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FB2 Past Exams > extra patho questions > Flashcards

extra patho questions Flashcards

These are NOT a part of the past exams (side effect= feeling stressed that you forgot everything)

1
Q

Which of these is NOT made by a cell during inflammation?

a. histamine
b. prostaglandins
c. cytokines
d. chemokines
e. kinins

A

e. kinins

produced in the liver and is located in the plasma

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2
Q

Which one does NOT increase vascular permeability?

a. histamine
b. leukotrienes
c. kinins
d. cytokines

A

d. cytokines

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3
Q

Which one of these does NOT mediate pain?

a. prostaglandins
b. bradykinin
c. histamine

A

c. histamine

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4
Q

Which of these plasma proteins is elevated in chronic inflammation?

a. albumin
b. gamma globulins
c. alpha 2 globulins
d. B and C

A

d. B and C

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5
Q

Which of these plasma proteins is elevated in acute inflammation?

a. albumin
b. gamma globulins
c. alpha 2 globulins
d. beta globulins

A

c. alpha 2 globulins

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6
Q

What happens to plasma level concentration of patients with cirrhosis?

a. high albumin
b. low albumin
c. high alpha 1 globulins

A

b. low albumin

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7
Q

What occurs to C reactive proteins when the body is under attack?

A

It increases

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8
Q

True/False: Exudates have low protein levels and a few cells

A

False, they have lots of protein and cells (can be purulent or serous exudate)

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9
Q

Which of the following is a FLASE statement about lipofuscin granules?

a. they’re made from fat and protein
b. they appear to be yellow or brown
c. they’re insoluble
d. they can be found in nephrotic tissue

A

d. they can be found in nephrotic tissue

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10
Q

What is a Haptoglobin protein? What does it do and why is it clinically helpful?

A

Haptoglobin is a protein that binds free hemoglobin released from erythrocytes. When its levels are reduced, it means that the RBC’s are getting destroyed (hemolysis)
(It also prevents iron-utilizing bacteria from benefiting from hemolysis)

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11
Q

What is multiple myeloma? Why does the disease occur?

A

it’s a systemic primary amyloidosis, where plasma cells in the bone marrow overproduce immunoglobulin light chains. Those excess light chains go into the blood, fold and become amyloids, and build up in tissues of various organs.

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12
Q

Describe the levels of Serum Amyloid A in a patient with arthritis

A

SAA levels would be high because he has chronic inflammation, his liver would produce more + Acute Phase Reactants as a response.

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13
Q

Which of these cells are the parenchymal cells of the liver?

a. Kupffer cells
b. Endothelial cells
c. Hepatocytes
d. Stellate cells

A

c. Hepatocytes

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14
Q

what triggers hepatocyte proliferation?

A

Cytokines and polypeptide growth factors

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15
Q

Describe the basic steps of scar formation

A
  1. Angiogenesis starts and new vessels are made
  2. Fibroblast synthesis is triggered by growth factors
  3. Fibroblasts are made from mesenchymal and stem cells
  4. They produce collagen (connective tissue to fill the empty space)
  5. The collagen is remodeled by metalloproteinases
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16
Q

Which of these speeds up wound healing?

a. early motion
b. ionizing radioation
c. UV rays
d. Gamma rays

A

c. UV rays

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17
Q

Who is most likely to develop ulcerations?

a. Malnutritioned patient
b. Atherosclerosis patient

A

b. Atherosclerosis patient

it occurs because of low blood supply

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18
Q

Where would a venus embolism most likely go?

a. kidney
b. brain
c. lungs
d. lower limbs

A

c. lungs

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19
Q

how can you tell the difference between a real and a fake thrombus?

A

the genuine one has an attachment point where it attaches to the blood vessels. The fake thrombus formed post mortem and is jelly-like.

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20
Q

How is a broken femur and thrombocytopenia related?

A

When long bones break, fat embolisms can form (the bone marrow goes into the blood) and the fat embolisms attract the platelets and cause thrombocytopenia

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21
Q

Which of these cannot be found inside a lipoprotein?

a. triglycerides
b. free cholesterol
c. cholesterol esters

A

b. free cholesterol

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22
Q

which of these does not have apolipoprotein E?

a. Chylomicrons
b. VLDL
c. LDL
d. HDL

A

c. LDL

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23
Q

Where are tuberous xanthoma nodules located?

a. under the eyes
b. on the tendons
c. on extensor joint surfaces

A

c. on extensor joint surfaces

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24
Q

Patients with eruptive xanthoma have elevated _ levels

a. Triglycerides
b. Plasma LDL cholesterol

A

a. Triglycerides

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25
Q

What are the types of shock?

A

SNACH

Septic, Neurogenic, Anaphylactic, Cardiogenic, Hypovolemic

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26
Q

which cancer is known to cause tunnel vision?

A

Pituitary adenoma

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27
Q

Where do gastrointestinal tumors likely metastasize?

A

into the liver via the venous system

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28
Q

Which cancer type is known to be aggressive and fast spreading

A

Sarcoma (malignant tumour of connective)

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29
Q

Burkitt’s lymphoma is due to what gene?

a. CD95
b. BCL2
c. APC

A

a. Translocation that activates BCL2 gene

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30
Q

RAS colon mutation is due to what DNA change?

A

Point mutation

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31
Q

Neuroblastoma is due to what DNA change?

A

Amplification

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32
Q

True/False: during liver proliferation, the nonparenchymal cells replicate, followed by parenchymal cell replication

A

False; parenchymal cells (hepatocytes) replicate first then are followed by nonparenchymal ( Kupffer cells, Endothelial cells, & Stellate cells)

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33
Q

What do you call it when pancreatic tissue is found in the GI tract?

a. teratoma
b. hamartoma
c. choristoma

A

c. choristoma

tissue at another site

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34
Q

A patient lived through a bomb attack. Which of these is he least likely to have?

a. chronic lymphocytic leukemia
b. acute lymphocytic leukemia
c. acute myeloid leukemia

A

a. chronic lymphocytic leukemia

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35
Q

Which of these causes Bloom’s syndrome?

a. Mutated BRCA1 and 2 genes
b. Mutated nucleotide excision repair pathway
c. Mutated DNA mismatch repair pathway
d. Defective helicase

A

d. Defective helicase

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36
Q

Which of these causes Xeroderma pigmentosum?

a. Mutated BRCA1 and 2 genes
b. Mutated nucleotide excision repair pathway
c. Mutated DNA mismatch repair pathway
d. Defective helicase

A

b. Mutated nucleotide excision repair pathway

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37
Q

Which of these causes Hereditary nonpolyposis colorectal cancer?

a. Mutated BRCA1 and 2 genes
b. Mutated nucleotide excision repair pathway
c. Mutated DNA mismatch repair pathway
d. Defective helicase

A

c. Mutated DNA mismatch repair pathway

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38
Q

Which of these causes breast cancer?

a. Mutated BRCA1 and 2 genes
b. Mutated nucleotide excision repair pathway
c. Mutated DNA mismatch repair pathway
d. Defective helicase

A

a. Mutated BRCA1 and 2 genes

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39
Q

Which of the following is a direct acting carcinogen?

a. polycyclic hydrocarbons
b. benzyl chloride
c. cigarettes

A

b. benzyl chloride

nitrogen mustard is also a direct carcinogen

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40
Q

Which of these are found at a higher frequency in the elderly?

a. Common Lymphocyte Progenitors (CLPs)
b. Mature T cells
c. Granulocyte Macrophage Progenitors (GMPs)
d. Mature B cells

A

c. Granulocyte Macrophage Progenitors (GMPs)

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41
Q

True/False: Systolic pressure tends to increase with age while diastolic pressure tends to decreases

A

true

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42
Q

What’s the function of Apo B-100?

A

Ligand for LDL receptor

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43
Q

What’s the function of Apo C2?

A

Activator of LDL

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44
Q

Which TWO of these does the lab measure in the lipid profile?

a. Apo A1
b. HDL
c. Apo B
d. Total cholestrol
e. TG
e. LDL

A

a. Apo A1
&
c. Apo B

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45
Q

Patients with Corneal Arcutus Lipidus and Xanthelasma both have high levels of

a. Triglycerides
b. Plasma LDL cholesterol

A

Plasma LDL cholesterol

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46
Q

What is Tangier disease?

a. A total lack of Apo B
b. A partial lack of Apo B
c. Low HDL concentrations
c. Low LCAT concentrations

A

c. Low HDL concentrations

AKA alphalipoproteinaemia (abnormal apo A)

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47
Q

Why do progeroid syndromes occur?

a. DNA damage occurs at a very high rate
b. DNA repair system response is low

A

b. DNA repair system response is low

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48
Q

Hutchinson-Gilford progeria syndrome is caused by

a. Excess prelamin A
b. Prelamin A deficiency
c. Recessive mutant gene
d. helicase deficiency

A

b. Prelamin A deficiency

causing abnormal nuclear structure

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49
Q

Which of the following activates the M1 pathway of macrophages?

a. IL4
b. IFN-Y
c. TGF
d. TNF

A

b. IFN-Y

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50
Q

Which of the following activates the M2 macrophage pathway?

a. IL-13
b. IFN-Y
c. TGF
d. TNF
e. IL-4
f. a&e
g. c&d

A

f. a&e

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51
Q

Which of the following diseases has a granuloma that has asteroid bodies?

a. TB
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Crohn’s disease

A

b. Sarcoidosis

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52
Q

Which of the following diseases has a granuloma that has center necrosis?

a. TB
b. Sarcoidosis
c. Crohn’s disease

A

a. TB

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53
Q

What type of granuloma is associated with TB?

a. caseating
b. coagulative
c. liquefactive

A

a. caseating

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54
Q

Hashimoto’s thyroiditis is characterized by

a. Hurthle dysplasia
b. Hurthle metaplasia

A

b. Hurthle metaplasia

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55
Q

In which of these are you most likely to find metastasis?

a. spleen
b. liver
c. skeletal muscles
d. heart

A

b. liver

the rest are resistant to metastasis

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56
Q

Which of the following increases calcium levels

a. Calcitonin
b. Hypoparathyroidism
c. Milk-alkali syndrome

A

c. Milk-alkali syndrome

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57
Q

Which of the following causes the yellow color seen in jaundice?

a. melanin
b. myoglobin
c. bilirubin
d. hematin

A

c. bilirubin

58
Q

Which of the following is correct?

a. light-skinned people have fewer melanocytes
b. dark-skinned people have more melanocyte concentrations
c. melanocytes are less activate in light-skinned people

A

c. melanocytes are less activate in light-skinned people

59
Q

Which of the following does NOT cause generalized hyperpigmentation?

a. addison’s disease
b. hemochromatosis
c. hypothyroidism
d. thyrotoxicosis

A

c. hypothyroidism

all the rest cause hyperpigmentation

60
Q

Which of the following is most commonly found in papillary thyroid carcinoma?

a. asteroid bodies
b. psammoma bodies
c. schaumann bodies

A

b. psammoma bodies

61
Q

Describe a patient with marasmus?

a. enlarged and fatty liver
b. somatic protein compartment is depleted
c. ascites is present

A

b. somatic protein compartment is depleted

62
Q

In which of the following does the head appear enlarged in comparison to the body?

a. marasmus
b. kwashiorkor

A

a. marasmus

63
Q

Which of these is not affected by vitamin A deficiency?

a. eyes
b. kidneys
c. liver
d. lungs

A

c. liver

64
Q

Which of these is not related to a vitamin A deficiency?

a. pulmonary infections
b. bladder stones
c. blindness
d. cirrhosis

A

d. cirrhosis

65
Q

Which of the following causes a vitamin B12 deficiency?

a. pernicious anemia
b. megaloblastic anemia
c. both

A

a. pernicious anemia

megaloblastic anemia is caused by a vitamin B12 deficiency, not the other way around (be careful!)

66
Q

Which of these is water soluble?

a. retinol
b. vitamin B12
c. vitamin D

A

b. vitamin B12

vitamin C is also water soluble

67
Q

7-dehydrocholesterol is a precursor of

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
e. Cholesterol

A

d. Vitamin D

68
Q

a 27-year-old computer programmer breaks several bones a year and has extremely low vitamin D, which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

a. rickets
b. osteomalacia

A

b. osteomalacia
programmer = limited sunlight
low Vit. D= unmineralized bone
rickets= for kids

69
Q

Which is true?

a. as PTH hormone increases, calcium decreases
b. as PTH hormone increases, calcium increases
c. as calcitonin increases, calcium increases

A

b. PTH hormone increases, calcium increases

70
Q

A deficiency in which of these leads to inadequate osteoid synthesis?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D
e. Cholesterol

A

c. Vitamin C

71
Q

Which of the following describes leptin levels of obese people

a. leptin levels too low
b. leptin receptors too sensitive
c. leptin levels desensitized

A

c. leptin levels desensitized

high leptin

72
Q

Which of the following regulates appetite and satiety?

a. central hypothalamic system
b. afferent system
c. efferent system

A

b. afferent system

73
Q

Which of the following regulates energy balance?

a. central hypothalamic system
b. afferent system
c. efferent system

A

c. efferent system

74
Q

Which of these stimulates appetite?

a. leptin
b. peptide YY
c. ghrelin

A

c. ghrelin

the rest are satiety signals

75
Q

What occurs when leptin levels fall?

a. appetite stimulated and energy is conserved
b. appetite reduced and energy is burned
c. satiety signals increase

A

a. appetite stimulated and energy is conserved

76
Q

Which of the following has the lowest concentration of intracellular calcium?

a. ER
b. Cytosol
c. Mitochondria

A

b. Cytosol

the mitochondria has the highest concentration

77
Q

Which of these is associated with hypercalcemia?

a. osteoplastic metastasis
b. sarcoidosis
c. hypoalbuminemia

A

b. sarcoidosis

causes vitamin D sensativity

78
Q

whats the precursor to bone?

A

osteoid (its calcified to form bone)

79
Q

Which of the following lays down osteoid?

a. osteoclasts
b. osteoblasts
c. chondroblasts

A

b. osteoblasts

80
Q

Which of the following requires more osteoclasts (for bone resorption?)

a. fracture bone ends freely moving
b. comminuted fracture
c. Interposition of soft tissue between the fracture
d. poor blood supply
e. vitamin C deficiency

A

b. comminuted fracture

81
Q

which two of these may cause nonunion of the bone?

a. fracture bone ends freely moving
b. comminuted fracture
c. Interposition of soft tissue between the fracture
d. poor blood supply
e. vitamin C deficiency

A

a. fracture bone ends freely moving (non/delayed union)

c. Interposition of soft tissue between the fracture

82
Q

how is mRNA processed?

a. RNE polymerase translocates
b. CAP and poly-A tail are added
c. It’s folded

A

b. CAP and poly-A tail are added

83
Q

At what stage is the protein folded?

a. transcription
b. processing
c. translation

A

c. translation

84
Q

T/F: all genetic disorders are hereditary

A

false; hereditary disorders occur in germ cells, while genetic disorders can occur in somatic cells

85
Q

in sickle cell disease, a point mutation causes glutamine to change into

a. valine
b. proline
c. serine

A

a. valine

86
Q

whole chromosome loss is called

A

aneuploidy

87
Q

Why is the BCR-ABL gene in the Philadelphia chromosome associated with CML?

a. it makes the GF receptor sensitive
b. it generates GF’s
c. it generates signals that mimic GF receptor activation

A

c. it generates signals that mimic GF receptor activation

88
Q

What most accurately describes necrosis?

a. the cytoplasm shrinks
b. the cytoplasm swells
c. usually occurs in individual cells, not in groups
d. does not cause inflammation

A

b. the cytoplasm swells

89
Q

Which of the following causes cytochrome C to leave the mitochondria, possibly leading to apoptosis?

a. Caspases
b. Growth factors
c. Bcl-2 protein
d. Bax/bak channel

A

d. Bax/bak channel

90
Q

Which of the following causes lipid deposition in the cells?

a. nuclear chromatin clumping
b. influx of calcium
c. reduced PH of cell
d. decreased protein synthesis

A

d. decreased protein synthesis

the proteins are used to escort lipids out of the cells, so without them, the lipid builds up

91
Q

Which of the following is FLASE about ROS induced cell injury?

a. promotes double bond formation of lipid membrane
b. promotes disulfide-mediated protein cross-linking
c. it reacts with the thymine in DNA

A

b. promotes disulfide-mediated protein cross-linking

should be sulfhydryl-mediated

92
Q

Where does glycogen NOT accumulate?

a. skeletal muscle
b. pancreas
c. cardiac muscle
d. kidney

A

a. skeletal muscle

93
Q

What is gangrenous necrosis?

A

coagulative necrosis and a bacterial infection

94
Q

Which of the following causes exudate production?

a. kidney diseases
b. liver failure
c. bacterial infection

A

c. bacterial infection

a and b are for transudate

95
Q

high immunoglobulin levels indicate

a. monocolonal gammopathy
b. hypogammaglobulinemia

A

a. monocolonal gammopathy

96
Q

Which of the following can increase albumin levels?

a. dehydration
b. dilution
c. Increased catabolism

A

a. dehydration

97
Q

Which of the following does NOT indicate low apha 1 antitrypsin?

a. cholestasis
b. cancer
c. cirrhosis
d. emphysema

A

b. cancer

98
Q

How does vitamin D effect calcium levels?

a. decrease calcium resorbtion
b. breaks down bone to increase calcium levels
c. increases calcium absorbtion

A

c. increases calcium absorbtion

99
Q

Which thrombus has lines of Zahn?

a. arterial
b. venous

A

a. arterial

100
Q

Which of the following occur on the cornea of the eye?

a. keratomalacia
b. bitot spots

A

a. keratomalacia

101
Q

what does transcoelomic spread of cancer mean?

a. spread via the blood
b. spread via the veins
c. spread via pleural space
d. spread directly from one cite to another

A

c. spread via pleural space

102
Q

Which of these cells makes blocks the effect of anti-proteases?

a. neoplastic cell
b. stromal cell

A

a. neoplastic cell

103
Q

Which of the following is most likely to occur to a person who’s exposed to asbestos?

a. lung cancer
b. malignant mesothelioma
c. transitional cell carcinoma of the bladder

A

b. malignant mesothelioma
a= smokers
c= rubber/dye industry

104
Q

familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is due to what gene?

a. CD95
b. BCL2
c. APC
d. BRCA2

A

c. APC gene

(APC= adenomatous polyposis coli gene
FAP causes extra tissue (polyps) to form in your large intestine and rectum which develop into cancer)

105
Q

hepatocellular carcinoma is due to what gene?

a. CD95
b. BCL2
c. APC

A

a. CD95

the gene is reduced

106
Q

during septic shock, the LPS bind to ____ molecules on leukocytes

A

CD14

107
Q

What occurs at moderate doses of LPS?

a. acute inflammatory response
b. systemic effects and fever
c. endothelial injury, coagulation cascade, and septic shock or hypoperfusion

A

b. systemic effects and fever

108
Q

acute renal failure causes

a. metabolic acidosis
b. metabolic alkalosis
c. respiratory acidosis

A

a. metabolic acidosis

109
Q

Which of the following regulates epigenes post-transcriptionally?

a. methylation
b. non-coding RNA
c. acetylation

A

b. non-coding RNA

protein phosphorylation too

110
Q

Which of the following non-coding RNA’s stop translation?

a. miRNA
b. ncRNA

A

a. miRNA

b= regulate transcription & post-transcription

111
Q

which of the following is FALSE about chronic myelogenous leukemia (CML)?

a. can be treated with tyrosine kinase inhibitors
b. myeloid progenitor cells are signal independent
c. BCR-ABL fusion protein makes signals that mimic GF’s

A

b. myeloid progenitor cells are signal independent

they are dependent on growth factor signals

112
Q

Why does type 2 diabetes mellitus occur?

a. the body does into an anabolic state
b. cytokine production becomes very low
c. the insulin receptors are not activated as much

A

c. the insulin receptors are not activated as much

reduced phosphorylation-dependent activation

113
Q

How can a cell recover when under ER stress?

a. produce more protein
b. produce more chaperones
c. produce more prions

A

b. produce more chaperones

114
Q

Which of the following does a high level of alpha-fetoprotein in an adult indicate?

a. down’s syndrome
b. hepatoma
c. wilson’s disease
d. impaired kidney function

A

b. hepatoma

115
Q

Which of the following is a transport protein of vitamin A?

a. Albumin
b. Prealbumin
c. Ceruloplasmin
d. Microglobulin

A

b. Prealbumin

aka- transthyretin

116
Q

Patient comes in with high beta-2-microglobulin serum levels, what is this indicative of?

a. down’s syndrome
b. hepatoma
c. wilson’s disease
d. impaired kidney function

A

d. impaired kidney function

117
Q

Which of the following is a nonspecific indicator of disease?

a. Albumin
b. Elevated CSF protein
c. Ceruloplasmin
d. Microglobulin

A

b. Elevated CSF protein

118
Q

Which of the following is a tumor marker of multiple myeloma, leukemia, and lymphomas?

a. Albumin
b. Elevated CSF protein
c. Ceruloplasmin
d. Microglobulin

A

d. Microglobulin

119
Q

Which of the following makes an incisional hernia more likely?

a. hyperproteinemia
b. metalloproteinase deficiency
c. vitamin D deficiency
d. zinc deficiency

A

d. zinc deficiency

(protein, zinc, & vitamin C are all important for collagen synthesis. If collagen production is low, a hernia occurs because of weak scar formation)

120
Q

Which of the following may lead to keloid formation?

a. hyperproteinemia
b. metalloproteinase deficiency
c. vitamin D deficiency
d. zinc deficiency

A

b. metalloproteinase deficiency

that protein clears out extra collagen

121
Q

which of the following lead to neurological defects?

a. alphalipoproteinaemia
b. betalipoproteinaemia
c. LCAT deficiency

A

b. abetalipoproteinemia

Apo B absence leads to a decrease of fat-soluble vitamins and that leads to neurological defects

122
Q

Which of the following have high LDL?

a. Xanthelasma
b. Xanthoma

A

a. Xanthelasma

b= high triglycerides

123
Q

What causes ARDS?

a. shock
b. pneumonia
c. pulmonary infection
d. oxygen toxicity
e. toxins
d. corporal pumps

A

all of the above

124
Q

What is disseminated intravascular coagulation and what can cause it?

A

it’s the activation of the coagulation system which forms clots throughout the body. the main cause is sepsis (high dose of LPS)

125
Q

Which of the following does a patient with Addison’s disease have?

a. hypokalemia
b. hyperkalemia

A

b. hyperkalemia

Addison’s causes low steroid hormones, steroids are inversely proportional to potassium

126
Q

Which of the following is the result of secondary hyperaldesterinism?

a. hypovolemia
b. hypervolemia

A

b. hypervolemia

aldosterone is important for sodium conservation, so Na and water are resorbed

127
Q

Which of the following is describes hyperchloraemic acidosis?

a. has a high anion gap
b. has a low anion gap
c. CO2 compensates the bicarbonate loss
d. chloride compensates the bicarbonate loss

A

d. chloride compensates the bicarbonate loss

it has a normal anion gap

128
Q

Which best describes Li-Fraumeni syndrome

a. RAS mutation
b. p53 mutation

A

b. p53 mutation

it’s inherited and leads to cancer

129
Q

Which of the following degrades the ECM to allow cancer metastasis?

a. Urase
b. Nitrogen oxide
c. Metalloproteinases

A

c. Metalloproteinases

130
Q

Which of the following occurs as a result of Bence Jones protein accumulation?

a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies
b. senile systemic amyloidosis
c. primary systemic amyloidosis
d. secondary systemic amyloidosis

A

c. primary systemic amyloidosis

Bence Jones protein = immunoglobulin light chain

131
Q

Which of the following occurs as a result of transthyretin (TTR) mutation?

a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies
b. senile systemic amyloidosis
c. hemodialysis-associated amyloidosis
d. secondary systemic amyloidosis

A

a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies

b= structurally normal TTR is deposited

132
Q

Which of the following occurs as a result of structurally normal transthyretin (TTR) accumulation?

a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies
b. senile systemic amyloidosis
c. hemodialysis-associated amyloidosis
d. secondary systemic amyloidosis

A

b. senile systemic amyloidosis

133
Q

Which of the following occurs as a result of beta 2 microglobulin accumulation?

a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies
b. senile systemic amyloidosis
c. hemodialysis-associated amyloidosis
d. secondary systemic amyloidosis

A

c. hemodialysis-associated amyloidosis

134
Q

which of the following commonly affects the heart?

a. familial amyloid polyneuropathies
b. senile systemic amyloidosis

A

b. senile systemic amyloidosis

a= CNS

135
Q

Chronic exposure to increased systolic pressure leads to

a. right atrial hypotrophy
b. left atrial hypertrophy
c. right ventricular hypotrophy
d. left ventricular hypertrophy

A

d. left ventricular hypertrophy

136
Q

The mutation causing Werner’s syndrome leads to
Hutchinson-Gilford progeria syndrome is caused by
a. Excess prelamin A
b. Prelamin A deficiency
c. Recessive mutant gene
d. helicase deficiency

A

d. helicase deficiency

effects DNA repair

137
Q

What are sirtuins?

A

modulate pathways that are anti-aging (ex/ stimulate protein folding & increase metabolic activity)

138
Q

Which of the following pigments is hemoglobin derived?

a. myoglobin
b. lipofuscin
c. hemosiderin
d. neuromelanin

A

c. hemosiderin

bilirubin is also hemoglobin derived

139
Q

Which of the following pigments is catecholamine derived?

a. myoglobin
b. lipofuscin
c. hemosiderin
d. neuromelanin

A

d. neuromelanin

140
Q

What is hemochromatosis?

a. too much melanin builds up
b. too much iron builds up
c. too much calcium builds up

A

b. too much iron builds up

141
Q

What is Addison’s disease?

a. ACTH precursor hormones low
b. ACTH precursor hormones high
c. ACTH precursor hormones block melanocyte stimulation

A

b. ACTH precursor hormones high

ACTH precursors stimulate melanocytes

142
Q

A deficiency in which vitamin is associated with neurologic lesions?

a. Vitamin A
b. Vitamin B12
c. Vitamin C
d. Vitamin D

A

b. Vitamin B12

FB2 Past Exams (32 decks)

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