2017 pharma Flashcards

1
Q

Which of the following statements is correct regarding metabolic enzymes?
A. Enzymes for metabolism and breakdown of food are the same
B. Metabolic enzymes can activate inactive compounds
C. Metabolic enzymes are mainly found in the cell nucleus
D. Lipophilic drugs do not need to be metabolized

A

B. Metabolic enzymes can activate inactive compounds

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2
Q

Aminoglycosides inhibit bacterial protein synthesis. What best explains this selective toxicity?
A. Bacterial cell wall has peptidoglycan but eukaryotic cells do not
B. Ribosome structure is different in eukaryotes and prokaryotes
C. Bacterial topoisomerase II differs from that in humans
D. Unlike bacteria, humans do not synthesize folic acid

A

B. Ribosome structure is different in eukaryotes and prokaryotes

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3
Q
What is used to treat acetaminophen overdose? 
A. Acetylcholine
B. N-acetylcysteine
C. Physostigmine
D. Sodium bicarbonate
A

B. N-acetylcysteine

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4
Q

Which of the following is an idiosyncratic adverse drug reaction?
A. Analgesic nephropathy that occurs long after treatment
B. Hypoglycemia after an insulin injection
C. Hemolytic anemia while taking primaquine drug
D. Withdrawal effects after treatment with atenolol is stopped

A

C. Hemolytic anemia while taking primaquine drug

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5
Q
If the half-life of a drug is 12 hours, how much time is needed to reach the steady state concentration? 
A. 24 hours
B. 38 hours
C. 60 hours
D. 90 hours
A

C. 60 hours

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6
Q
What is an antidote in the treatment of organophosphate poisoning?
A. Acetylcholine
B. Atropine
C. Benztropine
D. Pilocarpine
A

B. Atropine

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7
Q

What interaction occurs when warfarin, an anticoagulant, is taken with phenobarbital?
A. Displacement of warfarin from plasma binding sites
B. Decreased absorption of warfarin
C. Decreased effect of warfarin due to enzyme induction
D. Increased effect of warfarin

A

C. Decreased effect of warfarin due to enzyme induction

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8
Q
Which enzyme terminates the action of noradrenaline at the synaptic cleft? 
A. Dopamine beta-hydroxylase
B. Catechol-o-methyltransferase
C. DOPA decarboxylase
D. Tyrosine hydroxylase
A

B. Catechol-o-methyltransferase

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9
Q
Action of which adrenergic receptor may cause lipolysis? 
A. α1
B. α2
C. β2
D. β3
A

D. β3

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10
Q
What is the selective beta 2 adrenergic agonist that can be used in the treatment of asthma? 
A. Clonidine
B. Phenylephrine
C. Salbutamol
D. Isoprenaline
A

C. Salbutamol

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11
Q
What selective alpha 1 adrenergic antagonist can be used in the treatment of hypertension?
A. Phentolamine
B. Prazosin
C. Phentolamine
D. Phenylephrine
A

B. Prazosin

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12
Q
Which beta-adrenergic antagonist causes bronchospasm? 
A. Atenolol
B. Metoprolol 
C. Propranolol 
D. Carvedilol
A

C. Propranolol

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13
Q
Which administration route will have 100% bioavailability? 
A. Oral
B. Subcutaneous
C. Intravenous
D. Intramuscular
A

C. Intravenous

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14
Q

What is the best description of a substance having spare receptors?
A. Partial agonist will have 50% response if 50% of the receptors are occupied
B. Full agonists occupy a fraction of receptors to produce the maximum response
C. Spare receptors are still activated, even without an agonist

A

B. Full agonists occupy a fraction of receptors to produce the maximum response

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15
Q

50 mg of Drug A and 10 mg of Drug B produce the same response. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Drugs A and B have the same potency
B. The drugs must be working on separate receptors
C. Drug B is more potent than Drug A
D. Drug A is five times more potent than Drug B

A

C. Drug B is more potent than Drug A

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16
Q
Which of the following describes the therapeutic index?
A. Potency
B. Safety margin
C. Efficacy
D. Drug effectiveness
A

B. Safety margin

17
Q

What is true about bioavailability?
A. It’s 75% if a drug is administered intravenously
B. The proportion of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation
C. It is unaffected by the absorption and degradation of the drug at the administration site
D. It is the volume of the drug within the tissues

A

B. The proportion of the drug that reaches the systemic circulation

18
Q

What is the 1st pass effect?
A. The first drug that passes through the intestine to the circulation will produce its response first
B. Renal excretion of a drug that passes in the urine is first affected by the kidney activity
C. An orally administered drug will be metabolized by intestinal and hepatic enzymes before reaching the systemic circulation

A

C. An orally administered drug will be metabolized by intestinal and hepatic enzymes before reaching the systemic circulation

19
Q
What is the main organ responsible for drug biotransformation? 
A. Kidneys
B. Liver
C. Intestine
D. Skin
A

B. Liver

20
Q

Sodium bicarbonate is used to treat probenecid (weak acid) overdose. How does alkalinizing the urine help with this treatment?
A. Increase the glomerular filtration rate
B. Decreases proximal tubular active secretion
C. Decreases distal tubular reabsorption
D. Increases distal tubular reabsorption

A

C. Decreases distal tubular reabsorption

21
Q
Polymorphism in which genes leads to a pharmacodynamic effect? 
A. Genes involved in drug targets
B. Genes involved in drug absorption
C. Genes involved in drug synthesis
D. Genes involved in drug transports
A

A. Genes involved in drug targets

22
Q
Which neurotransmitter is present in all autonomic (sympathetic and parasympathetic) ganglia? 
A. Acetylcholine
B. Noradrenaline
C. Adrenaline
D. Dopamine
A

A. Acetylcholine

23
Q
Which of the following drugs blocks acetylcholine release? 
A. Atropine
B. Latrotoxin
C. Benztropine
D. Botulinum toxin
A

D. Botulinum toxin

24
Q

Which of the following is important to measure before prescribing an antibiotic that is extensively metabolized?
A. Renal function
B. Hepatic function
C. Gastric emptying

A

B. Hepatic function

25
Q

What is the function of vinca alkaloids in cancer chemotherapy?
A. Angiogenesis inhibitor
B. Inhibit polymerization of tubulin into microtubules
C. Interfere with DNA metabolites
D. Inhibit depolymerization of microtubules into tubulin

A

B. Inhibit polymerization of tubulin into microtubules

26
Q
A small minority of individuals may suffer from an anaphylactic shock after taking penicillin. Which type of adverse drug reaction (ADR) explains this scenario?
A. Type A ADR 
B. Type B ADR 
C. Type C ADR 
D. Type D ADR
A

B. Type B ADR

27
Q

What is the main reason for longer half-life of elimination of drugs in the elderly?
A. Decreased hepatic metabolism
B. Decreased renal metabolism
C. Increased plasma protein binding

A

B. Decreased renal metabolism

28
Q
Which of the following is an adverse effect of depolarizing neuromuscular blocker (suxamethonium)? 
A. Malignant hypothermia
B. Bradycardia
C. Hyperkalemia
D. Decreased intraocular pressure
A

C. Hyperkalemia