extra pharma questions Flashcards
again, these aren't from past exams.
A patient comes into the ER who has been poisoned. What is the first course of action?
a. find out what the poison is so you know how to treat it
b. stabilize the patient
c. take a history
b. stabilize the patient
he may die by the time you think of the right poison
The lethal dose of Nicotine is 1mg/kg. How much Nicotine does it take to kill a 70kg person?
70mg
this question was done in class
Drugs that end with -lol are
a. alpha receptor antagonists
b. beta receptor antagonists
c. anesthetics
b. beta receptor antagonists
Drugs that end with -zosin are
a. alpha receptor antagonists
b. beta receptor antagonists
c. anesthetics
a. alpha receptor antagonists
Drugs that end with -caine are
a. alpha receptor antagonists
b. beta receptor antagonists
c. anesthetics
c. anesthetics
What are chelating agents?
an agent that binds to other substances to eliminate them from the body
For what type of drug can we use the dose-response curve?
a. graded response drugs
b. quantal response drugs
c. both
c. both
What is true about tachyphylaxis?
a. its a slow and gradual drug tolerance
b. increasing the dose will not help in reversing it
b. increasing the dose will not help in reversing it
What’s the difference between side effect and adverse effect?
side effects occur through the same pharmacological action of the drug, while an adverse effect occurs via different mechanisms
Which of the following is true?
a. ionized drugs can diffuse across cell membranes
b. acidic drugs are better absorbed in the intestine
c. basic drugs are better absorbed in the intestine
c. basic drugs are better absorbed in the intestine
What is true about absorption?
a. the faster the gastric emptying, the more is absorbed
b. the more P-glycoprotein expression, the less the absorbtion
c. surface area is inversely proportional to absorption
b. the more P-glycoprotein expression, the less the absorption
What would happen to a patient that has hypoalbuminemia when he takes the average recommended amount of a drug?
a. no effect
b. he needs more of the drug to compensate
c. toxicity
c. toxicity
Which of the following is true about renal drug excretion?
a. only ionized, water soluble drugs can be excreted
b. only nonionized, fat soluble drugs can be excreted
c. large, protein bound drugs are excreted
a. only ionized, water soluble drugs can be excreted
what occurs to drug metabolism when P450 enzyme degradation is reduced?
a. metabolism is inhibited
b. metabolism is induced
b. metabolism is enduced
Phase 1 of drug metabolism is done by
microsomal oxidases and cytochrome P450 enzyme system (CYP450)
Which of these doesn’t occur in phase 1?
a. oxidation
b. sulfication
c. reduction
d. hydrolysis
b. sulfication
occurs in phase 2
Which of the following is a has bidirectional filtration?
a. glomerulus
b. proximal convoluted tubule
c. distal convoluted tubule
b. proximal convoluted tubule
What occurs when the urine pH becomes lower (more acidic)?
a. more acidic stuff excreted
b. more basic stuff excreted
b. more basic stuff excreted
the basic drugs react to the acid, become ionized and can go out in urine form because it is water soluble
Which of the following is NOT saturable?
a. glomerulus
b. proximal convoluted tubule
c. distal convoluted tubule
a. glomerulus
Which is FALSE about hepatic excretion?
a. it works most efficiently when the molar weight is low
b. glucuronide is added to make things more excretable
c. drugs with a high extraction ratio are the most affected by the first pass effect
a. it works most efficiently when the molar weight is low
Which of the following reduce the half-life of a drug?
a. heart failure
b. C-P450 induction
c. C-P450 inhibition
b. C-P450 induction
Give an example of a substance that follows zero order kinetics
Alcohol
True/False: T1/2 (half-life) is inversely correlated to concentration
False; T1/2 is not affected by concentration
Which of the following is a false statement about steady-state concentration?
a. it takes four to five half-lives to reach
b. at steady state, the dosing rate and elimination rate are equal
c. you can reach steady state concentration faster if you increase infusion rate
c. when you increase infusion rate you can reach steady state concentration faster
(higher infusion rate just makes the steady state concentration higher)
Which of the following is used to treat gout patients?
a. alcohol
b. salicylates
c. penicillin
b. salicylates (AKA- aspirin)
it allows uric acid to be excreted by competing with it for the plasma proteins
Which of these has a side effect of cardiotoxicity?
a. debrisoquine
b. herceptin
c. paroxetine
b. herceptin
side effect occurs if the target receptor isn’t present
an antihypertensive drug
a. Vitravene
b. Paroxetine
c. Debrisoquine
c. Debrisoquine
an antidepressant that attaches to serotonin 2A receptors
a. Vitravene
b. Paroxetine
c. Debrisoquine
b. Paroxetine
1st anti-sense drug to be approved by FDA
a. Vitravene
b. Paroxetine
c. Debrisoquine
a. Vitravene
works on genetic material, not protein
which of these genes makes you more likely to get brain tumors?
a. BRCA1/2
b. c-erbB1
b. c-erbB1
Which of these receptors have a long-lasting effect?
a. G protein-coupled receptors
b. Ionotropic receptors
c. Intracellular receptors
c. Intracellular receptors
ex/ steroid hormones
Which of the following has a long postganglionic neuron?
a. sympathetic neuron
b. parasympathetic neuron
a. sympathetic neuron
Which of these cranial nerves do not belong to the parasympathetic system?
a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
e. 10
b. 5
Which of the following are not cholinergic?
a. preganglionic fibers
b. sympathetic postganglionic fibers
c. parasympathetic postganglionic fibers
b. sympathetic postganglionic fibers
All postganglionic sympathetic fibers are adrenergic -except sweat glands, which are cholinergic
ED50 determines
a. efficacy
b. potency
c. affinity
b. potency
Which of the following reduces efficacy?
a. Competitive agonist
b. Non-competitve agonist
b. Non-competitive agonist
Which of the following can cause gene transcription?
a. extracellular receptor
b. intracellular receptor
b. intracellular receptor
What’s the substrate of norepinephrine synthesis?
Tyrosine
What’s the rate-limiting enzyme of norepinephrine synthesis?
tyrosine hydroxylase
Which of the following stops dopamine from going inside of vesicles?
a. reserpine
b. guanethidine
c. amphetamine
d. cocaine
a. reserpine
Which of the following stops vesicles release in the adrenergic neurons?
a. reserpine
b. guanethidine
c. amphetamine
d. cocaine
b. guanethidine
Which of the following stops NA reuptake?
a. reserpine
b. guanethidine
c. amphetamine
d. cocaine
d. cocaine
Tricyclic antidepressants do the same thing
Which receptors modulate neurotransmitter release via negative feedback?
alpha 2 presynaptic receptors
when activated, they inhibit adenylate cyclase and thus reduce cAMP
Which of the following metabolized NA inside the nerve terminal?
a. COMT
b. MAO
b. MAO
Where are beta 1 receptors most commonly located?
the heart
Where are alpha 1 receptors most commonly located?
smooth muscles of blood vessels
which method is prodominatly used to get rid of NA?
a. enzyme-mediated
a. uptake 1
c. uptake 2
a. uptake 1
it’s non-enzymatic
can phenylephrine be taken orally? Can it cross the blood-brain barrier?
yes, because its a non-catecholamine and won’t get degraded via COMT and MAO. They can cross the BBB because they’re more lipophilic and less polar than catecholamines
Which of the following have a longer effect?
a. catecholamines
b. non-catecholamines
b. non-catecholamines
Which is used for heart failure?
a. isoprenaline
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine
d. dobutamine
d. dobutamine
beta 1 agonist, causes tachycardia and increases heart contractility
Which is used for congested noses?
a. isoprenaline
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine
d. dobutamine
b. phenylephrine
it’s an alpha 1 agonist that vasoconstricts blood vessels of nasal mucosa
Which is used for hypertension?
a. isoprenaline
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine
d. dobutamine
c. clonidine
it’s a beta 2 agonist that decreases NA release, releasing resistant and reducing BP
Which is used for asthma?
a. salbutamol
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine
a. salbutamol
what are amphetamine & tyramine and how do they work?
they’re indirect adrenergic agonists that displace NA from vesicles so it can be released. They don’t act on receptors.
Which of the following is true about alpha adrenergic antagonists?
a. they vasoconstrict arteries and veins
b. they vasodilate veins only
c. they vasodilate arteries only
d. they vasodilate arteries more than veins
d. they vasodilate arteries more than veins
How many of the following can be used to treat hypertension?
a. phentolamine
b. propranolol
c. prazosin
d. atenolol
e. yohimbine
b. propranolol
c. prazosin
(alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist)
d. atenolol
Which of the following can be used to treat pheochromocytoma?
a. phentolamine
b. prazosin
c. yohimbine
a. phentolamine
(non-selective alpha adrenergic antagonist)
pheochromocytoma = tumor that makes a bunch of catecholamines, causing higher BP
What can NOT be treated with alpha-adrenergic antagonists?
a. benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. raynaud’s disease
c. hypotension
d. phaeochromocytoma
c. hypotension
Which of these is an alpha 2 antagonist?
a. prazosin
b. yohimbine
b. yohimbine
Which of these can you NOT use beta blockers for?
a. anxiety
b. asthma
c. tachycardia
d. for protection against MI
e. hypertension
f. angina pectoris
b. asthma
What stops choline uptake?
a. botulinum toxin
b. hemicholinum
c. acetylcholine
b. hemicholinum
Which of the following receptors is ligand gated?
a. adrenergic receptors
b. muscarinic receptors
c. nicotinic receptors
c. nicotinic receptors
Which of these relax the body when activated?
a. muscarinic receptors
b. nicotinic receptors
a. muscarinic receptors
what blocks post-synaptic receptors?
a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin
d. atropine
What blocks Ach release?
a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin
c. botulinum toxin
What enhances Ach release and is a main component of spider venom?
a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin
e. latrotoxin
Which blocks Ach storage?
a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin
b. vesamicol