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FB2 Past Exams > 2014 micro > Flashcards

2014 micro Flashcards

1
Q 
Which individuals have a higher risk of getting acute cryptosporidium?
A) person with abdominal surgery
B) men older than 65 years
C) children less than 10 years
D) immunocompromised patients
A

D) immunocompromised patients

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2
Q

what differentiates gram-positive bacteria from gram-negative bacteria?
A) peptidoglycan
B) periplasmic space

A

B) periplasmic space

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3
Q 
What is linked with shock in a patient with E.coli?
A) Fimbria
B) Lipase A
C) Pilli
D) Protein A
A

B) Lipase A

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4
Q

What substance in the cell wall of mycobacterium tuberculosis confers resistance to gram stain?
A) Mycolic acid
B) Peptidoglycan
C) Phospholipid bilayer

A

A) mycolic acid

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5
Q 
What is characterized by pain on eating and drinking, bleeding from gums, high fever, and extensive ulceration in the tongue, palate and buccal area?
A) keratitis
B) primary herpetic gingivostomatitis
C) herpes labialis 
D) Eczema herpeticum
A

B) primary herpetic gingivostomatitis

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6
Q

Hemophilus influenza needs X & V factors, what agar provides these?
A) blood agar
B) MacConkey agar
C) chocolate agar

A

C) chocolate agar

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7
Q

What mediates the attachment of Neisseria gonorrhea to the mucosal surface of the endocervix?
A) flagella
B) fimbriae
C) type IV pilus

A

B) fimbriae

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8
Q

Which statement describes epidemic infection?
A) appears suddenly and persist for a period of time
B) appears slowly and fades with time

A

A) appears suddenly and persist for a period of time

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9
Q

Which of the following viruses causes latent infection in neurons?
A) adenovirus
B) herpesvirus
C) CMV

A

B) herpesvirus

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10
Q

which of the following is a characteristic feature of chronic hepatitis B infection?
A) most patients are symptomatic
B) most patients have B surface antibody in their sera (serum)
C) most patients have e antibody in their sera
D) most patients have B surface antigen in their sera (serum)

A

D) most patients have B surface antigen in their sera (serum)

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11
Q

what enables Neisseria gonorrhea to resist intracellular killing by phagocytosis?
A) Catalase
B) Outer membrane proteins
C) Polysaccharide capsule

A

A) Catalase

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12
Q

What characterizes Mycoplasma?
A) Lack of cell wall
B) Lack of plasma membrane

A

A) Lack of cell wall

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13
Q

what is the most appropriate next step after a needle prick from a patient who tested positive in HIV-I?
A) request HIV testing of the blood
B) immediately begin post exposure prophylaxis
C) perform a confirmatory test by western blot
D) tell the patient that he is likely to develop AIDS

A

B) immediately begin post exposure prophylaxis

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14
Q

Which of the following is transmitted through contaminated water?
A) hepatitis A virus
B) hepatitis G virus
C) hepatitis B virus

A

A) hepatitis A virus

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15
Q 
what are the carriers of Brucella melitensis?
A) cows 
B) goats
C) dogs 
D) pigs
A

B) goats

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16
Q

human T-cell leukemia virus Type II (HTLV-II) is associated with?
A) adult T-cell leukemia (ATL)
B) tropical spastic paraparesis (TSP)
C) neurological disorder called (HAM) HTLV associated myelopathy
D) atypical hairy cell leukemia (HCL)

A

D) atypical hairy cell leukemia (HCL)

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17
Q

Which of the following virulence factors of mycobacterium tuberculosis aid in the formation of tubercule?
A) Mycolic acid
B) Intracellular growth
C) Antigen 85 complex

A

C) Antigen 85 complex

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18
Q 
which of the following determines resistance against vivax malaria infection?
A) G6P dehydrogenase deficiency
B) Negative RH blood group antigen
C) Duffy blood group antigen
D) Sickle cell disease
A

C) Duffy blood group antigen

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19
Q 
what's the method of choice to confirm invasive amebic infection?
A) microscopy of stool smear
B) stool culture
C) blood culture
D) serology
A

D) serology

20
Q

how can we get infected by schistosomiasis?
A) Skin penetration
B) Fecal oral route

A

A) Skin penetration

21
Q

What is the route of transmission of (cutaneous) leishmaniosis?
A) direct contact
B) sand fly

A

B) sand fly

22
Q

What is true about Corynebacterium diphtheria?

A

Toxin-mediated disease

23
Q

What is the best way to diagnose a cyst in the right lobe of the liver (or What is the best choice for diagnosing hydatid disease)?
A) Aspirate and culture
B) Serology for specific antibodies
C) Surgery

A

B) Serology for specific antibodies

24
Q

What is the method used to diagnose pinworms (Entrobius vermicularis)?
A) Detection of antibody in the blood
B) Detection of eggs in the stool
C) Detection of eggs using sellotape

A

C) Detection of eggs using sellotape

25
Q

Which of the following is a risk factor for acquiring pneumonia if a person is infected with pseudomonas?
A) Using IV drugs
B) Cystic fibrosis

A

B) Cystic fibrosis

26
Q

Which of the following strains of malaria have developed resistance to malarial antibiotics recently?
A) Plasmodium ovale
B) Plasmodium vivax
C) Plasmodium falciparum

A

C) Plasmodium falciparum

27
Q

What is true about Kaposi sarcoma HHV8?
A) a cancer that develops from the cells that line lymph or blood vessels
B) a cancer that develps from connective tissue

A

A) a cancer that develops from the cells that line lymph or blood vessels

28
Q

What differentiates between clostridium tetanus from clostridium perfringens?
A) Lack motility
B) produce neurotoxin

A

B) produce neurotoxin

C. perfringens is nonmotile and does not use neurotoxins, while C. tetani is motile and uses neurotoxins

29
Q

What is the virulence factor of streptococcus pneumonia?
A) Motility
B) Capsule

A

B) Capsule

30
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae which causes Diphtheria can be prevented via

A

DPT vaccine

31
Q

What bacteria is found permanently on the skin?

A

Staphylococcus

32
Q

Which of the following characterize pseudomonas aeruginosa?
A) Diffusible pigment
B) non-motile

A

A) Diffusible pigment

33
Q

What is the causative agent of melioidosis?
A) Burkholderia mallei
B) Burkholderia pseudomallei
C) Burkholderia cepacia

A

B) Burkholderia pseudomallei

34
Q 
Which of these genera represent mucolaris?
A) penicilium
B) Candida
C) Cryptococcus
D) Rhizopus
A

D) Rhizopus

35
Q

Which of the following about exanthem subitum is true?
A) The disease only occurs in people > 40
B) the disease is also called roseola infantum
C) it is caused by human herpesvirus 8
D) antiviral drugs are recommended to treat it

A

B) the disease is also called roseola infantum

36
Q

What is most associated with meningitis (or the commonest cause of fungal meningitis)?
A) Aspergillus flavus
B) Cryptococcus neoforamans
C)talaromyces marneffei

A

B) Cryptococcus neoforamans

37
Q

which of the following is virus transmitted through mosquito?
A) hantavirus
B) dengue virus
C) kyasanur forest virus

A

B) dengue virus

38
Q

Which of the following is a characteristic of dermatophytes?

A

produce keratinase

39
Q

Which of the following bacterial pathogens cause urethral discharge and cannot be visualized?

A

chlamydia trachomatis

40
Q 
Which of the following fungal infections is transmitted through animals? (primary parasitic on animals)?
A) Candida albicans
B) Microsporum canis
C) Aspergillus 
D)pneumocystis jirovecii
A

B) Microsporum canis

41
Q

Which of the following causes oropharyngeal candidiasis?

A

Candida Albicans

42
Q

What is a causative agent of dermatophytosis?

A

Trichophyton

43
Q

Which of the following viruses causes hemorrhagic fever?

A

Marburg

44
Q

Which of the following is true about hand, foot, and mouth diseases?
A) Caused by coxsackie B and echovirus
B) Spread through direct contact with mucus and saliva of an infected individual
C) Does not affect kids

A

B) Spread through direct contact with mucus and saliva of an infected individual

45
Q

A philipino came to the emergency room with fever, headache, and pink papules on the skin. What is likely the cause of these symptoms?

A

Salmonella typhi

46
Q

What enzyme do anaerobic bacteria lack?

A

Superoxide dismutase

47
Q

Which is a characteristic of the cell wall of fungi?

A

Glucan

FB2 Past Exams (32 decks)

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