2016 micro Flashcards

1
Q

Which cell structure differentiates between klebsiella pneumonae and staphylococcus aures?

a. Cell membrane
b. Peptidoglycan
c. Periplasmic space
d. Ribosomes

A

c. Periplasmic space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What of the following is used to identify S. Aures?

a. Catalase
b. Coagulase
c. Biofilm

A

b. Coagulase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the mode of transmission of brucellosis?

a. Needle inoculation
b. Inhalation of aerosols
c. Mosquito bite
d. Drinking contaminated water

A

b. Inhalation of aerosols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Which animal is the reservoir of brucella melitensis?

a. Cows
b. Sheep
c. Dogs
d. Pigs

A

b. Sheep

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What describes endemic diseases?

a. It appears suddenly for a short period
b. It affects a community continuously
c. It affects people in hospitals
d. It affects young people

A

b. It affects a community continuously

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following permanently reside in the nose?

a. Staphylococci
b. Enterococcus
c. Mycoplasma

A

a. Staphylococci

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Which category of E.coli causes dysenteric illness?

a. Enteroinvasive e.coli
b. Enterotoxigenic e.coli
c. Enterohaemorrhagic e.coli
d. Enteroaggregative e.coli

A

a. Enteroinvasive e.coli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What is the causative agent of nasal mucosa atrophy?

a. Proteus mirabilis
b. Klebsiella pneumonia
c. Klebsiella ozanoe
d. Klebsiella oxytoca

A

c. Klebsiella ozanoe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Which virulence factor associated with legionella pneumophila is active in both macrophages and amoebas?

a. Cytotoxin
b. Metalloprotease
c. Dot/icm
d. Pmi locus

A

c. Dot/icm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What is a characteristic of legionella?

a. Excreted in urine
b. Can be transmitted from person to person
c. Can be killed by chlorine

A

a. Excreted in urine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the function of the clumping factor produced by S.aures?

A

Clot formtion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What structure helps in the adhesion of s.aures to the valve of the heart?

a. Biofilm
b. Catalase
c. Coagulase
d. Hyalorondyase

A

a. Biofilm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What makes N.gonnorehea an anti-phagocytic microbe?

a. Catalase
b. Coagulase
c. Fibrea

A

a. Catalase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What is the habitat of N. meningitidis ?

a. Anterior nares
b. Nasopharynx
c. Skin
d. Oropharynx

A

b. Nasopharynx

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which factor leads to the resistance of mycobacterium tuberculosis to gram stain?

a. Mycolic acid
b. Peptidoglycan
c. Lipoteichoic acid
d. Polysaccharide capsule

A

a. Mycolic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

What is most likely the etiologic agent of hospital acquired bloody diarrhea after therapy with ciproflaxin in a 65 year old man?

a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Clostridium tetani

A

b. Clostridium difficile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Which of the following produces double zone hemolysis on blood agar?

a. Clostridium perfringens
b. Clostridium difficile
c. Clostridium tetani

A

a. Clostridium perfringens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which of the following anaerobes is the most common cause of post-surgical abdominal abscesses/infections?

a. Clostridium botulinum
b. B. fragilis
c. P. gingivials

A

b. B. fragilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Which of these in pseudomonas causes systemic infection?

a. Pilli
b. Fimbriae
c. Flagella
d. Exo and endotoxins

A

d. Exo and endotoxins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Which antibiotic is used to treat pseudomonas aurginosa?

a. Cefotazime
b. Ceftazidime
c. Ampicillin
d. Tetracycline

A

b. Ceftazidime

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What causes HUS?

a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
b. Campylocobacter jejuni
c. Enteroaggregative E. coli

A

b. Campylocobacter jejuni

22
Q

What is a characteristic of v. parahemolyticus?

a. Non-halophilic
b. Causes food poisoning after ingestion of seafood
c. Produces yellow colonies on TCBS
d. Causes UTI

A

b. Causes food poisoning after ingestion of seafood

23
Q

What is true about v.cholera

a. Non-halophilic
b. Haplophilic
c. Produces green colonies

A

a. Non-halophilic

24
Q

What is the causative agent of peptic ulcer?

a. Enterotoxigenic E. coli
b. Helicobacter pylori
c. Campylocobacter jejuni

A

b. Helicobacter pylori

25
Q

What is a characteristic of streprococcus pneumonia?

a. Gram + diplococci optochin sensitive
b. Gram + cocci bacitracin sensitive
c. Gram + cocci in clusters catalase +
d. Gram + in chains and bile soluble

A

a. Gram + diplococci optochin sensitive

26
Q

What is the cause of community acquired pneumonia?

a. Enterococcus
b. Streptococcus pneumonia
c. Chlamydia trachomatis

A

b. Streptococcus pneumonia

27
Q

What characterizes chlamidya?

a. Grow in enriched artificial media
b. Obligate intracellular
c. No cell wall
d. Resistant to tetracycline

A

b. Obligate intracellular

28
Q

A five years old boy developed trachoma, what is the outcome?

a. Blindness
b. Endophthalmitis
c. Retinal bleeding
d. Conjunctivitis

A

a. Blindness

29
Q

A two years old neonate presented with pneumonitis, what is the etiologic agent?

a. Haemophilius influenza
b. Mycoplasma pneumonia
c. Chylamydia trachomatis
d. Streptococcus pneumonia

A

c. Chylamydia trachomatis

30
Q

Which one is stained with gram stain?

a. T. pallodum
b. Haemphilus
c. Mycoplasma

A

b. Haemphilus

31
Q

What does H. ducreyi cause?

a. HUS
b. Chancroid
c. Lymphgranuloma venereum (LGV)

A

b. Chancroid

32
Q

Which culture media contains factor X and V required by haemophilus bacteria to grow?

a. Chocolate agar
b. Blood agar

A

a. Chocolate agar

33
Q

Which etiological agent is associated with female genital and newborn infections?

a. Chalmydia psittaci
b. Klebsiella aerogenes
c. Mycoplasma hominis
d. Haemophilus ducreyi

A

c. Mycoplasma hominis

34
Q

A 31 year old south Asian farmer presented with fever, chills, fatigue, and constipation. He noticed light pink spots on his legs a couple of days after the fever started, what is the etiological agent?

a. E.coli
b. Entamoeba histolytica
c. Salmonella typhi
d. Yersinia pestis

A

c. Salmonella typhi

35
Q

What organism causes (bowl’s eye) colonies on CIN agar?

a. E.coli
b. Salmonella typhi
c. Yersinia enterocolitica
d. Yersinia pestis

A

c. Yersinia enterocolitica

36
Q

What is a major component of fungal cell wall?

a. Cholesterol
b. Glucan
c. Mycolic acid
d. Teichoic acid

A

b. Glucan

37
Q

What tissue is infected by filarial infection?

a. Blood vessels
b. Lymphatics
c. Spleen

A

b. Lymphatics

38
Q

Which of the following pathogens can be prevented by vaccination?

a. Malaria
b. Cutaneous leshmaniasis
c. Dyntestry
d. Hepatits

A

b. Cutaneous leishmaniasis

39
Q

A 23-year-old male was presented with pain in the right upper abdomen. An ultrasound showed a cystic lesion in the right lobe of the liver suggestive of a parasitic infection. What method should the doctor use to confirm the diagnosis?

a. Biopsy of cyst
b. Serology of specific antibodies

A

b. Serology of specific antibodies

40
Q

Which diagnostic method is most sensitive to detect invasive ameboic infection?

a. Blood culture
b. Stool culture
c. Blood smear
d. Serology

A

d. Serology

41
Q

What is a characteristic of foot, hand, mouth disease?

a. Caused mostly by coxsackie B virus
b. Mainly affects infants and children
c. The disease is usually severe
d. The usual incubation period is 3-6 weeks

A

b. Mainly affects infants and children

42
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of HIV?

a. Destroy CD4+ cells
b. Destroy CD8+ cells

A

a. Destroy CD4+ cells

43
Q

What type can you find in stool?

a. Hepatitis A
b. Hepatitis B
c. Hepatitis C
d. Hepatitis D

A

a. Hepatitis A

44
Q

What is the causative agent of smallpox?

a. Cowpox virus
b. Chickenpox virus
c. Variola virus

A

c. Variola virus

45
Q

MMR vaccine is

a. Conjugate
b. Live-attenuated
c. Toxoid
d. Killed

A

b. Live-attenuated

46
Q

Which virus causes pneumonia?

a. BK virus
b. HHV-7
c. Rota virus
d. Varicella virus

A

d. Varicella virus

47
Q

What is the most common colonizer of mucosal surfaces?

a. Asperigillus
b. Candida albicans
c. M.canis
d. Cryptococcus

A

b. Candida albicans

48
Q

What enzyme is a virulence factor in dermatophyte infections?

a. Chitinase
b. Keratinase
c. Laccase
d. Lipase

A

b. Keratinase

49
Q

Which of the following is from mucorles?

A

a. Rhizopus

50
Q

Which pathogen is acquired by contact with animals?

A

a. M.canis