2017 micro Flashcards

1
Q
What influenza A virus caused the 2009 influenza pandemic?
A. H1N1
B. H3N2
C. H5N1
D. H2N1
A

A. H1N1

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2
Q
A 9-month-old neonate was diagnosed with septic arthritis. What is the most likely etiological agent? 
A. Streptococcus pyogenes
B. Staphylococcus aureus 
C. Haemophilus influenzae 
D. Enterococcus faecalis
A

C. Haemophilus influenzae

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3
Q
What is the most likely cause of neonatal pneumonitis? 
A. Chlamydia psittaci
B. Mycoplasma hominis
C. Streptococcus pneumoniae
D. Haemophilus influenzae
A

no answer

(The Dr said Mycoplasma hominis has the same symptoms as Chlamydia trachomatis, which causes neonatal pneumonia. Probably B)

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4
Q
Which of the following causes a latent infection? 
A. Treponema pallidum
B. E. coli
C. Vibrio cholera
D. Staphylococcus aureus
A

A. Treponema pallidum

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5
Q

What characterizes the rash present in measles?
A. Petechial rash
B. Diffuse erythematous rash
C. Maculopapular rash

A

C. Maculopapular rash

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6
Q
How many segments are there in the genome of the influenza virus?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 7
D. 8
A

D. 8

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7
Q
What can you find in a pathogenic strain of Entamoeba histolytica? 
A. Nuclei changes in cysts
B. Nuclei changes in trophozoites
C. Inclusion bodies in the cytoplasm
D. Changes in strains
A

no answer given

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8
Q
What is a virulence factor of E. coli? 
A. Lipid A
B. M protein
C. Protein A
D. Teichoic acid
A

A. Lipid A

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9
Q
Which is used by Enterohemorrhagic E. coli to produce hemolytic uremic syndrome? 
A. Heat labile toxin
B. Heat stable toxin
C. Shiga toxin
D. Enterotoxin
A

C. Shiga toxin

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10
Q
Which of the following characterizes Chlamydia?
A. Lack cell membrane
B. Causes an opportunistic infection
C. Resistant to ampicillin
D. Requires rich artificial media
A

C. Resistant to ampicillin

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11
Q
Which of the following hepatitis viruses is the most common cause of fulminant hepatitis in pregnant women? 
A. Hepatitis E
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis C 
D. Hepatitis G
A

A. Hepatitis E

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12
Q
What is used to diagnose a malarial infection? 
A. Microscopy of thick blood smear
B. Microscopy of thin blood film
C. Serology
D. PCR
A

B. Microscopy of thin blood film

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13
Q
What is a characteristic of Vibrio parahaemolyticus? 
A. Only affects humans
B. Oxidase negative
C. Causes food poisoning
D. Causes bloody diarrhea
A

C. Causes food poisoning

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14
Q
What is the reservoir of Brucella melitensis? 
A. Cow
B. Pig
C. Sheep
D. Dog
A

C. Sheep

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15
Q
Which organism can be stained with gram stain? 
A. Chlamydia trachomatis
B. Haemophilus aegypticus
C. Mycoplasma hominis
D. Treponema pallidum
A

B. Haemophilus aegypticus

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16
Q

Which set of characteristics represents Staphylococcus pneumonia?
A. Gram positive cocci in chains & bile soluble
B. Gram positive diplococci & optochin sensitive
C. Gram positive diplococci & optochin resistant
D. Gram positive cocci in chains & optochin sensative

A

B. Gram positive diplococci & optochin sensitive

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17
Q

Which method is used to diagnose acute filarial infection?
A. Microscopy of lymphatics
B. Microscopy of nucleopore filtered blood
C. Microscopy of thick and thin blood
D. Serology for antibody detection

A

B. Microscopy of nucleopore filtered blood

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18
Q
What viral infection can be prevented by a live vaccine? 
A. Ebola
B. Dengue
C. Tick-borne encephalitis
D. Yellow fever
A

D. Yellow fever

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19
Q
A 28-year-old male had a painless ulcer on his penis. What might be the causative agent? 
A. Treponema pallidum
B. Treponema endemicum
C. Treponema pertenue
D. Treponema carateum
A

A. Treponema pallidum

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20
Q
What factor helps Clostridium tetani to survive in the soil? 
A. Capsule
B. Spores 
C. Fimbria 
D. Biofilm
A

B. Spores

21
Q
Which enzyme is produced by both Helicobacter pylori and Proteus mirabilis? 
A. Coagulase
B. Catalase 
C. Urease 
D. Oxidase
A

C. Urease

22
Q
What characterizes Vibrio cholera? 
A. Yellow colonies on TCBS agar
B. Non-motile
C. Oxidase negative
D. Causes mild, self-limiting illness
A

A. Yellow colonies on TCBS agar

23
Q
Which bacteria causes peptic ulceration? 
A. Helicobacter pylori
B. E. coli
C. Shigella dysenteriae
D. Haemophilus parainfluenzae
A

A. Helicobacter pylori

24
Q

What allows Mycobacterium tuberculosis to be gram-stain resistant?
A. Phenolic glycolipid 1
B. Mycolic acid
C. Phospholipid bilayer

A

. Mycolic acid

25
Q
What virulence factor of Legionella pneumophila is active in both macrophages and amoeba?
A. pmi
B. mak
C. mip/mil
D. dot/icm
A

D. dot/icm

26
Q
What does Neisseria meningitidis use to adhere onto mucosal surface of the nasopharynx? 
A. Fimbria
B. Outer membrane proteins
C. Type IV pilus
D. Lipo-oligosaccharides
A

C. Type IV pilus

27
Q
Haemophilus influenzae requires both X and V factors in order to grow. Which culture can be used for its growth? 
A. Blood agar
B. Lowenstein-Jensen culture
C. Chocolate agar
D. TCBS agar
A

C. Chocolate agar

28
Q
Which of the following characterizes Pseudomonas aeruginosa? 
A. Gram negative non-motile bacilli
B. Produces greenish diffusible pigments
C. Non-capsulated
D. Oxidase negative
A

B. Produces greenish diffusible pigments

29
Q
Which bacteria has a cut-glass appearance upon microscopic examination? 
A. Legionella pneumophila
B. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
C. Haemophilus influenzae
D. Staphylococcus aureus
A

A. Legionella pneumophila

30
Q
Which of the following fungi multiply within macrophages in order to evade the immune system?
A. Candida albicans
B. Aspergillus flavus
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Coccoidea immitis
A

C. Histoplasma capsulatum

31
Q
Which of the following causes double zone hemolysis on blood agar by Clostridium perfringens? 
A. Alpha toxin
B. Theta toxin
C. Heat-resistant spores
D. Heat-labile spores
A

B. Theta toxin

32
Q
Which anaerobic species causes food poisoning after ingesting preformed toxins? 
A. Clostridium botulinum
B. Clostridium difficile
C. Clostridium tetani
D. Clostridium perfringens
A

A. Clostridium botulinum

33
Q

A 65-year-old man has hospital-acquired diarrhea and is on long-term use of antibiotics. Which of the following is the most likely cause to his illness?
A. Enteroinvasive E. coli
B. Vibrio cholera
C. Clostridium difficle

A

C. Clostridium difficle

34
Q
Which herpesvirus has the largest genome? 
A. Cytomegalovirus
B. Herpes simplex virus 1
C. Epstein-Barr virus
D. Varicella-zoster virus
A

A. Cytomegalovirus

35
Q

What rash characterizes smallpox rash?
A. Centripetal
B. Centrifugal
C. Disseminated

A

B. Centrifugal

36
Q
What is the mode of transmission of molluscum contagiosum? 
A. Respiratory droplets
B. Blood transfusion
C. Direct contact
D. Sexual intercourse
A

C. Direct contact

37
Q
Which organ does Giardia lamblia target? 
A. Pancreas
B. Colon
C. Duodenum
D. Jejunum
A

C. Duodenum

38
Q

What is the pathogenesis of Cryptosporidium species?
A. Attaches to and damages the cell wall of jejunum
B. Produces enterotoxin and releases it into stomach
C. Attaches to and effaces lesions in the colon

A

A. Attaches to and damages the cell wall of jejunum

39
Q
In which cells does the Leishmania parasite remain within? 
A. Hepatocytes
B. Macrophages 
C. Red blood cells 
D. Lymphocytes
A

B. Macrophages

40
Q
Which of the following is a symptom of Enterobius vermicularis?
A. Perianal itching
B. Mid-epigastric pain
C. Bronchial pneumonia
D. Anemia
A

A. Perianal itching

41
Q
A man came into the hospital with lower abdominal pain. Examination revealed a cyst formation on the right lobe of the liver. Which diagnostic method should be used for this case?
A. Biopsy of cyst
B. Serology of antigens
C. Serology of antibodies
D. Microscopy of blood
A

C. Serology of antibodies

42
Q

What is a major component of the fungal cell wall?
A. Glucan
B. Peptidoglycan
C. Phospholipids

A

A. Glucan

43
Q

Which of the following would be found in a case of invasive aspergillosis?
A. Coenocytic hyphae
B. Budding yeast cells
C. Septate hyphae

A

C. Septate hyphae

44
Q
Inhalation of which spores would give rise to infection by aspergillus? 
A. Sporangiospores
B. Conidia spores 
C. Basidiospores 
D. Arthrospores
A

B. Conidia spores

45
Q

The fungi that most commonly colonizes the oral mucosa is characterized by
A. Nonseptate hyphae
B. Yeast cells dividing by fission
C. Yeast cells with pseudohyphae

A

C. Yeast cells with pseudohyphae

46
Q
Which fungus is identified as germ-tube positive? 
A. Cryptococcus neoformans
B. Candida albicans
C. Histoplasma capsulatum
D. Blastomyces dermatitidis
A

B. Candida albicans

47
Q
A man presented with fever, chills, constipation, and light pink spots on his legs. What is the most likely causative agent?
A. Shigella
B. Salmonella typhi
C. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
D. Yersinia enterocolitica
A

B. Salmonella typhi

48
Q
An 8-year-old African boy exhibited a lesion around his mouth and later, he exhibited a mucus patch in the oropharyngeal region. What is the name of this disease?
A. Syphilis
B. Yaws 
C. Pinta 
D. Bejel
A

D. Bejel

49
Q
Which of the following fungi causes oral thrush? 
A. Candida albicans
B. Aspergillus
C. Pneumocystis jirovecii
D. Microsporum gypseum
A

A. Candida albicans