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Adams Command Cards > FCOM Systems > Flashcards

FCOM Systems Flashcards

1
Q

When do the safety valves operate (psi)

A

More than 8.6

Less than -1

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2
Q

Where do we have smoke detection? 3

A

The lavatory
Cargo compartments
Avionics bay

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3
Q

What does pressing the fire PB actually do? 8

A 
Silences the aural fire warning
Arms the squibs 
Closes the LP fuel valve
Closes the engine bleed air valve 
Closes the pack flow control valve
Closes the hydraulic fire shut off valve
Disconnects the FADEC power supply
Deactivates the IDG
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4
Q

During an RTO, past what speed would you get ground spoiler deployment?

A

72kts

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5
Q

When do the ground spoilers deploy on landing?

Armed / not armed

A

Armed:
Both main landing gears on ground and both thrust levers at idle or below (or reverse on one engine).

Not armed:
Both main landing gears on ground and REVERSE selected on atleast one engine.

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6
Q

When do we get partial ground spoiler deployment?

Spoilers armed/ not armed

A

Armed:
One main gear on ground both thrust levers at idle.

Not armed:
one main gear, reverse on one thrust lever.

Armed (bounce)
Both main gears on ground with both thrust levers in climb or below.

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7
Q

What is aileron droop?

A

The ailerons (droop) extend down 10 degrees with flaps extended to use the ailerons as wing flaps and provide more lift at low speed.

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8
Q

When do the LGCIU’s switch over?

A

After one complete gear cycle

Or In the event that one fails.

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9
Q

The landing gear panel on the middle console is connected to which LGCIU?

A

LGCIU 1

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10
Q

How many degrees of nose wheel steering do we get from:

Rudder pedals
Hand wheels

And at what speed to we have none?

A

Rudder pedals
+- 6 progressively less to 130kts

Hand wheel
+-75 progressively less to 80kts

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11
Q

On the ECAM
We see NW STRG DISC in green meaning the selector is in the towing position.
When does this memo turn amber?

A

If one engine is running

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12
Q

Below what speed does anti skid deactivate ?

A

20kts

Careful tasting

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13
Q

How does anti ski work?

A

The speed of each main wheel is measured using a tachometer and is compared to the aircraft reference (ADIRU) speed.
If the speed of the wheel goes below 0.87 x ref speed then it is skidding and anti skid kicks in.

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14
Q

Above what speed to ground spoilers extend?

A

72kts

Therefore during an RTO autobrake wont kick in unless above this speed!

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15
Q

When does auto brake kick in?

A

Ground spoiler extension

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16
Q

What is required to arm the autobrake ?

A

Green hydraulic
Anti skid electrically powered
1 ADR

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17
Q

When is auto brake activated?

A

When ground spoilers deploy

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18
Q

Why is brake pressure on alternate without anti skid limited to 1000psi?

A

To stop wheel locking and tyre burst

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19
Q

What are the different types of autobrake?

What are they’re rates of application?

A

Max - straight after ground spoiler deployment (>72kts)

Med- 2s after ground spoilers, 3m/s^2

Lo- 4s after ground spoilers,1.7m/s^2

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20
Q

What percentage of required braking is needed for the decel light?

A

80%

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21
Q

When does the PTU run automatically?

A

When the differential pressure between the green and yellow system is greater than 500psi

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22
Q

Why are hydraulic reservoirs pressurised?

A

To prevent cavitation

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23
Q

How many litres of hydraulic fluid are there in each system?

When does the low level warning go off?

A

Green 14.5l
Yellow 12.5l
Blue 6.5l

Below 3.5l low level warning

Box at top of the scale is worth about 2.5l

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24
Q

Below what hydraulic pressure does the icon turn Amber and produce an ECAM?

A

1450psi

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25
Q

Above what level do we get an advisory for N1 and N2 engine vibration?

A

N1>6 units

N2>4.3 units

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26
Q

A319/320 Fuel capacity:
Centre tank
Inner tank
Outer tank

Total capacity in KG

A

6.5T
5.5T
690kg

Total 19T (slightly under on some)

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27
Q

A321 Neo Fuel capacity?

A

19T

Only has wing tanks, no inner/outer

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28
Q

When do the engines feed of centre tank fuel?

A

After slat retraction and 500kg burnt out of each inner tank.

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29
Q

Why does 500kg need to be burnt from the wing tank before centre tank feeding can take place?

A

Because cold fuel is circulated from the centre tank to the IDG for cooling and then deposited back in the wing tanks (outer first).
Without burning 500kg first from the wing tank it would overflow into the vent surge tank.

This is because the wing tanks are always fuelled to capacity first before any fuel goes into the centre tank.

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30
Q

Can we refuel on batteries only?

A

Yes

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31
Q

What is a fuel tank inerting system?

Where do we have it?

A

Air is bled from the engines and goes through an inert gas generation system IGGS where it’s oxygen levels are reduced.

The oxygen depleted air then replaces the ambient air in the centre tanks only, to reduce the flammability of the fuel in there.

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32
Q

What do two amber dashes across the last two digits of a fuel figure mean?

A

That the FQI is inaccurate

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33
Q

If a fuel figure is boxed Amber what does it mean?

What happens to the total fuel indication?

A

That the associated valve has failed to open and the fuel is now unusable.

The total fuel will then be half boxed amber. Meaning the total fuel is not all useable.

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34
Q

What’s the difference between dropping the rat on the emer elec pwr panel and hydraulic panel?

A

Emer elec pwr
The blue hydraulic system drives the emergency generator supplying electrical power.

Happens automatically when AC bus 1&2 is not supplied and a/c speed >100kts

Happens manually when pressed.

Had panel - Rat Man On button
Drops the rat and supplies the blue hydraulic system. Emergency gen won’t run!

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35
Q

What psi does the blue system run at when powered by the rat?

A

2500psi

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36
Q

Above what differential pressure on the green and yellow hydraulic system does the PTU operate?

When else does the PTU run? (Tested)

A

500psi difference

Inhibited during first engine start, tested during second engine start.

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37
Q

What does a hydraulic priority valve do?

A

Cuts of hydraulic power to heavy load users if system pressure gets low.

Such as gear, slats, flaps.
Ex. Gravity gear to be used instead even with a blue and yellow failure.

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38
Q

Why are the hydraulic reservoirs pressurised?

When does the pressurisation come from?

A

To prevent cavitation

HP bleed air from eng 1

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39
Q

When does the hydraulic pressure symbol on the ECAM turn amber?

A

Below 1450 psi

40
Q

Where on the aircraft does hot air anti ice operate?

Where does it come from?

A

3 outboard leading edge slats
Engine air intakes

Bled from the HP stage

41
Q

Where on the aircraft do we have electrical heating?
3

Which of them is not heated on the ground?

A

Flight deck windows
All probes and ports
Waste water drain mast

TAT probes are not heated on the ground and pitot operates at low level.

42
Q

When does window heat operate?

2

A

Automatically after first engine start.

Manually by switching the button on.

43
Q

In what way is the A321 Neo fuel system different?

A

It doesn’t have centre tank pumps. Just a transfer valve.

When the transfer valve is open, fuel from the wing tank pumps flows through the jet pump and creates a suction in it.
The suction moves the fuel from the centre tank to the related wing tank.

The transfer valves are automatic and open if the wing tank is not full and stop 5 min after centre tank low level reached.

44
Q

What does the accessory gearbox in the engine drive?

6

A 
Operates:
Oil pump
Fuel pump 
Hydraulic engine pumps (green and yellow)
Engine generators
The fadec alternator 
Pneumatic starter
45
Q

What does FADEC stand for?

How many channels ?

A

Full Authority Digital Engine Control

2 channels

46
Q

What does FADEC do?

7

A

Performs complete engine management.

Controls:
Fuel flow
Protection against limits 
Power management (ATHR demand)
Automatic engine start
Thrust reverser control 
Fuel recirculation 
Transmission of engine parameters to the flight deck screens.
47
Q

What is approach idle?

What config do we get it in?

A

Config 3 or full

A slightly higher idle that allows the engine to accelerate rapidly from idle to go-around thrust.

48
Q

What vertical speed does go around soft try to achieve ?

A

2000 ft/min

49
Q

How does reverse work on the Neo?

What about CEO

A

The translating sleeve moves backwards and allows a blocker door to deploy and reverse the airflow.

CEO just has 4 pivoting blocker doors.

50
Q

Explain the start sequence on the CEO?

A

Master switch on
N2 increases
At 16% N2 we get ignition (A or B)
At 22% Fuel flow increases
15 seconds later EGT and N1 should increase
At 50% N2 start valve closes, Igniter off.

51
Q

How does an engine operate?

A

Air is compressed, them heated by burning fuel. After which it passes through the turbines which drive the compressors and the fan producing thrust.
High bypass rationengine, 80% of air goes through the fan/bypass.

52
Q

Which part of the engine do we get our N1 and N2 figures from?

A

N1 - The fan

N2 - HP compressor

53
Q

How do we do a power push?

A

Powerpush is attached on the left main gear.
Start engine 2 first, gives us nosewheel steering and parking brake.
Use nose wheel tiller for the push with comms from ground crew.
Only start engine 1 when tug is out the way.

54
Q

How does an apu start on batteries?

A

The power of the battery or an electric ground power unit is used to spin up the APU by its electric starter motor, and then introduce fuel into it once its spinning fast enough, just like a jet engine is started.

Depending on the design, the electric motor will then either act as a generator to supply electrical power back to the aircraft or decouple when a separate generator is used.

55
Q

When does the avail light come on, on the apu overhead panel?

A

AVAIL lt :

>95%

56
Q

Required Equipment for RVSM?

7 items

A 
2 PFD’s (with 2 primary altimeters) must agree within 200ft.
2 ADR’s
2 DMC’s
1 AP (with hold)
1 FCU
1 XPNDR (with altitude reporting)
1 FWC (with altitude alert)
57
Q

What equipment is required for MNPS?

A

RVSM equipment plus:

1 master clock
1 FMGC
1 ND
1 SELCAL/HF

58
Q

When do we get a fire warning? (4)

A

A fire warning appears, if:

Both loops A and B send a fire signal, or

One loop sends a fire signal and the other one is failed, or

Breaks occur in both loops within 5 s of each other (flame effect), or

A test is performed on the FIRE panel

59
Q

Why is the break temp limit 300 degrees?

A

Because that temp ensures the hydraulic fluid will not ignite in the wheel well.

60
Q

What do green or amber dashes on the PFD indicate?

A

Green indicates normal law and that the AP / Athr may be able to be engaged.
Amber indicates alternate law.

61
Q

Required equipment for rvsm? (7)

A 
2 ADR’S
2 DMC’S
2 PFD’S (For altitude indication)
1 transponder
1 AP
1 FCU Channel
1 FWC (for alt alert)
62
Q

Minimum equipment for an RNAV 1 arrival/approach?

A

The minimum navigation equipment required to enter RNAV1/RNAV2 airspace is:

One FMGC

One MCDU

One GPS or one DME receiver to update the FM position

Two IRS

One FD in NAV mode

Two NDs (the temporary display of ND information via the PFD/ND switch is permitted on one side).

63
Q

What happens when you put the extract or blower to override ?

A

It puts the avionics system into the closed config and adds air from the air conditioning system to the ventilation air.

64
Q

When actioning the QRH smoke procedure what does pushing the extract and blower into override to do the fans and the system?

A

The blower switches off, extract stays open, skin air outlet valve open to exhaust fumes overboard. System is in the closed config with air from the air conditioning system added to the ventilation air.

65
Q

What controls the windshear detection system?

When is it active, and under what config?

A

The windshear detection function is provided by the Flight Augmentation Computer (FAC) in takeoff and approach phase in the following conditions:

At takeoff, 3 s after liftoff, up to 1 300 ft RA

At landing, from 1 300 ft RA to 50 ft RA

With at least CONF 1 selected.

66
Q

What would you expect to see and hear if you experienced windshear?

A

The warning consists of:

A visual “WINDSHEAR” red message displayed on both PFDs for a minimum of 15 s.

An aural synthetic voice announcing “WINDSHEAR” three times.

67
Q

How do the FAC’s detect windshear?

A

The FACs generate the windshear warning whenever the predicted energy level for the aircraft falls below a predetermined threshold.

In computing this energy level prediction, the FACs use data from different sources. From ADIRS comes data such as vertical speed, air and ground speeds and slope.

The FACs express this energy level as an angle of attack and compare it with an angle-of-attack threshold above which windshear conditions are most likely and pilot action is required.

68
Q

Below what altitude is predictive and reactive windshear available?

A

Predictive below 2300ft

Reactive below 1300ft

69
Q

What predictive windshear warnings and cautions can you get?

A

Warning
W/S AHEAD (red) on pfd
Go around windshear ahead, audio. Or windshear ahead twice for take off.

Caution
W/S AHEAD (amber) on pfd
Monitor radar display, audio.

70
Q

When are windshear alerts inhibited?

A

At takeoff, alerts are inhibited above 100 kt and up to 50 ft.

During landing, alerts are inhibited below 50 ft.

71
Q

What is the difference between alpha floor and toga lock?

How do you get out of Toga lock?

A

Angle of attack.
Alpha floor changes to toga lock once the angle of attack is reduced.
TOGA lock can only be deselected by disconecting the autothrust.

72
Q

If you recieve an amber windshear caution:
W/S AHEAD (amber) on pfd
Monitor radar display, audio.
What should you do?

A

Consider delaying the approach or a divert.
The approach can be continued provided the crew do the following:
Assess the weather severity with the radar display

Consider the most appropriate runway

Select FLAPS 3 for landing, in order to optimize the climb gradient capability in the case of a go-around

Use managed speed, because it provides the GS mini function mini function

The flight crew may increase VAPP displayed on MCDU PERF APP page up to a maximum VLS +15 kt.

73
Q

If you recieve a predictive GO AROUND WINDSHEAR AHEAD warning what should you do?

A

Go around unless postive it is spurious.

74
Q

What causes Emer Elec?

A

The loss of AC BUS 1 and 2 or the loss of both generators causing a loss of ac bus 1&2.

The RAT will extend automatically.

75
Q

In EMER ELEC what is your min approach speed?

A

140kts to stop the RAT from stalling

76
Q

What’s the alpha lock function? FCOM DSC 27-30-10

Active above what AoA?

A

Inhibits slat retraction at high AOA and low speed. SFCCs use corrected α or airspeed from ADIRUs to inhibit slat

retraction. When FLAPS lever set to 0, slats alpha/speed lock function activates and inhibits slats retraction, if:
- AOA is > 8.5 °

77
Q

When does Anti-Skid become available?

A

> 20kts

So careful when taxying

78
Q

What do you do in the event of a shear pin failure?

A

If the pushback stops immediately after failure of shear pin, inspection is not necessary.
- Nose gear must be inspected if:
During forward or rearward towing separation and overrun of towbar by aircraft, or
Push-turn operations, when towbar arm touches tractor after failure of turning towbar shear pin

79
Q

Brake temperature requiring maintenance? OM B 2.3.21 After Landing

A

Temp.diff.2 brakes on 1 gear>150°C and one≥600°C

  • Temp.diff.2brakes on 1 gear>150°C and one≤60°C
  • Diff. average temp. L and R gear ≥ 200 °C
  • One brake > 900 °C
80
Q

What are the different types of radar in use?

A

Airport Surveillance Radar.
Used at airports to track aircraft within the terminal area. It uses primary radar to track the distance and range of aircraft using reflections from microwaves. It also uses Secondary Radar SSR to interogate transponders and gain altitude information. Some airports may only use SSR for all info.

Some airports have ground based radar to track movements also.l

There is also PAR Precision Approach Radar, used by ATC to guide aircraft down to DH.

81
Q

How many fire loops are there, how many sensors and where are they?

A

2 loops, A and B mounted in parralell.
Each loop has Three or four (as installed) engine fire sensing elements, in the pylon nacelle, in the engine core, and in the engine fan section.
One fire sensing element in the APU compartment.

82
Q

You arrive at the aircraft and no fuel is present in the outter tanks, how is this possible and is it a problem?

A

The aircraft will have likely been refuelled on batteries. The fueling can take place as the fuel system is connected to the hot bus. However on aircraft shutdown the transfer valves wil likely have been open, they only reset when the aircraft is powered.

It is not a problem provided there is no out of limit in balance. In flight they should start to refill through IDG cooling anyway.

83
Q

How do you open the main cargo door? And if hydraulic power isnt available?

A

On the cargo door push the handle inwards, then pull the handle away and upwards.
Open the service panel. Set the selector valve lever to the OPEN position and maintain the lever in this position until the green indicator light comes on. The green indicator light indicates that the door is fully opened and locked.

Without hydraulic pressure you will need 2 people, do the same as above but the second person has to open the ground service panel of the yellow hydraulic system that is in the belly fairing area. Operate the hand pump until the cargo door is in the fully open position

84
Q

Why is there a difference between GPS altitude and baro pressure altitude?

A

Temperature. “It should be noted that the altitude indicated by an altimeter is temperature compensated. For any given pressure the indicated altitude will be the same no matter what the temperature. This can give rise to a significant difference between the GPS height and the displayed barometric altitudes”.

85
Q

When the pilot uses the speedbrake lever which spoilers are deployed?

A

2, 3 and 4

86
Q

When are the speedbrakes inhibited? (6)

A 
Flaps in config full
Thrust levers above MCT (TOGA)
Alpha floor is active
Angle of attack protection active 
An elevator has a fault
SEC 1 and SEC 2 have a fault.
87
Q

When do we get the speedbrakes back after an inhibition?

A

The speedbrakes stay retracted until the inhibition is no longer present and the lever is reset.
They can be used again 10 seconds after the lever is reset.

88
Q

What takes spoiler priority if you turn with the speedbrakes deployed?

A

The roll function take priority.

89
Q

How does an FQI system work?

A

Through a set of capacitence probs in each tank that measure fuel level and temperature.

90
Q

How does the aircraft compute its position?

A

Each FMGC computes its position by using its GPS position and its IRS mix position.
3 IRS’s.
The FMGS selects the most accurate position, considering the estimated accuracy and integrity of each positioning equipment.

91
Q

When does the LDG GEAR safety valve operate?

A

When the aircraft is flying faster than 260 kt, a safety valve automatically cuts off hydraulic supply to the landing gear system. Below 260 kt, the hydraulic supply remains cut off as long as the landing gear lever is up.

92
Q

Min RAT speed?

What happens at 100, 50 kts?

A

140kts

Below 100kts, DC BAT BUS is automatically connected to batteries.

Below 50kts AC ESS BUS is automatically shed leading to the loss of all display units.

93
Q

What do the LGCIU’s receive position information from?

A

Landing gear
Cargo door
Landing flap systems

94
Q

In terms of TCAS what does TAU stand for?

A

Time to intercept

95
Q

What is the TAU (time to intercept) for a TA and RA?

A

TA 40 seconds

RA 25 seconds

96
Q

If you had a fuel fqi failure, how could you get accurate fuel predictions from your fmgs?

A

Try and reset the circuit breaker.
And. On the fuel page, line 4R, where is says FF+FQ. This can be overwritten, by entering just FF.
The system will then only look at fuel flow and should give a reading for what you will land with.
However spotting a leak is still not possible on the ecam pages.
FCOM 22 20 50 10 25 (SEARCH FF).

Adams Command Cards (20 decks)

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