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FB2 - 2nd year > extra micro questions > Flashcards

extra micro questions Flashcards

these are NOT from past exams

1
Q

The HSV virus reactivates via

a. retrograde flow
b. anterograde flow

A

b. anterograde flow

on a sensory neuron

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2
Q

Which of these is NOT a complication of chicken pox?

a. Pneumonia
b. Reyes syndrome
c. Guillain Barre syndrome
d. septic meningitis
e. transverse myelitis
f. cerebellar ataxi
g. encephalitis

A

d. septic meningitis

Aseptic meningitis is a complication, not septic meningitis

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3
Q

Zoster reactivation may result in facial paralysis if it occurs via

a. the trigeminal nerve
b. the cranial nerve VII and VIII

A

b. the cranial nerve VII and VIII

if the activation is via the trigeminal nerve, it may affect the eyes

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4
Q

Which these faces about Cytomegalovirus (CMV) is NOT true?

a. form multinucleated cells (owl eyes)
b. has a productive infection & a latent infection
c. has two serotypes
d. can spread via the placenta to the fetus

A

c. has two serotypes

it only has one

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5
Q

What type of malaria is a cofactor of Burkitt’s Lymphoma?

a. ovale malaria
b. falciparum malaria
c. vivax malaria

A

b. falciparum malaria

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6
Q

Which of the following does NOT cause croup?

a. influenza (an orthomyxovirus)
b. RSV (respiratory syncytial virus)
c. CMV (cytomegalovirus)
d. HMPV (Human metapneumovirus)
e. parainfluenza virus (a paramyxovirus)

A

c. CMV (cytomegalovirus)

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7
Q

Which of the following does not cause Herpetic Whitlow?

a. HSV 1
b. HSV 2
c. HSV 3

A

c. HSV 3

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8
Q

T/F: When the parotid glands of a mumps patient swell is when he can pass the virus

A

F: He can spread the virus 7 days before and after the swelling

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9
Q

What are the two liver enzymes you can test for if you think the patient has hepatitis?

A

Aspartate aminotransferase

Alaninie aminotransferase

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10
Q

How does the hepatitis virus travel from the GI to the liver?

A

Viremia

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11
Q

Which of the following can you get multiple times?

a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HEV

A

c. HEV

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12
Q

What is the only hepatitis virus that has dsDNA instead of ssRNA?

A

HBV

“Hepadna virus” is the best-known member is the hepatitis B viruses

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13
Q

Which if the following cannot be transmitted via breast feeding?

a. HBV
b. HCV

A

b. HCV

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14
Q

What does testing + for each of the following indicative of?
Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBsAg)
Hepatitis B surface antibody (HBsAb)
Hepatitis B e-antigen (HBeAg)

A

HBsAg- live virus in patient
HBsAb- recovered, immune, or vaccinated
HBeAg- tells you how active and contagious the virus is

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15
Q

HCV-specific IgG indicates

a. infectivity
b. exposure
c. immunity

A

b. exposure

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16
Q

A patient comes in passing loose fatty stools, what is the most likely diagnosis

a. entamoeba histolytica
b. gardia lamba
c. trichomonas vaginalis

A

b. gardia lamba

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17
Q

Which of the following is passed by trophozoite (the infective stage)?

a. entameoba histolytica
b. gardia lamba
c. trichomonas vaginalis

A

c. trichomonas vaginalis

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18
Q

Which of these has watery green diarrhea?

a. cyclospora
b. cryptosporidium

A

b. cryptosporidium

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19
Q

Which of these isn NOT a complication of aquairing toxoplasmosa during pregnancy?

a. Encephalitis
b. Abortion
c. Retinochoroiditis
d. Microcephaly

A

d. Microcephaly

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20
Q

Which of these malaria types does NOT cause latent infections via hypnozoites?

a. P. vivax
b. P. knowlesi
c. P. ovale

A

b. P. knowlesi

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21
Q

Why do you only find RBC’s in the ring stage in falciparum malaria?

A

The mature ones secrete antigens on the RBC surface that attach to capilaries and restrict them. So if you draw blood, you get the immature, ring stage RBC’s only.

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22
Q

Which of these Leshmaniasis stages is found inside the fly?

a. promastigotes
b. amastigotes

A

a. promastigotes

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23
Q

Which of the following is spread via phlembotomus?

a. malaria
b. leishmaniasis
c. african trypanosomiasis (African sleeping sickness)

A

b. leishmaniasis

malaria is spread by ANOPHELES

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24
Q

A patient acquires a life ling immunity after being infected with

a. cutaneous leishmaniasis
b. visceral leishmaniasis

A

a. cutaneous leishmaniasis

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25
Q

Which stage of Leishmaniasis is seen when you culture it NNN media?

a. promastigotes
b. amastigotes

A

a. promastigotes

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26
Q

Which stage of Leishmaniasis is seen when you smear it?

a. promastigotes
b. amastigotes

A

b. amastigotes

because they’re in the macrophage and don’t need the flagella

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27
Q

What can you conclude about patients that have a spreading cutaneous Leishmania infection?

A

They have low TH1 and high TH2 levels

they may have HIV, and thus a co-infection

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28
Q

Which leishmania strain is heat-sensitive?

a. L. major
b. L. mexicana
c. L. tropica
d. L. infantum

A

c. L. tropica

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29
Q

A patient is sleeping all the time, is disoriented and is malnutritioned. which of the following does he most likely have?

a. T.B. rhodesiense
b. T. cruzi

A

a. T.B. rhodesiense

sleeping sickness

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30
Q

How do you diagnose Strongyloides Stercoralis?

a. detecting the ova in the stool
b. detect the larvae in the stool

A

b. detect the larvae in the stool

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31
Q

How do you diagnose hookworms?

a. detecting the ova in the stool
b. detect the larvae in the stool

A

a. detecting the ova in the stool

hookworms= Necator Americanes and Ancylostoma dueodenale

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32
Q

Which of the following cause anemia?

a. Entrobius Vermicularis
b. Strongyloides Stercoralis
c. Necator Americanes and Ancylostoma dueodenale
d. Ascaris lumbricoides

A

c. Necator Americanes and Ancylostoma dueodenale

hookworms

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33
Q

Which of the following cause jaundice due to bile duct blockage?

a. Entrobius Vermicularis
b. Strongyloides Stercoralis
c. Necator Americanes and Ancylostoma dueodenale
d. Ascaris lumbricoides

A

d. Ascaris lumbricoides

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34
Q

What causes the double zone hemolysis of Clostridium perfringes?

a. alpha toxin
b. theta toxin
c. phospholipase C
d. catalase

A

b. theta toxin

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35
Q

C. tetani is sensative to

a. phospholipase C
b. tetanospasmin
c. tetanolysin
d. glutaraldehyde
e. aminoglycoside

A

d. glutaraldehyde

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36
Q

What is false about tetanus?

a. toxin-mediated illness
b. CNS affected via the blood and beta-motor fibers
c. causes rigid paralysis
d. prevented via DTP vaccine
e. can be caused by road traffic accidents

A

b. CNS affected via the blood and beta-motor fibers

it should be alpha, not beta motor fibers

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37
Q

Which of the Clostridium species is induced by antibiotics (ex/clindamycin)?

a. C. tetani
b. C. difficile
c. C. botulinum

A

b. C. difficile

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38
Q

T/F: if an infant with an HIV + mother tested positive, he has HIV

A

not necessarily, the child may have the HIV antibodies in his serum as a result of drinking the mom’s breast milk or by acquiring them during pregnancy or delivery

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39
Q

Which cell is destroyed by the HIV infection?

a. CD8 T cell
b. CD4 T cell

A

b. CD4 T cell

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40
Q

What is the confirmatory HIV test?

a. EIA test (enzyme immune assay)
b. western bolt test

A

b. western bolt test

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41
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with Human T-Cell Lymphotropic Viruses (HTLV-l)?

a. Adult T-cell leukemia (ATL)
b. Atypical hairy cell leukemia (HCL)
c. Tropical spastic paraparesis (TSP)
d. HTLV-I–associated myelopathy (HAM)

A

b. Atypical hairy cell leukemia (HCL)

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42
Q

Which of the following is NOT associated with Human T-cell Leukemia Virus Type II (HTLV-II)?

a. Large granular lymphocytic leukemia (LGL)
b. Atypical hairy cell leukemia (HCL)
c. Tropical spastic paraparesis (TSP)

A

c. Tropical spastic paraparesis (TSP)

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43
Q

Histology lab finds clover leaf lymphocytes, which does the patient most likely have?

a. Large granular lymphocytic leukemia (LGL)
b. Adult T-cell leukemia (ATL)
c. Tropical spastic paraparesis (TSP)

A

b. Adult T-cell leukemia (ATL)

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44
Q

Which of the following viruses cause outbreaks of acute respiratory disease in military recruits?

a. adenovirus
b. orthopoxvirus
c. parapoxvirus

A

a. adenovirus

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45
Q

The rash of smallpox is

a. centrifugal
b. centripetal

A

a. centrifugal

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46
Q

What is the causative agent of smallpox?

A

Variola, an orthopoxvirus

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47
Q

HPV type 5 and 8 results in what disease?

a. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis (EV)
b. Laryngeal papilloma
c. Intraepithelial Neoplasia

A

a. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis (EV)

B is HPV 6&11

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48
Q

JC virus causes…

a. Merkel cell carcinoma (MCC)
b. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

A

b. Progressive multifocal leukoencephalopathy (PML)

BK virus causes a

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49
Q

in an asymptomatic polio infection, the virus is restricted to the

a. Blood
b. GI tract
c. Meninges
d. Brain

A

b. GI tract

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50
Q

Which polio paralysis affects the brainstem and causes muscle paralysis?

a. Bular paralysis
b. Spinal paralysis
c. Bulbospinal paralysis

A

a. Bular paralysis

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51
Q

What does mucocutaneous leishmaniasis destroy?

a. Connective tissue
b. Cartilage
c. Skin

A

b. Cartilage

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52
Q

A man presented with urethral discharge. What three species cause this?

A 
Mycoplasma hominis 
(acellular discharge)

Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(discharge has diplococci cells)

Chalmydia trachomatis
(acellular discharge)
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53
Q

condyloma accuminata is caused by

a. adenovirus
b. CMV
c. HPV

A

c. HPV

condyloma accuminata = genetal warts

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54
Q

Which of the following tapeworms has hooks and hosts their cysts in pigs?

a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium

A

b. Taenia solium

spreads by eating the cysts

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55
Q

Which of the following cause cysticercosis?

a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus multilocularis

A

b. Taenia solium

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56
Q

Which of the following is most likely to cause anaphylactic shock?

a. Taenia saginata
b. Taenia solium
c. Echinococcus granulosus
d. Echinococcus multilocularis

A

c. Echinococcus granulosus

grows hydatid and they may rupture

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57
Q

Which of the following causes urinary schistosomiasis?

a. S mansoni
b. S japonicum
c. S hematobium
d. S mekongi

A

c. S hematobium

the rest are GI schisto

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58
Q

how is schistosomiasis transmitted?

a. fecal-oral route
b. through skin
c. sexually transmitted

A

b. through skin

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59
Q

Which of the following causes tropical pulmonary eosinophilia?

a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Onchocerca volvulus
c. Dracunculus medinensis

A

a. Wuchereria bancrofti

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60
Q

In which of these does the fly insert a larvae into the skin?

a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Onchocerca volvulus

A

b. Onchocerca volvulus

A= microfilarIae

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61
Q

Which of the following does NOT go through antigen variation to evade the immune system?

a. Trypanosoma Cruzi
b. Schistosomes
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Gardia lamblia
e. Nisseria gonorrhoeae

A

b. Schistosomes

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62
Q

Which of these release proteases to cleave IgG?

a. Trypanosoma Cruzi
b. Gardia lamblia
c. Plasmodium falciparum
d. Schistosomes

A

d. Schistosomes

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63
Q

For which of these is serology not useful?

a. Cryptosporidium
b. E. histolytica
c. Toxoplasmosis

A

a. Cryptosporidium

Gardia lambila & visceral leishmaniasis too

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64
Q

What is Chaga’s disease and what causes it?

A

A bug injects trypomastigotes and they travel to reticuloendothelial cells and smooth muscle cells to cause inflammation.
Caused by Trypanosoma Cruzi

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65
Q

What is the grouping of Neisseria spp.?

a. gram-positive cocci
b. gram-negative cocci
c. gram-positive bacilli
d. gram-negative bacilli

A

b. gram-negative cocci

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66
Q

Antitoxins are useless against…

a. cytotoxins
b. neurotoxins
c. endotoxins
d. enterotoxins

A

c. endotoxins

antitoxins are antibodies made to stop exotoxins; useless against endotoxins

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67
Q

Which of the following is novobiocin susceptible?

a. staph saprophyticus
b. staph epidermidis

A

b. staph epidermidis

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68
Q

Which of the following is optochin resistant and bile insoluble?

a. strept viridans
b. strept pneumoniae

A

a. strept viridans

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69
Q

Which of the following completely lyse RBC’s?

a. alpha hemolytic
b. beta hemolytic
c. gamma hemolytic

A

b. beta hemolytic

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70
Q

Which of the following causes tonsilitis?

a. beta-hemolytic group A
b. beta-hemolytic group B
c. beta-hemolytic group C
d. beta-hemolytic group F

A

c. beta-hemolytic group C (and group D)

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71
Q

Which of the following smells like caramel and causes abscesses?

a. beta-hemolytic group A
b. beta-hemolytic group B
c. beta-hemolytic group C
d. beta-hemolytic group F

A

d. beta-hemolytic group F

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72
Q

Which of the following has the Panton-Valentine Leucocidin to kill PMN (polymorphonuclear neutrophils)?

a. strept viridans
b. strept pneumoniae
c. staph aureus
b. staph epidermidis

A

c. staph aureus

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73
Q

What are complications of S. pyogenes?

A

Acute rheumatic fever after a throat infection

Acute glomerulonephritis after a throat or skin infection

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74
Q

Which of these is only available in the inferior mesenteric vein?

a. S. Hematobium
b. S. Mansoni
c. S. Japonicum

A

b. S. Mansoni

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75
Q

Which of these cause acute diarrhea after shellfish consumption?

a. V. cholera
b. V. parahemolyticus
c. V. vulnificus

A

c. V. vulnificus

parahemolyticus = explosive diarrhea

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76
Q

What type of shock does V. cholera cause?

a. cardiac shock
b. hypovolemic shock
c. anaphylactic shock

A

b. hypovolemic shock

diarrhea causes low volume

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77
Q

What is it called when Mycobacterium spreads to the lymph node and proliferates?

a. Ghon focus
b. Ghon complex (aka Primary complex)

A

b. Ghon complex

Ghon focus = only in the lung

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78
Q

Which of the following is used by mycobacterium for tubercle formation?

a. oxygen radical detoxification
b. antigen 85 complex
c. the high lipid in the cell wall

A

b. antigen 85 complex

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79
Q

Which of these has a type 4 pilus?

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Neisseria meningitidis

A

b. Neisseria meningitidis

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80
Q

Which of these N. meningitidis serogroups does not have a vaccine?

a. A
b. C
c. W-135
d. Y

A

d. Y

serogroups X, Y, & Z are all rare and don’t have vaccines

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81
Q

Which of these is does a person coming back from Mecca most likely have?

a. Neisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Neisseria meningitidis
c. Moraxella Catarrhalis

A

b. Neisseria meningitidis

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82
Q

Which is the most infectious serotype of Legionella?

a. L. longbeachae
b. L. pneumophila

A

b. L. pneumophila

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83
Q

What color does Legionella appear under UV light?

a. gray-white
b. blue-green
c. blue-white

A

c. blue-white

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84
Q

How does the legionella enter a macrohage?

a. via a receptor
b. actin dependent entry

A

b. actin dependent entry

enters amoeba via receptor

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85
Q

what’s ppGpp and how does it relate to legionella?

A

ppGpp is Guanosine pentaphosphate, and it builds up when amino acids are low in a cell. So legionella uses the amino acids in a macrophage that it invades, and ppGpp is produced. The ppGpp regulates genes for amino acid uptake synthesis.

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86
Q

What does hyaluronidase do?

A

breaks down hyaluronic acid, which holds together connective tissue

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87
Q

Which of these does not cause infective endocarditis?

a. staph saprophyticus
b. staph epidermidis
c. staph aureus

A

a. staph saprophyticus

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88
Q

which of these has a hyaluronic acid capsule?

a. strept pneumoniae
b. Strept pyogenes

A

b. Strept pyogenes

pneumoniae has a polysaccharide capsule

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89
Q

What bacteria can be diagnosed by urea breath test?

A

helicobacter pylori

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90
Q

Why does Helicobacter pylori cause peptic ulcers?

A

the urase produces ammonia that acts to make ionic changes to the mucus layer. proteases then degrade that mucus.

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91
Q

what two stains are used for mycobacterium?

A

ziehl-neelsen stain

auramine stain

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92
Q

Which mycobacterium spp has the longest incubation period?

a. M. kansasi
b. M. avium-intracellulare
c. M. leprae
d. M. marinum

A

c. M. leprae

5-7 years incubation in young adults

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93
Q

Which of these N. meningitidis serogroups causes epidemic outbreaks?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. W-135

A

b. B

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94
Q

Which of these N. meningitidis serogroups causes epidemic meningitis?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. W-135

A

a. A (occurs in Africa)

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95
Q

How does Moraxella Catarrhalis initially attach to the nasopharynx?

a. slime
b. polysaccharide capsule
c. lipo-oligosaccharide

A

c. lipo-oligosaccharide

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96
Q

Which of the following legionella virulence factors stop lysosome fusion?

a. mip
b. dot/icm
c. mak
d. mil
e. pmi

A

b. dot/icm

defective organelle trafficking

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97
Q

Which of the following legionella virulence factors aids in infection?

a. mip
b. dot/icm
c. mak
d. mil
e. pmi

A

a. mip

macrophage infectivity promoter

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98
Q

What is pontiac fever and what causes it?

A

its a mild upper respiratory infection (lungs not involved) that resembles acute influenza, caused by legionella

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99
Q

Which of these methods does not kill legionella?

a. gamma rays treatment
b. monochloramine
c. UV light treatment
d. heating it to 60 degrees

A

a. gamma rays treatment

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100
Q

which of the following causes a dry and no painful penile ulcer?

a. Treponema pallidum
b. Haemophilus ducreyi

A

a. Treponema pallidum (causes syphilis)

Haemophilus ducreyi causes a wet and painful ulcer

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101
Q

What factors do Haemophilus species need to grow? Which agar can be used?

A

they need factors X and V, & NAD

chocolate agar is used to culture them

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102
Q

Which H. influenzae type is associated with invasive infections?

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E
f. F

A

b. B

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103
Q

Which of the following exacerbates chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD)?

a. invasive H. influenzae infections
b. non-invasive H. influenzae infections

A

b. non-invasive H. influenzae

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104
Q

Which of the following can lead to blindness?

a. Chlamydial opthalmia neonatorum
b. Adult inclusion conjunctivitis
c. Trachoma

A

c. Trachoma

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105
Q

Which of the following causes Lymphgranuloma venereum (LGV)?

a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Chlamydia Psittaci
c. Chlamydia Pneumoniae

A

a. Chlamydia trachomatis

LGV = chronic infection of the lymphatic system that may lead to infertility in women

106
Q

Which of the following does a bird handler most likely have?

a. Chlamydia trachomatis
b. Chlamydia Psittaci
c. Chlamydia Pneumoniae

A

b. Chlamydia Psittaci

107
Q

Which of the following causes hemolytic anemia?

a. Mycoplasma hominis
b. Ureaplasma urealyticum
c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

A

c. Mycoplasma pneumoniae

108
Q

Which of the following clostridium difficile infections cause bloody diarrhea?

a. antibiotic associated diarrhea
b. antibiotic associated colitis
c. pseudomembranous colitis

A

c. pseudomembranous colitis

109
Q

infections after abdominal surgery are caused by…

A

bacterides fragilis

110
Q

peptostreptococcus micros causes

A

brain abscesses

111
Q

Which if the following is NOT caused by Brucella spp.?

a. granuloma
b. septicemia
c. abscess
d. undulant fever

A

b. septicemia

112
Q

is there human to human spread of Brucella spp.?

A

no, individuals usually get the bacteria via animal contact

aerosol, broken skin, ingestion

113
Q

Which of the following species cannot cause respiratory infection (pertussis)?

a. B. pertussis
b. B. bronchiseptica
c. B. parapertussis
d. B. holmesii

A

b. B. bronchiseptica

this only causes pertussis in animals, which can later be picked up by humans

114
Q

Which of these cause hypoglycemia?

a. tracheal cytotoxin
b. pertussis toxin
c. adenylate cyclase toxin
d. dermonecrotic toxin

A

b. pertussis toxin

115
Q

Which of the following stops cilia movement and regeneration of damaged cells?

a. tracheal cytotoxin
b. pertussis toxin
c. adenylate cyclase toxin
d. dermonecrotic toxin

A

a. tracheal cytotoxin

116
Q

Which of the following is used to culture corynebacterium diphtheriae?

a. bordet-Gengou medium
b. tinsdale agar

A

b. tinsdale agar

a is used bordetella spp.

117
Q

when does the second viremia occur in chickenpox?

a. when the virus is replicating in the regional lymph nodes
b. when the virus is replicating in the reticulo-endothelial system
c. when the lesions are crusting

A

b. when the virus is replicating in the reticulo-endothelial system

(a= primary viremia)

118
Q

What is Guillian barre syndrome? Which virus is it associated with?

A

it occurs when the body is attacking the nerves and the myelin surrounding it. Associated with varicella-zoster virus

119
Q

Where can CMV not be found?

a. T-lymphocytes
b. CD34+ progenitor cells
c. secretions
d. liver
e. spleen
f. epithelial cells (cervix and testes)

120
Q

Which of the following can only infect humans?

a. influenza A
b. influenza B

A

b. influenza B

121
Q

Which of the following causes pandemics?

a. antigenic shift
b. antigenic drift

A

a. antigenic shift

122
Q

Which of the following is characterized by Koplik spots?

a. RSV
b. HMPV
c. Measles
d. Mumps

A

c. Measles

123
Q

Which of these infants is least likely to have RSV?

a. immunocompromized infant
b. infant with pulmonary disease
c. infant with congenital heart disease
d. infant with protein deficiency

A

d. infant with protein deficiency

124
Q

Which of these is causes acute, self-limiting hepatitis?

a. HAV
b. HEV
c. HCV
d. HDV

125
Q

which TWO of the following may lead to hepatocellular carcinoma?

a. HAV
b. HBV
c. HCV
d. HDV
e. HEV

A

b. HBV
&
c. HCV

126
Q

Which of these is a defective virus?

a. HAV
b. HEV
c. HCV
d. HDV

127
Q

Which of these is the adenovirus NOT capable of infecting?

a. eyes
b. GI tract
c. spleen
d. urinary bladder
e. respiratory tract

128
Q

Which of the following doesn’t have a centrifugal rash?

a. variola
b. measles
c. chicken pox

A

c. chicken pox

129
Q

Which of the following has reservoirs in rats, squirrels, and dogs?

a. cowpox
b. monkeypox
c. orf
d. polyomavirus WU/KI

A

b. monkeypox

cowpox reservoir = rats only

130
Q

Which of these cause milkers nodules?

a. cowpox
b. pseudocowpox

A

b. pseudocowpox

131
Q

Which of these cause follicular papules with keratin?

a. trichodysplasia spinulosa virus
b. pseudocowpox
c. cowpox
d. polyomavirus WU/KI

A

a. trichodysplasia spinulosa virus (TSPyV)

132
Q

Which of these cause pustular dermatitis?

a. cowpox
b. pseudocowpox
c. orf
d. polyomavirus WU/KI

A

c. orf

contact with sheep causes this. treat with cidofovir

133
Q

Which of the following enteroviruses doesn’t cause myocarditis?

a. Coxsackie A
b. Coxsackie B
c. Echoviruses
d. Polio

134
Q

Which of the following enteroviruses doesn’t cause febrile exanthema (fever and rash)?

a. Coxsackie A
b. Coxsackie B
c. Echoviruses
d. Polio

A

d. Polio

its also the only one that has a vaccine

135
Q

Which causes flaccid paralysis?

a. Bular paralysis
b. Spinal paralysis
c. Bulbospinal paralysis

A

b. Spinal paralysis

136
Q

How does the poliovirus spread throughout the body?

A

it’s an “asymptomatic” infection when in the GI tract, then it becomes abortive poliomyelitis when it reaches the blood and causes fever. After that, it becomes “non-paralytic poliomyelitis” and reaches the meninges and causes a stiff neck. Then it reaches the brain and causes paralysis, “paralytic poliomyelitis”

137
Q

Which of the following is NOT caused by Coxsackie B?

a. viral (aseptic) meningitis
b. herpangina
c. hand, foot, and mouth disease
d. enterovirus carditis

A

c. hand, foot, and mouth disease

Caused by coxsackie A and echovirus

138
Q

You suspect a patient has Brucella, which of the following do you NOT culture?

a. blood
b. urine
c. bone marrow

139
Q

whooping cough is a symptom of which Bordetella spp.?

a. B. pertussis
b. B. holmesii
c. B. parapertussis

A

a. B. pertussis

140
Q

Which of the following is associated with Kaposi sarcoma?

a. HHV4
b. HHV5
c. HHV7
d. HHV8

141
Q

which of the following predisposes to streptococcus pneumonia?

a. G6PD
b. sickle cell anemia
c. duffy blood group antigen deficiency

A

b. sickle cell anemia

142
Q

Which of the following causes enteric fever?

a. shigella
b. typhoid salmonella
c. non-typhoid salmonella

A

b. typhoid salmonella

143
Q

Which of the following does NOT cause antibiotic-associated hemorrhagic colitis?

a. shigella dysenteriae
b. clostridium difficile
c. klebsiella oxytoca

A

a. shigella dysenteriae

it is caused by the other two organisms

144
Q

Which of these attaches EPEC into the intestinal mucosa?

a. eae gene
b. bfp gene
c. lol gene

A

b. bfp gene

145
Q

Which of the following aid in stone formation in the urinary tract?

a. proteus spp.
b. shigella spp.
c. klebsiella spp.

A

a. proteus spp.

it makes urease, which makes the urine more basic and can lead to the formation of crystals

146
Q

Which of the following E. coli spp. occurs in industrialised countries?

a. Enterotoxigenic
b. Enteroinvasive
c. Enteropathogenic
d. Enterohaemorrhagic
e. Enteroaggregative

A

d. Enterohaemorrhagic

147
Q

Which of the following E. coli spp. affects kids?

a. Enterotoxigenic
b. Enteroinvasive
c. Enteropathogenic
d. Enterohaemorrhagic
e. Enteroaggregative

A

c. Enteropathogenic

148
Q

Which of the following E. coli spp. produces cholera-like diarrhea?

a. Enterotoxigenic
b. Enteroinvasive
c. Enteropathogenic
d. Enterohaemorrhagic
e. Enteroaggregative

A

a. Enterotoxigenic

149
Q

peyer’s patches are seen in patients with

A

S. typhi

rose spots are also a symptom

150
Q

Which of the following shigella spp can ferment lactose if incubated for 24 hours (it also occurs mainly in developed countries)?

a. Shigella dysenteriae
b. Shigella flexneri
c. Shigella boydii
d. Shigella sonnei

A

d. Shigella sonnei

151
Q

Which of the following produces diffusable pigments?

a. Burkholderia mallei
b. Burkholderia pseudomallei
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

A

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

152
Q

which of the following causes Melioidosis (aka Whitmore’s disease)?

a. Burkholderia mallei
b. Burkholderia pseudomallei
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Burkholderia maltophilia
e. Burkholderia cepacia

A

b. Burkholderia pseudomallei

aquired through the skin & presents as fever

153
Q

which of the following causes pneumonia in people with CF?

a. Burkholderia mallei
b. Burkholderia pseudomallei
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Burkholderia maltophilia
e. Burkholderia cepacia

A

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

also causes swimmer’s ear

154
Q

When kids that have sickle cell anemia get ___, they are more prone to osteomyelitis

a. shigella
b. typhoid salmonella
c. non-typhoid salmonella

A

c. non-typhid salmonella

155
Q

Which of these shigella toxins mediate watery diarrhea?

a. shEt 1
b. shEt 2
c. shiga toxin
d. A&B

A

d. A&B

shiga toxin = HUS

156
Q

Which of the following develop bulls eye colonies in CIN agar?

a. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
b. Yersinia enterocolitica
c. Yersinia pestis

A

b. Yersinia enterocolitica

causes reiters syndrome

157
Q

Which of the following caused the bubonic, septicemic, and pneumonic plagues?

a. Yersinia pseudotuberculosis
b. Yersinia enterocolitica
c. Yersinia pestis

A

c. Yersinia pestis

158
Q

Which best describes YOPs (Yersinia outer membrane protein)?

a. allows attachment to endothelium
b. inhibits phagocytosis and cytokine production
c. contribute to intracellular survival

A

b. inhibits phagocytosis and cytokine production

159
Q

Which of the following does NOT cause reactive arthritis (aka reiters syndrome)?

a. Yersinia enterocolitica
b. Campylobacter spp.
c. Enteroinvasive E. coli

A

c. Enteroinvasive E. coli

the other two cause reiter’s

160
Q

Which of the following is diagnosed with flourescent treponemal antibody test?

a. Treponema carateum
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Treponema pertenue
d. Treponema endemicum

A

b. Treponema pallidum

161
Q

Which TWO mainly effect children?

a. Treponema carateum
b. Treponema pallidum
c. Treponema pertenue
d. Treponema endemicum

A

c. Treponema pertenue (causeing Yaws)
&
d. Treponema endemicum (causing Bejel)

162
Q

Which TWO of the following is spread via ticks?

a. Borrelia duttoni
b. Borrelia recurrentis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi

A

a. Borrelia duttoni
&
c. Borrelia burgdorferi

163
Q

Which of the following is spread via lice?

a. Borrelia duttoni
b. Borrelia recurrentis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi

A

b. Borrelia recurrentis

louse born

164
Q

Which of the following causes erythema chronicum migrans (skin rash)?

a. Borrelia duttoni
b. Borrelia recurrentis
c. Borrelia burgdorferi

A

c. Borrelia burgdorferi

165
Q

Which of the following leptospira spp. may cause jaundice & renalfailure?

a. L. canicola
b. L. interrogans
c. L. icterohaemorrhagia

A

b. L. interrogans

166
Q

Which of the following leptospira spp. is found in rats?

a. L. canicola
b. L. interrogans
c. L. icterohaemorrhagia

A

c. L. icterohaemorrhagia

167
Q

what fungal cell wall component is anti-inflammatory?

a. mannan
b. beta glucan
c. chitin

168
Q

What is ergosterol?

a. part of the fungal cells wall
b. part of the fungal plasma membrane that gives it fluidity and structure
c. a capsule that surrounds and protects the fungus

A

c. part of the fungal plasma membrane that gives it fluidity and structure

169
Q

What is true about fungi?

a. they rely on ingestion to get their nutrients
b. they absorb nutrients via mycelium
c. the bigger the spore size, the higher the lung invasion
d. the become mold at 37 degrees and yeast at 25

A

b. they absorb nutrients via mycelium

170
Q

what the difference between these two sexual spores?

basidiospores VS ascospores

A

basidiospores are produced outside the cell while ascospores are produced inside the cell (in a ascus structure)

171
Q

What agar do you use to culture fungi?

A

Sabouraud agar

172
Q

Which of the following causes invasive mycoses?

a. Microsporum
b. Mucorales
c. Trichophyton
d. Epidermophyton

A

b. Mucorales

173
Q

Which of the following causes cutaneous mycoses?

a. Aspergillus
b. Mucorales
c. Fusarium
d. Trichophyton

A

d. Trichophyton

174
Q

Which of the following is associated with diabetes mellitus?

a. Microsporum
b. Trichophyton
c. Mucorales
d. Epidermophyton

A

c. Mucorales

175
Q

Which of the following fusariosis diseases do immunocompetent patients get?

a. invasive & disseminated
b. localized & superficial

A

b. localized & superficial

immunosuppressed get a

176
Q

Which of the following is seen in the CT scan of a neutropenic patient with aspergillosis?

a. air crescent
b. halo
c. peace sign
d. star

A

b. halo

air crescent appears after neutropenia recovery

177
Q

Which of the following is likely to occur after abdominal surgery?

a. Candidiasis
b. Cryptococcosis
c. Histoplasmosis
d. Coccidioidomycosis

A

a. Candidiasis

also causes oral thursh

178
Q

Which of the following is found in decaying wood and can infects the brain and meninges?

a. Cryptococcosis neoformans
b. Cryptococcosis gattii

A

b. Cryptococcosis gattii

179
Q

Which of the following is diagnosed by niger seed agar?

a. Candidiasis
b. Cryptococcosis
c. Coccidioidomycosis
d. Blastomycosis

A

b. Cryptococcosis

180
Q

Which of the following is diagnosed germ tubes?

a. Candidiasis
b. Cryptococcosis
c. Histoplasmosis
d. Coccidioidomycosis

A

a. Candidiasis

181
Q

Which of the following is diagnosed w/CGB medium?

a. Candidiasis
b. Cryptococcosis neoformans
c. Cryptococcosis gattii
d. Coccidioidomycosis

A

c. Cryptococcosis gattii

182
Q

Which of the following is characterized by the infection of phagocytic cells of the reticuloendothelial system?

a. Cryptococcosis
b. histoplasmosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Penicilliosis

A

b. histoplasmosis

183
Q

A patient recently traveled to asia/southern china, which of these does he most likely have?

a. Histoplasmosis
b. Coccidioidomycosis
c. Blastomycosis
d. Penicilliosis

A

d. Penicilliosis (talaromycosis)

184
Q

whats the window phase for each of the following?

a. hepatitis B
b. HIV

A 
a =  8 months
b = 3 to 4 weeks
185
Q

Which of these malaria stages is injected by the fly?

a. merozoites
b. sporozoite
c. hypnozoites

A

b. sporozoite

186
Q

Which of these malaria stages is found in the blood?

a. merozoites
b. sporozoite
c. hypnozoites

A

a. merozoites

187
Q

What’s the major target of Cryptosporidium?

a. jejunum
b. ileum
c. duodenum

A

a. jejunum

188
Q

Which of the following is lactose-nonfermenting?

a. Klebsella
b. Proteus
c. E. Coli

A

b. Proteus

the other two show pink on McConkey agar

189
Q

Which of the following does NOT cause meningitis in newborns?

a. Klebsella
b. Proteus
c. E. Coli

A

a. Klebsella

190
Q

Which of the following proteus spp. cross react with rickettsiae?

a. P. mirabilis
b. P. rettgeri
c. P. vulgaris

A

c. P. vulgaris

191
Q

Which of the following Klebsella spp. causes antibiotic-associated haemorrhagic colitis?

a. K. aerogenes
b. K. rhinoscleromatis
c. K. ozaenae
d. K. oxytoca

A

d. K. oxytoca

192
Q

Which of the following Klebsella spp. causes atrophic rhinitis (mucosal wasing)?

a. K. aerogenes
b. K. rhinoscleromatis
c. K. ozaenae
d. K. oxytoca

A

c. K. ozaenae

193
Q

Which of the following are more likely to develop HUS after being infected with Shigella dysenteriae?

a. child
b. adult
c. elderly

A

a. child

renal failure, hemolytic anemia, & thrombocytopenia

194
Q

which of the following has higher mortality in patients with hematological malignancies?

a. Burkholderia mallei
b. Burkholderia pseudomallei
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Burkholderia maltophilia
e. Burkholderia cepacia

A

d. Burkholderia maltophilia

195
Q

which of the following effects people with hematological malignancies?

a. Burkholderia mallei
b. Burkholderia pseudomallei
c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa
d. Burkholderia maltophilia
e. Burkholderia cepacia

A

c. Pseudomonas aeruginosa

196
Q

Which Treponema spp. causes Yaws?

a. T. pallidum
b. T. pertenue
c. T. endemicum
d. T. carateum

A

b. T. pertenue

197
Q

Which Treponema spp. causes pinta?

a. T. pallidum
b. T. pertenue
c. T. endemicum
d. T. carateum

A

d. T. carateum

198
Q

Antibodies against which antigen are used to detect treponema in a non-specific test?

A

cardiolipin, it’s a phospholipid that is released from our cells due to damage

199
Q

Which Treponema spp. causes hypopigmentation?

a. T. pallidum
b. T. pertenue
c. T. endemicum
d. T. carateum

A

d. T. carateum

200
Q

Which Treponema spp. causes bejel?

a. T. pallidum
b. T. pertenue
c. T. endemicum
d. T. carateum

A

c. T. endemicum

bejel = endemic syphilis

201
Q

Which of the following is more powdery or cottony?

a. mold
b. yeast

202
Q

Which of the following describes coenocytic hypae?

a. septate
b. sparsely septate
c. non-septate

A

c. non-septate

203
Q

What organism causes black bread mold?

a. Rhizopus stolonifer
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis

A

a. Rhizopus stolonifer

204
Q

Which of two of the following are dimorphic fungi?

a. Rhizopus stolonifer
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis
d. Aspergillus fumigatus

A

b. Histoplasma capsulatum
&
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis

205
Q

Which of the following is naturally found in the human lung?

a. pneumocystis jirovecii
b. cryptococcus neoformans
c. Blastomyces dermatitidis

A

a. pneumocystis jirovecii

206
Q

Which of the following has a white and cottony morphology that develops into a pink or violet color?

a. Aspergillus
b. Mucorales
c. Fusarium
d. Trichophyton

A

c. Fusarium

207
Q

Which of the following is found in pigeon excreta?

a. Candidiasis
b. Cryptococcosis neoformans
c. Cryptococcosis gattii
d. Coccidioidomycosis

A

b. Cryptococcosis neoformans

208
Q

Which of the following is found in decaying wood?

a. Candidiasis
b. Cryptococcosis neoformans
c. Cryptococcosis gattii
d. Coccidioidomycosis

A

c. Cryptococcosis gattii

209
Q

Which of the following is viewed by india ink preparation?

a. Candidiasis
b. Cryptococcosis neoformans
c. Cryptococcosis gattii
d. Coccidioidomycosis

A

b. Cryptococcosis neoformans

210
Q

Which of two of the following is an intracellular fungi that divides via fission?

a. Rhizopus stolonifer
b. Histoplasma capsulatum
c. Talaromyces marneffei
d. Aspergillus fumigatus

A

c. Talaromyces marneffei

211
Q

Which if the following has more peptidoglycan?

a. gram +
b. gram -
c. mycoplasma

212
Q

Which of the following is used to treat MSSA (methicillin susceptible staph aureus)?

a. vancomycin
b. cloxacillin
c. novobiocin

A

b. cloxacillin

213
Q

Which of the following is the most common cause of blood culture contamination?

a. Staph epidermidis
b. Staph aureus
b. Staph saprophyticus

A

a. Staph epidermidis

214
Q

Which of the following causes dental caries?

a. strept pneumoniae
b. strept agalactiae
c. strept viridans
d. Staph epidermidis

A

c. strept viridans

215
Q

Which of the following causes toxic shock-like syndrome?

a. strept pneumoniae
b. staph aureus
c. staph pyogens

A

c. staph pyogens

toxic shock syndrome= staph aureus

216
Q

Which of the following causes neonatal disease?

a. strept pneumoniae
b. strept agalactiae
c. staph pyogens
d. Staph epidermidis

A

b. strept agalactiae

217
Q

Which of the following causes flesh-eating bacteria and scarlet fever?

a. strept pneumoniae
b. strept agalactiae
c. staph pyogens
d. Staph epidermidis

A

c. staph pyogens

218
Q

Which of these is a non-halphilic vibrio?

a. V. cholera
b. V. parahemolyticus
c. V. vulnificus

A

a. V. cholera

219
Q

Which media is used to culture V. cholera?

a. TCBS media
b. charcoal based media

A

TCBS media (thiosulphate citrate bile sucrose agar)

220
Q

Which of two of the following causes explosive diarrhea?

a. V. cholera
b. V. parahemolyticus
c. V. vulnificus

A

b. V. parahemolyticus

221
Q

Which of these causes irreversible CAMP activation?

a. V. cholera
b. V. parahemolyticus
c. V. vulnificus

A

a. V. cholera

222
Q

Which of the V. cholera antigens causes epidemics & bloody diarrhea?

a. O1 antigen
b. non-O1 antigen

A

b. non-O1 antigen

223
Q

What does a long-standing infection of H. pylori cause?

a. peptic ulcer
b. nausea
c. gastric cancer
d. urase breath

A

c. gastric cancer

224
Q

Which of the following stains that are used for mycobacterium require a methylene blue counterstain?

a. Auramine stain
b. Fluorochrome stain
c. Ziehl-Neelsen stain

A

c. Ziehl-Neelsen stain

Auramine stain = Fluorochrome stain

225
Q

Which of the following produces a false positive in the tuberculin skin test?

a. HIV
b. NTM

A

b. NTM

NTM= Nontuberculous mycobacteria

226
Q

Which of the following has little or no pigment when grown in the dark but is highly pigmented when grown in light (photochromogenic)?

a. M. scrofulaceum
b. M. avium-intracellulare
c. M. kansasi

A

c. M. kansasi

227
Q

Which Mycobacterium spp. is scotochromogen (produces pigment under dark and light)?

a. M. scrofulaceum
b. M. avium-intracellulare
c. M. kansasi

A

a. M. scrofulaceum

228
Q

Which Mycobacterium spp. is scotochromogen (produces pigment under bothdark and light)?

a. M. scrofulaceum
b. M. avium-intracellulare
c. M. kansasi

A

a. M. scrofulaceum

229
Q

Which of the following have is localized in lesions?

a. Lepromatous leprosy
b. Tuberculoid leprosy

A

b. Tuberculoid leprosy

230
Q

Which of the following has type 4 pilus to attach to the nasopharynx?

a. Nisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Nisseria meningitidis
c. Moraxella catarrhalis

A

b. Nisseria meningitidis

231
Q

Which of the following has LOS to attach to the nasopharynx?

a. Nisseria gonorrhoeae
b. Nisseria meningitidis
c. Moraxella catarrhalis

A

c. Moraxella catarrhalis

232
Q

Which of the following is the most common invasive disease caused by Haemophilus influenza?

a. epiglottitis
b. pneumonia
c. septic arthritis
d. meningitis

A

d. meningitis

233
Q

Which of the following causes epidemic conjunctivitis?

a. Haemophilus influenza
b. Haemophilus aegypticus
c. Haemophilus ducreyi

A

b. Haemophilus aegypticus

234
Q

Which of the following is the infective form of chlamydia?

a. elementary bodies
b. reticular bodies

A

a. elementary bodies

reticular = replicate

235
Q

Which of the following is visualized via Chinese fried egg method?

a. mycoplasma
b. chlamydia
c. legionella
d. niesseria

A

a. mycoplasma

236
Q

Which of the following causes descending paralysis?

a. C. tetani
b. C. difficile
c. C. botulinum

A

c. C. botulinum

237
Q

Which of the following is treated with oral vancomycin?

a. C. tetani
b. C. difficile
c. C. botulinum

A

b. C. difficile

238
Q

Which of the following is most likely in canned food?

a. C. tetani
b. C. difficile
c. C. botulinum

A

c. C. botulinum

239
Q

Which of the following effects the CNS?

a. C. tetani
b. C. difficile
c. C. botulinum

A

a. C. tetani

c= the PNS

240
Q

Which of the following foods shouldn’t be eaten by a person with EBV?

a. potatoes
b. fish
c. canned food

A

b. fish

nitrosamines in fish food is associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma, which is more common in EBV patients

241
Q

Which of the following hepatitis infections is more likely to lead to recovery?

a. super-infection
b. co-infection

A

b. co-infection

242
Q

Which of the following infections is most likely to lead to chronic hepatitis?

a. patient has HBV then get HDV on top of it
b. patient gets both HBV & HDV simultaneously

A

a. patient has HBV then get HDV on top of it

this describes a super-infection

243
Q

What does Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) cause in adults

a. bronchitis
b. bronchiolitis

A

a. bronchitis

244
Q

What does Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) cause in infants

a. bronchitis
b. bronchiolitis

A

b. bronchiolitis

245
Q

Parainfluenza virus causes

a. bronchitis
b. bronchiolitis

A

b. bronchiolitis

246
Q

Which of the following viruses causes shipyard eye (aka epidemic keratoconjunctivitis)?

a. adenovirus
b. orthopoxvirus
c. parapoxvirus

A

a. adenovirus

247
Q

In which of these can you find a ring or horseshoe-shaped coatings in the teats of the infected cow?

a. cowpox
b. pseudocowpox

A

b. pseudocowpox

causes milkers nodules

248
Q

Which TWO of the following are more likely in people who are sun-exposed?

a. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis (EV)
b. Molluscum contagiosum virus (MCV)
c. Merkel cell Polyomavirus (MCV)

A

a. Epidermodysplasia verruciformis (EV)
&
c. Merkel cell Polyomavirus (MCV)

249
Q

Which of the following enteroviruses dos NOT cause herpangina?

a. Coxsackie A
b. Coxsackie B
c. Echoviruses
d. Polio

250
Q

Which of the following enteroviruses dos NOT cause hand, food, & mouth disease?

a. Coxsackie A
b. Coxsackie B
c. Echoviruses
d. Polio

251
Q

Which of the following typically presents as flask-shaped ulcers in the sigmoid colon & rectum?

a. entamoeba histolytica
b. gardia lamba
c. trichomonas vaginalis

A

a. entamoeba histolytica

252
Q

Which of the following organisms uptakes bile salts, thus interfering with pancreatic lipase?

a. entamoeba histolytica
b. gardia lamba
c. trichomonas vaginalis

A

b. gardia lamba

253
Q

Which of the following organisms has no cystic stage?

a. entamoeba histolytica
b. gardia lamba
c. trichomonas vaginalis

A

c. trichomonas vaginalis

254
Q

Which of these has watery diarrhea?

a. cyclospora
b. cryptosporidium

A

a. cyclospora

255
Q

Which of the following only shows ring stage cells in peripheral blood?

a. P. vivax
b. P. knowlesi
c. P. ovale
d. P. falciparum

A

d. P. falciparum

256
Q

which of the following is a patient with duffy blood group antigen deficiency immune to?

a. P. vivax
b. P. knowlesi
c. P. ovale
d. P. falciparum

A

a. P. vivax

the parasite need the Duffy blood group antigen to enter

257
Q

Which of the following is called “Kala Zar” or black fever?

a. cutaneous leishmaniasis
b. visceral leishmaniasis

A

b. visceral leishmaniasis

258
Q

Which of the following is detected via scotch tape method?

a. hookworm
b. pinworm
c. roundworm

A

b. pinworm

259
Q

Which of the following is does not replicate within humans?

a. hookworm
b. pinworm
c. roundworm

A

c. roundworm

260
Q

Which of the following does the larva mature in lymphatics?

a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Onchocerca volvulus

A

a. Wuchereria bancrofti

B= matures in subcutaneous nodules

261
Q

Which of the following is called elephantiasis?

a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Onchocerca volvulus

A

a. Wuchereria bancrofti

swelling occurs when lymph is blocked

262
Q

Which of the following is called riverblindness?

a. Wuchereria bancrofti
b. Onchocerca volvulus

A

b. Onchocerca volvulus

FB2 - 2nd year (39 decks)

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