison future remain value? Be modified from default MLW quantity

A

Pull the switch

375
Q

If off, will the centre pumps run for jettison?

A

No

376
Q

What is the minimum fuel quantity remaining in each tank after jettison is complete

A

5200kg/3800kg

377
Q

How many hydraulic systems are required for adequate aircraft controllability?

A

One

378
Q

Are the hydraulic reservoir pressurised?

A

Yes, by the bleed system

379
Q

List the primary pumps for the left right and central systems

A

L&R engine driven pumps
C electric driven pumps

380
Q

List Hydraulic demand pumps for the left right and central system

A

L&R Electric
C Air driven

381
Q

In auto, when will the left and right demand pump run?

A

For takeoff and landing, and when system primary pressure is low
On the ground, right demand pump operates continuously in auto position

382
Q

In addition to flight controls, what’s systems are supplied by the central system

A

Leading edge slats
Trailing edge, flaps
Learning gear actuation
Alternate brakes
Nose gear steering
Main gear steering

383
Q

What is the purpose of the RAT pump?

A

To provide hydraulic power to the systems connected to the centre hydraulic system

384
Q

Will both C1 and C2 demand pumps run if both selected on?

A

No

385
Q

What systems are isolated if C system quantity is low flight

A

Alternate brakes
Nose, gear, actuation and steering
Leading edge slats

386
Q

Will the RAT automatically deploy if in flight if the C system pressure is low

A

No, only with both engines failed

387
Q

What must be powered for the RAT deployment?

A

The hot battery or APU battery

B777 (9 decks)

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