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FB2 - 2nd year > extra pharma questions > Flashcards

extra pharma questions Flashcards

again, these aren't from past exams.

1
Q

A patient comes into the ER who has been poisoned. What is the first course of action?

a. find out what the poison is so you know how to treat it
b. stabilize the patient
c. take a history

A

b. stabilize the patient

he may die by the time you think of the right poison

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2
Q

The lethal dose of Nicotine is 1mg/kg. How much Nicotine does it take to kill a 70kg person?

A

70mg

this question was done in class

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3
Q

Drugs that end with -lol are

a. alpha receptor antagonists
b. beta receptor antagonists
c. anesthetics

A

b. beta receptor antagonists

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4
Q

Drugs that end with -zosin are

a. alpha receptor antagonists
b. beta receptor antagonists
c. anesthetics

A

a. alpha receptor antagonists

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5
Q

Drugs that end with -caine are

a. alpha receptor antagonists
b. beta receptor antagonists
c. anesthetics

A

c. anesthetics

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6
Q

What are chelating agents?

A

an agent that binds to other substances to eliminate them from the body

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7
Q

For what type of drug can we use the dose-response curve?

a. graded response drugs
b. quantal response drugs
c. both

A

c. both

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8
Q

What is true about tachyphylaxis?

a. its a slow and gradual drug tolerance
b. increasing the dose will not help in reversing it

A

b. increasing the dose will not help in reversing it

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9
Q

What’s the difference between side effect and adverse effect?

A

side effects occur through the same pharmacological action of the drug, while an adverse effect occurs via different mechanisms

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10
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. ionized drugs can diffuse across cell membranes
b. acidic drugs are better absorbed in the intestine
c. basic drugs are better absorbed in the intestine

A

c. basic drugs are better absorbed in the intestine

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11
Q

What is true about absorption?

a. the faster the gastric emptying, the more is absorbed
b. the more P-glycoprotein expression, the less the absorbtion
c. surface area is inversely proportional to absorption

A

b. the more P-glycoprotein expression, the less the absorption

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12
Q

What would happen to a patient that has hypoalbuminemia when he takes the average recommended amount of a drug?

a. no effect
b. he needs more of the drug to compensate
c. toxicity

A

c. toxicity

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13
Q

Which of the following is true about renal drug excretion?

a. only ionized, water soluble drugs can be excreted
b. only nonionized, fat soluble drugs can be excreted
c. large, protein bound drugs are excreted

A

a. only ionized, water soluble drugs can be excreted

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14
Q

what occurs to drug metabolism when P450 enzyme degradation is reduced?

a. metabolism is inhibited
b. metabolism is induced

A

b. metabolism is enduced

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15
Q

Phase 1 of drug metabolism is done by

A

microsomal oxidases and cytochrome P450 enzyme system (CYP450)

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16
Q

Which of these doesn’t occur in phase 1?

a. oxidation
b. sulfication
c. reduction
d. hydrolysis

A

b. sulfication

occurs in phase 2

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17
Q

Which of the following is a has bidirectional filtration?

a. glomerulus
b. proximal convoluted tubule
c. distal convoluted tubule

A

b. proximal convoluted tubule

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18
Q

What occurs when the urine pH becomes lower (more acidic)?

a. more acidic stuff excreted
b. more basic stuff excreted

A

b. more basic stuff excreted

the basic drugs react to the acid, become ionized and can go out in urine form because it is water soluble

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19
Q

Which of the following is NOT saturable?

a. glomerulus
b. proximal convoluted tubule
c. distal convoluted tubule

A

a. glomerulus

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20
Q

Which is FALSE about hepatic excretion?

a. it works most efficiently when the molar weight is low
b. glucuronide is added to make things more excretable
c. drugs with a high extraction ratio are the most affected by the first pass effect

A

a. it works most efficiently when the molar weight is low

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21
Q

Which of the following reduce the half-life of a drug?

a. heart failure
b. C-P450 induction
c. C-P450 inhibition

A

b. C-P450 induction

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22
Q

Give an example of a substance that follows zero order kinetics

A

Alcohol

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23
Q

True/False: T1/2 (half-life) is inversely correlated to concentration

A

False; T1/2 is not affected by concentration

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24
Q

Which of the following is a false statement about steady-state concentration?

a. it takes four to five half-lives to reach
b. at steady state, the dosing rate and elimination rate are equal
c. you can reach steady state concentration faster if you increase infusion rate

A

c. when you increase infusion rate you can reach steady state concentration faster

(higher infusion rate just makes the steady state concentration higher)

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25
Q

Which of the following is used to treat gout patients?

a. alcohol
b. salicylates
c. penicillin

A

b. salicylates (AKA- aspirin)

it allows uric acid to be excreted by competing with it for the plasma proteins

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26
Q

Which of these has a side effect of cardiotoxicity?

a. debrisoquine
b. herceptin
c. paroxetine

A

b. herceptin

side effect occurs if the target receptor isn’t present

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27
Q

an antihypertensive drug

a. Vitravene
b. Paroxetine
c. Debrisoquine

A

c. Debrisoquine

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28
Q

an antidepressant that attaches to serotonin 2A receptors

a. Vitravene
b. Paroxetine
c. Debrisoquine

A

b. Paroxetine

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29
Q

1st anti-sense drug to be approved by FDA

a. Vitravene
b. Paroxetine
c. Debrisoquine

A

a. Vitravene

works on genetic material, not protein

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30
Q

which of these genes makes you more likely to get brain tumors?

a. BRCA1/2
b. c-erbB1

A

b. c-erbB1

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31
Q

Which of these receptors have a long-lasting effect?

a. G protein-coupled receptors
b. Ionotropic receptors
c. Intracellular receptors

A

c. Intracellular receptors

ex/ steroid hormones

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32
Q

Which of the following has a long postganglionic neuron?

a. sympathetic neuron
b. parasympathetic neuron

A

a. sympathetic neuron

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33
Q

Which of these cranial nerves do not belong to the parasympathetic system?

a. 3
b. 5
c. 7
d. 9
e. 10

A

b. 5

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34
Q

Which of the following are not cholinergic?

a. preganglionic fibers
b. sympathetic postganglionic fibers
c. parasympathetic postganglionic fibers

A

b. sympathetic postganglionic fibers

All postganglionic sympathetic fibers are adrenergic -except sweat glands, which are cholinergic

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35
Q

ED50 determines

a. efficacy
b. potency
c. affinity

A

b. potency

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36
Q

Which of the following reduces efficacy?

a. Competitive agonist
b. Non-competitve agonist

A

b. Non-competitive agonist

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37
Q

Which of the following can cause gene transcription?

a. extracellular receptor
b. intracellular receptor

A

b. intracellular receptor

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38
Q

What’s the substrate of norepinephrine synthesis?

A

Tyrosine

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39
Q

What’s the rate-limiting enzyme of norepinephrine synthesis?

A

tyrosine hydroxylase

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40
Q

Which of the following stops dopamine from going inside of vesicles?

a. reserpine
b. guanethidine
c. amphetamine
d. cocaine

A

a. reserpine

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41
Q

Which of the following stops vesicles release in the adrenergic neurons?

a. reserpine
b. guanethidine
c. amphetamine
d. cocaine

A

b. guanethidine

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42
Q

Which of the following stops NA reuptake?

a. reserpine
b. guanethidine
c. amphetamine
d. cocaine

A

d. cocaine

Tricyclic antidepressants do the same thing

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43
Q

Which receptors modulate neurotransmitter release via negative feedback?

A

alpha 2 presynaptic receptors

when activated, they inhibit adenylate cyclase and thus reduce cAMP

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44
Q

Which of the following metabolized NA inside the nerve terminal?

a. COMT
b. MAO

A

b. MAO

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45
Q

Where are beta 1 receptors most commonly located?

A

the heart

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46
Q

Where are alpha 1 receptors most commonly located?

A

smooth muscles of blood vessels

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47
Q

which method is prodominatly used to get rid of NA?

a. enzyme-mediated
a. uptake 1
c. uptake 2

A

a. uptake 1

it’s non-enzymatic

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48
Q

can phenylephrine be taken orally? Can it cross the blood-brain barrier?

A

yes, because its a non-catecholamine and won’t get degraded via COMT and MAO. They can cross the BBB because they’re more lipophilic and less polar than catecholamines

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49
Q

Which of the following have a longer effect?

a. catecholamines
b. non-catecholamines

A

b. non-catecholamines

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50
Q

Which is used for heart failure?

a. isoprenaline
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine
d. dobutamine

A

d. dobutamine

beta 1 agonist, causes tachycardia and increases heart contractility

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51
Q

Which is used for congested noses?

a. isoprenaline
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine
d. dobutamine

A

b. phenylephrine

it’s an alpha 1 agonist that vasoconstricts blood vessels of nasal mucosa

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52
Q

Which is used for hypertension?

a. isoprenaline
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine
d. dobutamine

A

c. clonidine

it’s a beta 2 agonist that decreases NA release, releasing resistant and reducing BP

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53
Q

Which is used for asthma?

a. salbutamol
b. phenylephrine
c. clonidine

A

a. salbutamol

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54
Q

what are amphetamine & tyramine and how do they work?

A

they’re indirect adrenergic agonists that displace NA from vesicles so it can be released. They don’t act on receptors.

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55
Q

Which of the following is true about alpha adrenergic antagonists?

a. they vasoconstrict arteries and veins
b. they vasodilate veins only
c. they vasodilate arteries only
d. they vasodilate arteries more than veins

A

d. they vasodilate arteries more than veins

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56
Q

How many of the following can be used to treat hypertension?

a. phentolamine
b. propranolol
c. prazosin
d. atenolol
e. yohimbine

A

b. propranolol
c. prazosin
(alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist)
d. atenolol

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57
Q

Which of the following can be used to treat pheochromocytoma?

a. phentolamine
b. prazosin
c. yohimbine

A

a. phentolamine
(non-selective alpha adrenergic antagonist)

pheochromocytoma = tumor that makes a bunch of catecholamines, causing higher BP

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58
Q

What can NOT be treated with alpha-adrenergic antagonists?

a. benign prostatic hyperplasia
b. raynaud’s disease
c. hypotension
d. phaeochromocytoma

A

c. hypotension

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59
Q

Which of these is an alpha 2 antagonist?

a. prazosin
b. yohimbine

A

b. yohimbine

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60
Q

Which of these can you NOT use beta blockers for?

a. anxiety
b. asthma
c. tachycardia
d. for protection against MI
e. hypertension
f. angina pectoris

A

b. asthma

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61
Q

What stops choline uptake?

a. botulinum toxin
b. hemicholinum
c. acetylcholine

A

b. hemicholinum

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62
Q

Which of the following receptors is ligand gated?

a. adrenergic receptors
b. muscarinic receptors
c. nicotinic receptors

A

c. nicotinic receptors

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63
Q

Which of these relax the body when activated?

a. muscarinic receptors
b. nicotinic receptors

A

a. muscarinic receptors

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64
Q

what blocks post-synaptic receptors?

a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin

A

d. atropine

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65
Q

What blocks Ach release?

a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin

A

c. botulinum toxin

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66
Q

What enhances Ach release and is a main component of spider venom?

a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin

A

e. latrotoxin

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67
Q

Which blocks Ach storage?

a. hemichilinium
b. vesamicol
c. botulinum toxin
d. atropine
e. latrotoxin

A

b. vesamicol

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68
Q

Which of the following can be used to prevent blindness?

a. acetylcholine
b. pilocarpine
c. bethanechol

A

b. pilocarpine

use to treat glaucoma, which can lead to blindness without treatment

69
Q

Muscarinic agonists cannot be used if…

A 
CHAP
Coronary insufficiency
Hyperthyroidism
Asthma
Peptic ulcer
70
Q

Which can be used to stop vomiting and nausea?

a. benztropine
b. ipratropium
c. scopolamine
d. atropine

A

c. scopolamine

71
Q

Which can be used to treat parkinson’s disease?

a. benztropine
b. atropine
c. scopolamine
d. A & B
e. A & C

A

d. A & B

72
Q

Which of the following conditions do muscarinic antagonists cause?

a. mydriasis
b. miosis

A

a. mydriasis (pupil dilation)

73
Q

Which of the following does physostigmine NOT treat?

a. glaucoma
b. atropine poisoning (antimuscarinic syndrome)
c. parkinson’s
d. alzheimer’s

A

c. parkinson’s

physostigmine = reversible anti-cholinesterase

74
Q

What does Echothiophate (an irreversible anti-cholinesterase) treat?

a. myasthenia gravis
b. glaucoma

A

b. glaucoma

75
Q

Which of the following re-activate cholinesterases?

a. benztropine
b. atropine
c. pralidoxime

A

c. pralidoxime

76
Q

What’s used in electroconvulsive therapy to reduce trauma?

a. tubocurarine
b. suxamethonium
c. vecuronium
d. atracurium
e. rocuronium

A

b. suxamethonium

77
Q

non-depolarizing blockers cause

a. rigid paralysis
b. flaccid paralysis

A

b. flaccid paralysis

78
Q

Which of the following is used for patients with kidney disease?

a. tubocurarine
b. suxamethonium
c. vecuronium
d. atracurium
e. rocuronium

A

d. atracurium

79
Q

Which of the following is a depolarizing NMB?

a. tubocurarine
b. suxamethonium
c. vecuronium
d. atracurium
e. rocuronium

A

b. suxamethonium

80
Q

Which of these needs respiration support?

a. non-depolarizing NMB
b. depolarizing NMB
c. both

A

c. both

81
Q

What are the adverse effects of depolarizing NMB?

A 
P.A.R.K. B.I.T.
Pain
Apnea
Respiration depression
K - hyperkalemia

Bradycardia
Intraocular pressure
Temperature raises

82
Q

why do only 20-30% of drugs have pediatric labeling?

A

clinical studies cannot test on babies because it would be unethical

83
Q

Which of the following have a rapid onset of action?

a. tubocurarine
b. suxamethonium
c. vecuronium
d. atracurium
e. rocuronium

A

e. rocuronium

84
Q

Which of the following has a side effect of hypotension and bronchospasm?

a. tubocurarine
b. suxamethonium
c. vecuronium
d. atracurium
e. rocuronium

A

a. tubocurarine

it’s not specific and causes histamine release, so it’s not used often

85
Q

Which of the following is true about acid labile drugs?

a. they’re better absorbed by neonates
b. they’re better absorbed by adults

A

a. they’re better absorbed by neonates

86
Q

Who requires a higher dose of aminoglycosides (ex/gentamicin) to get the same result?

a. neonates
b. teens
c. elders

A

a. neonates

aminoglycosides are water soluble and neonates have the highest water content

87
Q

What causes brain damage in neonates?

a. too little plasma proteins
b. high albumin levels
c. high bilirubin levels

A

c. high bilirubin levels

aka kernicterus

88
Q

which metabolism pathway does acetaminophen (AKA paracetamol) use in children?

a. glucuronidation
b. sulfate conjugation

A

b. sulfate conjugation

89
Q

which of the following require a lower dose when administered to kids?

a. gentamicin
b. diazepam
c. digoxin

A

b. diazepam

it has a longer half-life

90
Q

What drugs can cause orthostatic hypotension when taken by the elderly? why?

A

antihypertensives and beta blockers can lead to orthostatic hypotension because the cardiovascular reflexes in the elderly are diminished

91
Q

which of the following require a lower dose because elders cannot excrete it as well?

a. gentamicin
b. beta 1 agonists
c. digoxin
d. diazepam

A

c. digoxin

92
Q

How should you adjust the dose of an anticoagulant (ex/warfarin) in the elderly? why?

A

decrease the dose because they highly bind to the serum albumin (which is low in the elderly)

93
Q

Which of the following require a higher dose in the elderly?

a. gentamicin
b. beta 1 agonists
c. digoxin
d. diazepam

A

b. beta 1 agonists

beta receptor response/sensitivity decreases

94
Q

Which of the following is lipid soluble?

a. gentamicin
b. diazepam
c. digoxin
d. aminoglycosides

A

b. diazepam

the rest are water soluble

95
Q

Why do sulfonamides (drugs that inhibit folic acid synthesis) not affect humans cells adversely?

A

human cells don’t have to make folic acid in the cells and can transport it into the cells instead

96
Q

Which of the following is the best option for patients with neutropenia?

a. bacteriostatic antibiotics
b. bacteriocidal antibiotics

A

b. bacteriocidal antibiotics

97
Q

anaerobic bacteria are aminoglycoside resistant because of

a. acquired resistance
b. innate resistance

A

b. innate resistance

98
Q

Which gene does imatinib, a tyrosine kinase inhibitor, target?

a. BRCA1 gene
b. BRCA 2 gene
c. BCR-ABL gene
d. CBL gene

A

c. BCR-ABL gene

99
Q

When does a cancer tumor have exponential growth?

a. smallest tumor size
b. largest tumor size
c. neither

A

c. neither

has the biggest growth in between those periods

100
Q

according to the log kill hypothesis, how many cancer cells do cancer drugs kill when they’re administered?

a. 10%
b. 20%
c. 40%
d. 90%

A

b. 20%

101
Q

Which of the following is NOT true about antineoplastic agents?

a. spermatogenic cells are affected
b. the more drugs that are used, the less the chance of resistance
c. the therapeutic index is very low
d. alopecia is a rare side effect

A

d. alopecia is a rare side effect

it occurs with most agents

102
Q

Which of these drugs is time independent?

a. cell-cycle phase independent
b. cell-cycle phase dependent

A

a. cell-cycle phase independent

a depends on dose and b depends on time

103
Q

Which of the following methods do antimetabolites use to stop cancer growth?

a. inhibits growth promoting hormones
b. stops blood supply
c. stops DNA synthesis precursors
d. inhibits protein synthesis

A

c. stops DNA synthesis precursors

104
Q

How do monoclonal antibodies work?

a. bind to DNA to deactivate it
b. bind to GF receptors to inhibit their activation
c. bind to tubulin to stop microtubule assembly

A

b. bind to GF receptors to inhibit their activation

a is for cytotoxic antibodies

105
Q

What are alkylating agents and how do they work?

A

chemicals that form covalent bonds and rapidly destroy (DNA, RNA, etc.) Examples are nitrogen mustards and platinum compounds

106
Q

What stage of cell replication do vinca alkaloids and taxanes interfere?

a. prophase
b. metaphase
c. anaphase
d. telophase

A

b. metaphase

107
Q

a high dose of atropine causes

a. bradycardia
b. hypoglycemia
c. constipation
d. hypothermia

A

c. constipation (and dry skin)

108
Q

a high dose of atenolol causes

a. bradycardia
b. hypoglycemia
c. constipation
d. tachycardia

A

a. bradycardia

its a beta-adrenoceptor antagonist

109
Q

how does a penicillin idiosyncratic allergy occur?

A

penicillin binds to tissue proteins and forms immunogens (antigens that makes humoral or cell-mediated immune response)

110
Q

Which of these patients cannot metabolize suxamethonium?

a. patients with high plasma cholinesterase
b. patients with high acetylcholinesterase
c. patients with low acetylcholinesterase
d. patients with abnormal plasma cholinesterase

A

d. patients with abnormal plasma cholinesterase

it’s resistant to acetylcholinesterase

111
Q

what can an acetylator polymorphism lead to?

a. hemolytic anemia
b. paralysis
c. peripheral neuropathy
d. apnea

A

c. peripheral neuropathy

isoniazid-induced

112
Q

primaquine can lead to hemolytic anemia in patients with

a. abnormal plasma cholinesterase
b. deficient in glucose-6-phosphate enzyme
c. acetylator polymorphism

A

b. deficient in glucose-6-phosphate enzyme

113
Q

Which of these drugs result in angina after treatment?

a. primaquine
b. atropine
c. atenolol
d. penicillin

A

c. atenolol

type E; withdrawal effect

114
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about adverse drug reactions?

a. occurs in 10-20% of patients
b. usually discovered during drug trials
c. may mimic natural diseases

A

b. usually discovered during drug trials

115
Q

Which of these occur before the drug is administered?

a. Pharmaceutical interactions
b. Pharmacokinetic interactions
c. Pharmacodynamic interactions

A

a. Pharmaceutical interactions

116
Q

Which of these occur without concentration change?

a. Pharmaceutical interactions
b. Pharmacokinetic interactions
c. Pharmacodynamic interactions

A

c. Pharmacodynamic interactions

117
Q

Which of the following can NOT chelate tetracycline?

a. antiacids
b. iron
c. calcium
d. warfrin

A

d. warfrin

118
Q

Which of these is an enzyme inhibitor?

a. warfarin
b. phenobarbital
c. cimetidine
d. chronic alcohol consumption

A

c. cimetidine

the rest are enzyme inducers

119
Q

Which TWO of these increase bleeding risk

a. warfarin
b. phenobarbital
c. cimetidine
d. chronic alcohol consumption

A

a. warfarin (anticoagulant)
&
c. cimetidine (histamine)

120
Q

what inhibits active tubular secretion?

a. probenecid
b. atenolol
c. salbutamol

A

a. probenecid

121
Q

Which of the following reduces the effectiveness of salbutamol?

a. NSAIDs
b. Iron
c. Beta-receptor antagonists
d. Cocaine

A

c. Beta-receptor antagonists

salbutamol is a beta 2 agonist

122
Q

Which of the following reduces the effectiveness of atenolol?

a. NSAIDs
b. Iron
c. Cocaine

A

c. Cocaine

123
Q

What does taking atenolol with grapefruit juice cause?

A

taking grapefruit juice and a calcium channel blocker (atenolol) may lead to hypotension because of the inhibition of an isoenzyme in the intestine

124
Q

how do you calculate TI (therapeutic index)?

A

Toxic dose (50%) / Effective dose (50%)

125
Q

how do you calculate the margin of safety?

A

TD1 / ED99

dose that makes 1% of the population get toxicity divided by the effective dose that treats 99% if the population

126
Q

How do you elicit emesis?

A

syrup of ipecac

127
Q

Which of the following can you use 2 hours after the ingestion of the toxic substance?

a. activated charcoal
b. gastric lavage

A

b. gastric lavage

activated charcoal can be used an hour after

128
Q

Which of the following method is more useful in enhancing urinary excretion?

a. acidification of urine
b. alkalization of urine

A

b. alkalization of urine

acidification poses the risk of metabolic acidosis

129
Q

Which of the following is used in acetaminophen (panadol) poisoning?

a. atropine
b. dextrose
c. n-acetylcysteine
d. ethanol

A

c. n-acetylcysteine

130
Q

What do you use to alkalize the urine?

A

sodium bicarbonate

131
Q

Which of these is used for small, water-soluble drugs?

a. hemoperfusion
b. hemodialysis
c. neither

A

b. hemodialysis

used for salicylates and alcohols

132
Q

Which of the following about volume distribution is true?

a. when volume distribution is high, drugs are more likely to bind to plasma proteins
b. when volume distribution is low, drugs are more likely to bind to plasma proteins

A

b. when volume distribution is low, drugs are more likely to bind to plasma proteins

133
Q

treat acetylcholinesterase inhibitor poisoning with

A

atropine

134
Q

treat antimuscarinics poisoning with

A

physostigmine

135
Q

EC50 measures

a. quantal response
b. graded response

A

b. graded response

ED50 is for quantal response

136
Q

Which of the following has a lower (more acidic) gastric pH?

a. neonates
b. adults
c. elderly

A

c. elderly

137
Q

Which of the following is most affected in an elderly patient?

a. phase 1
b. phase 2

A

a. phase 1

138
Q

T/F: alpha-adrenergic blockers cause tachycardia

A

False; they cause REFLEX tachycardia. Blood pressure decreases (bradycardia) due to the antagonists and your body compensates by increasing heart rate.

139
Q

“After a receptor is stimulated, a period of time is required before the next drug-receptor interaction can take place” Which of the following best describes this statement?

a. desensitization
b. inactivation
c. refractory
d. down-regulation

A

c. refractory

140
Q

Which of the following measures quantal response?

a. effective dose (ED)
b. effective concentration (EC)

A

a. effective dose

141
Q

Which of the following measures graded response?

a. effective dose (ED)
b. effective concentration (EC)

A

b. effective concentration

142
Q

Which of the following reduces potency?

a. Competitive agonist
b. Non-competitve agonist

A

a. Competitive agonist

143
Q

Which of the following antagonism type works without receptor involvement?

a. physiological antagonism
b. chemical antagonism
c. inverse antagonist

A

b. chemical antagonism

144
Q

Which of the following antagonism type works with two receptors?

a. physiological antagonism
b. chemical antagonism
c. inverse antagonist
d. pharmacokinetic antagonism

A

a. physiological antagonism

145
Q

Which antagonist type is usually used for constitutively active receptors?

a. physiological antagonism
b. chemical antagonism
c. inverse antagonist
d. pharmacokinetic antagonism

A

c. inverse antagonist

146
Q

Which of these receptors has the fastest transmission?

a. G protein-coupled receptors
b. Ionotropic receptors
c. Intracellular receptors

A

b. Ionotropic receptors

147
Q

T/F: Potency always goes hand in hand with efficacy, so the more potent the drug the more efficacy it has

A

False, this is not always true. A drug can be potent but not effective

148
Q

Which of the following is FALSE about the equilibrium dissociation constant (KD)?

a. it’s inversely proportional to the affinity constant
b. it’s the drug concentration that covers 50% of the available receptors
c. it’s the drug concentration that produces 50% of the maximum response

A

c. it’s the drug concentration that produces 50% of the maximum response

(this is the definition of effective concentration, not KD)

149
Q

Which of the following describes a full agonist?

a. doesn’t have spare receptors
b. at 50% if the maximum response, 10% of the receptors are occupied
c. at 50% if the maximum response, 50% of the receptors are occupied
d. the biological effect is proportional to the drug concentration

A

b. at 50% if the maximum response, 10% of the receptors are occupied

(it has spare receptors)

150
Q

What can you assume about a patient with high SNP score?

a. they have many mutations
b. they’re predisposed to cancer
c. they have many polymorphisms that effect clinical phenotype

A

c. they have many polymorphisms that effect clinical phenotype

151
Q

How do aminoglycosides (ex/gentamicin) affect Acetylcholine release?

a. reduce Ach release
b. increase Ach release
c. no effect

A

a. reduce Ach release

it prolongs skeletal muscle paralysis due to this

152
Q

Which of the following describes neostigmine?

a. direct acting agonist
b. anticholinesterase
c. induces plasma cholinesterase

A

b. anticholinesterase

causes excessive drug effect by stopping plasma cholinesterase, which metabolizes the drug

153
Q

Which of the following can be used to treat paralytic ileus?

a. acetylcholine
b. pilocarpine
c. bethanechol

A

c. bethanechol

also for urinary retention

154
Q

Which of the following can be used to prep for cataract surgery?

a. acetylcholine
b. pilocarpine
c. bethanechol

A

a. acetylcholine

155
Q

How does atropine effect the CNS at a high dose?

a. depressant
b. stimulatory

A

b. stimulatory

156
Q

Why is atropine contraindicated in children?

a. they get toxicity
b. they metabolize it rapidly
c. causes a rapid increase in body temperature

A

c. causes a rapid increase in body temperature

157
Q

Which can be used to treat asthma?

a. benztropine
b. ipratropium
c. scopolamine
d. atropine

A

b. ipratropium

158
Q

How does atropine effect the CNS at a high dose?

a. depressant
b. stimulatory

A

b. stimulatory

159
Q

How do anticholinesterases effect the CNS?

a. depressant
b. stimulatory

A

b. stimulatory

160
Q

What does neostigmine treat?

a. myasthenia gravis
b. glaucoma

A

a. myasthenia gravis

161
Q

how do you treat anticholinesterase poisoning?

A

atropine

162
Q

how do you treat atrophine poisoning?

A

physostigmine

163
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes vecuronium?

a. Depolarizing blocker
b. Non-depolarizing blocker
c. Causes histamine release

A

b. Non-depolarizing blocker

164
Q

Which of the following most accurately describes Mivacurium?

a. Depolarizing blocker
b. hydrolyzed by acetylcholinesterase
c. hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterases

A

c. hydrolyzed by plasma cholinesterases

165
Q

Which of the following best describes probenecid?

a. activator of passive tubular secretion
b. activator of active tubular secretion
c. inhibitor of passive tubular secretion
d. inhibitor of active tubular secretion

A

d. inhibitor of active tubular secretion

166
Q

Which of the following food products decreases tetracycline absorption when taken together?

a. avocado
b. milk
c. oranges or other citrus

A

b. milk

167
Q

Which of these is used for large, fat-soluble drugs?

a. hemoperfusion
b. hemodialysis
c. neither

A

a. hemoperfusion

168
Q

What is a complication of hemoperfusion?

A

clotting

169
Q

Which of these is used for drugs with large volume distribution?

a. hemoperfusion
b. hemodialysis
c. neither

A

c. neither

don’t waste your time with any dialysis type

FB2 - 2nd year (39 decks)

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