2014 pharma Flashcards

1
Q

which of the following is a selective B2 agonist used to treat asthma?

a) Cocaine
b) Phenylephrine
c) Salbutamol
d) Clonidine

A

c) Salbutamol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The activation of which presynaptic adrenergic receptor results in the inhibition of noradrenaline release from the adrenergic nerve terminal?
A) Alpha 1 adrenergic receptor
B) Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor

A

B) Alpha 2 adrenergic receptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q
Which presynaptic receptor will cause auto-inhibitory feedback of noradrenaline?
A) Alpha 1 adrenoceptor
B) Beta 1 adrenoceptor
C) Beta 3 adrenoceptor
D) Alpha 2 adrenoceptor
A

D) Alpha 2 adrenoceptor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q
If drug A (100mg) and drug B (10mg) give the same size of biological response while acting on the same receptor, which of the following statements is correct?
A) The effect of a & b is synergistic
B) A is more efficacious than B
C) A is 10 times more potent than B
D) B is more potent than A
A

D) B is more potent than A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Which of the following best describes the pharmacokinetic properties?
A) An orally administered drug is mostly absorbed in the small intestine
B) An antacid will increase the absorption of an acidic drug in the gut
C) The more lipophilic the drug is, the less its partition coefficient
D) The half-life of a drug is not influenced by age

A

A) An orally administered drug is mostly absorbed in the small intestine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the effect of vesomicol on cholinergic receptors?
A) Block the storage of Acetylcholine
B) Block the synthesis of acetylcholine
C) Block the release of acetylcholine

A

A) Block the storage of Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

If a patient is on MAO inhibitors, he would experience hypertensive crisis if he took?
A) Tryptamine
B) Tyramine
C) Cadaverine

A

B) Tyramine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q
The clearance (CL) and volume of distribution (Vd) of drug X are 80mL/min and 40L respectively. What is the intravenous loading dose (mg) required to achieve a therapeutic plasma concentration of 4 mg/L
A) 60
B) 160
C) 200
D) 230
A

B) 160

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What is an example of type B (bizarre) adverse reaction?
A) Penicillin-induced anaphylactic shock
B) Hemolytic anemia caused by methyldopa
C) Liver damage induced by halothane
D) All of the above

A

D) All of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q
Polymorphism in which genes lead to a direct pharmacodynamics effect?
A) Genes involved in drug absorption
B) Genes involved in drug targets
C) Genes involved in synthesis
D) Genes involved in distribution
A

B) Genes involved in drug targets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What is the mechanism of action of non-depolarizing neurotransmitter blockers?
A) Displacement of acetylcholine on the nicotinic post-synaptic receptors
B) Over activation of nicotinic receptors
C) Physical blockage of the nicotinic ionotropic channel

A

A) Displacement of acetylcholine on the nicotinic post-synaptic receptors

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

A patient was going to have surgery and intubation, he was given a non-depolarizing NMB with gentamicin, which caused prolonged muscle paralysis. Which of the following is true about gentamicin?
A) Increase metabolism of Acetylcholine
B) Block the release of acetylcholine from the vesicles

A

B) Block the release of acetylcholine from the vesicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What best describes drug absorption?
A) Weak basic drugs are non-ionized in the stomach
B) Weak acidic drugs are non-ionized in stomach

A

B) Weak acidic drugs are non-ionized in stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Acetylcholine mediated bronchoconstriction is reversed by adrenaline. Which type of antagonism is that?
A) Competitive antagonism
B) Physiological antagonism

A

B) Physiological antagonism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Which is true about the elimination of drugs?
A) In zero order kinetics a constant fraction of the drug is eliminated per unit time
B) First order kinetics shows linear elimination
C) Most drugs have a constant elimination rate
D) In most drugs the half-life changes depending on changes in the concentration

A

B) First order kinetics shows linear elimination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Which one of the following is used as a treatment for motion sickness?
A) Scopolamine
B) Atropine
C) Ipratropium

A

A) Scopolamine

17
Q

Which of the following is a receptor that has direct enzymatic activity?
A) Insulin receptor
B) Steroid
C) B-adrenoreceptor

A

A) Insulin receptor

18
Q

Which of the following is used as an antidote for acetaminophen poisoning? What is the best treatment in the case of acetaminophen toxicity/poisoning?
A) Sodium bicarbonate
B) N -acetylcysteine

A

B) N -acetylcysteine

19
Q

Which of the following is used to treat bronchoconstriction/asthma?
A) Ipratropium
B) Atropine
C) Scopolamine

A

A) Ipratropium

20
Q
A drug with a half life of 12 hours, how many hours are needed to reach 75% of steady-state concentration?
A) 24
B) 36
C) 48
D) 90
A

A) 24

21
Q

Aminoglycosides have a higher half-life in the elderly because of?
A) Decreased kidney excretion
B) decreased hepatic metabolism

A

A) Decreased kidney excretion

22
Q

What is the mechanism of action of vinca alkaloids?

A

They inhibit the polymerization of tubulin

23
Q

Which of the following is most likely to occur if we administer tetracycline with milk/antacid?

A

Decrease absorption of tetracycline

24
Q

When is pilocarpine contraindicated?

A

Peptic ulcer

25
Q

Which of the following is an indicator of margin of safety?

A

Therapeutic index