Exam 7 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:
BC Knockdown was discussing foam operations at MUD and during the conversation, the following statements were made. Which of the below was the only correct statement made?

A: At an old style steel tank truck rollover, a BLEVE can occur and the product must be off-loaded.

B: At an overturned aluminum tank truck involved in fire that remains intact, the chance of BLEVE is eliminated.

C: At a tank truck accident with fire, an all-hands assignment supplying two hand lines will provide enough foam to operate for approximately 17 minutes.

D: At a tank truck accident where there is a leak which has been stopped and contained, the remaining contents must be off-loaded before the vehicle proceeds.

A

A
Explanation:
FOAM
A is Correct. A vehicle that has rolled onto it’s side must be off-loaded. Never attempt to upright a loaded vehicle. 8.6 & 8.7
B is Incorrect – Chance of a Bleve still exists when shell remains intact 8.7
C is Incorrect – One hand line will provide approximately 17 minutes of operating time. Using two hand lines will increase the amount of area covered, but will reduce operating time. 8.4
D is Incorrect – Once the spill is abated and the leak stopped, a decision has to be made whether to allow the tanker to proceed or have it off-loaded. 8.5

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2
Q

Question 2:
Members of a BC study group were drilling on the different types of radiation. Which of the following statements about radiation is incorrect?
A: Neutron can be shielded by high hydrogen content material such as three feet of water, one foot of concrete, ten inches of plastic
B: Gamma can be shielded by several inches of lead, concrete, steel, a foot of dirt or water
C: Beta can be shielded by approximately 1/4 - 1/2 inch of plastic, aluminum or glass
D: Alpha can be shielded by a sheet of paper

A

C
Explanation:
ERP Addendum 4, Radiological Operations 1.1 Table 1
Approximately 1 inch

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3
Q

Question 3:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding Class E High Rise Office Buildings built after 1968?
A: Exterior walls are curtain walls constructed of a combination of glass and metal.
B: The method of securing exterior curtain walls leaves a space of 6 to 12 inches which requires additional fire stopping.
C: Ceiling plenums of these buildings are extensive and lack fire stopping.
D: Core construction techniques are generally not used.

A

D
Explanation:
D. Core construction techniques are used extensively.
HROB 2.4.4-3.4.6, 2.4.12

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4
Q

Question 4:
The Battalion Commander, or in their absence, a regularly assigned Chief Officer designated as an alternate, shall confer with every assigned Company Commander or in their absence, a regularly assigned Company Officer designated as an alternate, regarding maintaining a professional workplace at least how often?

A: once each quarter

B: once each year

C: semi-annually

D: once each week

A

A - Battalion Commanders shall, at least once each quarter, confer with every assigned
Company Commander regarding maintaining a professional workplace. Explanation:
PAID 2-2017 1.2 and 1.6

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5
Q
Question 5:
FDNY safety teams have been updated to cover many different scenarios. As the BC supervising a company drill at E-44, you bring up the importance of all members being proficient in this procedure. You review the material with this Haz Tech engine. When only one 5-FF Engine Company is on the scene of a fire, which members shall act as the Safety Team?
A: Two FFs designated by the officer
B: Control FF and Door FF
C: Backup FF and Door FF
D: Backup FF and Control FF
A

Explanation:

MMID ch1 Ref Chart

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6
Q
Question 6:
There are many ways to ID a member during a mayday. One would be using the SCBA labels with white numerals on colored backgrounds. The colored backgrounds indicate the type of unit to which the SCBA is assigned to. Which of the following designations is incorrect?    
A: MSU spare - yellow
B: Battalion spare - orange
C: Marine - green
D: Haz - Mat - blue
A

A
Explanation:
Training Bulletin SCBA sec 10.3
A. Black

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7
Q
Question 7:
You are the Resource Unit Leader assigned to JFK crash box 269. The RUL should be assigned to the Port Authority Mobile Command Post and maintain contact with the FDNY Incident Commander (if IC located at a position other than the mobile command post) and the Staging Area via the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_        
A: Handle-Talkie
B: Cell Phone
C: Post radio
D: 800 MHZ radio
A

D
Explanation:
AUC 325 ADDENDUM 2 sec 3.4

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8
Q

Question 8:
During the change of tours, 2 BC’s assigned to the 3rd division are discussing CIDS entries coming from their units. These busy midtown battalions have confusing buildings that need clear and precise CIDS cards. When submitting a CIDS entry, all of the following are correct except?
A: When interconnected/attached buildings and building complexes have a separate house number posted on each building, a CIDS entry for the first building in the complex is only required since the complex has only one building identification number (BIN)
B: When a single building, regardless of size, has a single address posted, and only one address is found during research, prepare one CIDS entry, even if fronts on more than one street
C: When a single building has multiple addresses found during research, but only has a single address number posted on the building, prepare a CIDS entry for the posted address. The unit officer shall determine if additional CIDS entries are required for any other applicable addresses or AKA’s associated with the building
D: If a building or facility has a unique and distinctly recognizable name, a separate CIDS entry shall be entered for its Special Name/Place in addition to its address or addresses

A

A
Explanation:
Comm ch 4 page 4-5
When interconnected/attached buildings and building complexes have a separate house number posted on each building, a separate CIDS entry must be entered for each address. Example: Complex identified during research as 20-40 Pitkin Ave. but is 3 separate buildings each with a separate address number posted (20,30,40 Pitkin Ave.), a separate CIDS entry is required for 20, 30, and 40 with the “Transmitted Data” portion of each CIDS entry indicating the number of buildings in the complex

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9
Q

Question 10:
Following an incident in a structure where a small number of sprinkler heads have fused due to heat, instead of shutting down the OS&Y valve members may consider replacing these heads in order to restore the system to service. Which choice below is incorrect regarding this process?

A: FDNY members should only perform this action if the occupancy has the required heads in a metal cabinet with the appropriate sprinkler wrench and the safety of members would not be compromised.

B: When sprinkler heads are replaced by the FDNY, the administrative unit should be directed to follow up on the status of the system during business hours.

C: If there is any doubt that the replacement sprinkler heads are not the correct type for the system, do not replace the heads.

D: The replacement of sprinkler heads can only be ordered by a Division Chief or above.

A

D
Explanation:
The replacement of sprinkler heads can only be ordered by a Battalion Chief or above.
The FDNY does not replace sprinkler heads in compactor chutes, shafts, or other unsafe areas as determined by the Incident Commander (IC). Additionally, the FDNY does not typically replace sprinkler heads if the owner, impairment coordinator, or responsible building staff is available; the replacement of these heads is their responsibility. However, if the responsible party is present, but not capable of performing the replacement procedure, the Battalion Chief can consider replacement within the confines of the safety standards established above.
BISP Ch 5 Ref 1.1 5.1.5

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10
Q
Question 11:
As the BC in charge of a sector at a major collapse, you decide to establish "lookouts" at the perimeter of the collapse site. In order to properly equip these lookouts with air horns, you notify them they may retrieve these horns from all of the following units except?
A: Battalions
B: Divisions
C: SOC Units
D: Collapse PODs
A
D
Explanation:
D) Collapse Rescue Units
FFP Collapse 9.2.1
Collapse PODs are filled with shoring lumber, metal and concrete cutting saw blades, and a cutting table with templates for fabricating shoring.
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11
Q

Question 12:
Interpreting information on scene of an incident/fire is important for the first arriving Battalion Chief, especially when it comes to fires involving transformers. The following statements were made at a recent drill involving transformer fires: 1) Deactivation of transformers shall be performed by FDNY members or facility engineer(s) in consultation with the on scene Battalion Chief and Con Edison personnel……..2) SCBA shall be used at all times until the Officer in Command confirms that the area is free of toxic gases (including overhauling operations)…….3) Decontamination shall occur when members or equipment are exposed to levels of PCBs of 40 PPM or higher……..4) A PCB transformer will only be found on the “M2-A” car of the New Haven line of Metro North…….5) A NYC owned transformer will have a 6”x 6” decal placed on it with either a blue or yellow background……..6) If the number 5 PPM is shown in the box under the PCB column, the FDNY considers it as a Non-PCB transformer. Choose the correct statements

A: 1,2,3,4,5,6

B: 1,3,4,5,6

C: 1,3,4

D: 2,4,5

E: 2,5

A

Explanation:
AUC 266
1- Only by Con-Edison personnel or Engineering personnel. No member of this department shall attempt deactivation by direction or upon instruction of engineering personnel (6.4.2)
2- 6.4.8
3- 50 PPM or higher (8.1)
5- Yellow = PCB contaminated. Blue = NON PCB.
Add 3 sec 1.5.3 and 1.5.5
4- Though there is only 1 pantograph for every 2 cars, there will be a PCB containing transformer in every car which will have attached to it the EPA approval label (3.4 add 2)
6- Unless “0” PPM PCB is shown on the decal the NYC FD considers a transformer with any amount of PCBs as a PCB transformer

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12
Q

Question 13:
Positive pressure fans may be put in use by the IC to pressurize the attack and evacuation stairs in fireproof multiple dwellings in order to keep heat and smoke from entering the stairwells. Which of the following is not correct in reference to positive pressure fans?
A: The positive pressure fans shall only be transported while in operation in an emergency
B: When running fans at an incident, exhaust hoses must always be attached to the operating fan in order to limit and control the introduction of CO inside the structure
C: Fans shall never be refueled inside a structure
D: At MUD, fans shall be started and allowed to run at full RPM for 5 minutes

A
A
Explanation:
Training Bulletin Tools 32
A. The positive pressure fans shall NEVER be transported while in operation in an emergency3.2
B. 3.3
C. 3.5
D. 4.2
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13
Q

Question 14:
At fires, the overhaul stage is especially dangerous because when you remove your mask, toxic fumes can be lingering. Hydrogen Chloride can irritate your respiratory tract which may swell enough to cause suffocation. What odor does Hydrogen Chloride give off?
A: Odor of almonds
B: Pungent odor
C: Fruity odor
D: Hydrogen Chloride does not give off an odor but can be recognized by a reddish brown gas which can cause edema to the lungs leading to suffocation

A

B
Explanation:
Training Bulletin SCBA Addendum 3
A. Hydrogen cyanide is a gas that is colorless but has a noticeable almond odor. Section 2
B. Hydrogen chloride is colorless, but has a pungent odor and is intensely irritating not only to your eyes but also to your respiratory tract which may swell enough to suffocate you. Section 5
C. Acetaldehyde gives off a fruity odor. Section 8
D. Nitrogen dioxide, a reddish brown gas, irritates your lungs, and enough of it can cause edema that blocks breathing. Section 6

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14
Q

Question 15:
You are the first chief on scene at a chemical agent terrorist attack in the subway. Chemical protective clothing (CPC) will be used. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the duties of the CPC Unit Officer?
A: On arrival at a Haz-Mat incident the CPC Unit Officer shall report to the Incident Commander for a briefing.
B: The first arriving CPC Unit Officer will recommend to the IC the ENTRY POINT into the Hot Zone (based on their training, initial briefing and size-up).
C: The Incident Commander will establish the CPC Unit Assembly Area remote from the entry point.
D: CPC Unit entries into a contaminated area require a coordinated team effort by at least five (5) CPC trained members: Entry (2), Backup (2), and Decon (1), under the proper supervision.

A

C
Explanation:
C. The CPC Unit Officer will establish the CPC Unit Assembly Area adjacent to the entry point.
HM 5 4.1, 5.1

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15
Q

Question 16:
As the 10-75 BC taking up from an “All Hands” fire placed “Under Control” you encounter an active shooter in a bank at the end of the street. You would be correct to communicate your unit identity and location, via the dispatcher, to the NYPD. If possible, provide all of the following except?
A: Number, location(s), and description of shooter(s).
B: Number & location(s) of victims and hostages, if any.
C: Types of weapons in use (e.g., semiautomatic rifles, hand guns, explosives).
D: Number of stories, depth and construction of the building the shooter(s) is/are in.

A

D
Explanation:
D) Communication method used by shooters, if apparent (cell phones, etc.)
ERP Add 3A 4.2

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16
Q

Question 17:
In which case below would a High Priority Referral be more appropriate than requesting a Department of Buildings response?
A: Work contrary to “Stop Work Order”
B: Elevator incident with injuries
C: Illegal gas hook-up in a building (no gas leaking)
D: Debris/Building in danger of falling

A

C
Explanation:
BISP Ch 5 ref 2.1A sec 8.1 #3

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17
Q

Question 18:
Answer the following question according to Chief Dunn’s new book (2nd edition) Collapse of Burning Buildings. Regarding the collapse concerns at Places of Worship, it would be correct to state that _______.
A: Free standing walls will collapse before the tower and steeple
B: The chimney will collapse before tower and steeple
C: The free standing walls will collapse before the chimney
D: The tower and steeple will collapse first, then the chimney, then the free standing parapet walls

A

D
Explanation:
D…The tower and steeple are the most unstable
Ch 8

18
Q

Question 19:
The Fire Code requires that all water-based extinguishing systems comply with NFPA 25, which typically requires at least ___ replacement sprinkler heads in a metal cabinet easily accessible with the appropriate wrench.

A: 2

B: 6

C: 15

D: 30

A

B
Explanation:
Some occupancies require more sprinkler heads based on the total number of heads within the system; some occupancies could require less. Dry sprinkler systems are not required to maintain these replacement heads or R-3 occupancies (one or two family dwellings).
BISP Ch 5 Ref 1.1 5.1.5 Note

19
Q

Question 20:
Battalion 99 arrives at a fire on the 3rd floor of a 7 story H-type MD which has a cell-phone site on the roof. Which was the only correct action taken at the fire?
A: The Chief special called an additional engine and truck because the building has a cell phone site.
B: The Chief ensured a TL was responding following the transmission of the 1075 because the building has a cell phone site.
C: The Chief special called an additional BC above the 1075 to supervise roof operations because the building has a cell phone site.
D: The Chief ordered a hardline stretched to the roof to protect egress and against extension because the building has a cell phone site.

A

C
Explanation:
AUC 331 – CELL PHONE SITES
C is Correct – Note that unlike the other choices, C makes no mention of where the fire is in the building 6.5
A - Incorrect – if the cell site is involved, special call an additional engine and ladder 6.3
B - Incorrect – Insure tower ladder response on the initial alarm for a reported fire in these buildings 6.4
D - Incorrect – Consider stretching a hardline to the roof at upper floor fires. 6.7

20
Q

Question 21:
A top floor fire extends into the cockloft and extensive roof operations are underway. BC Bent Tip is assigned as the roof sector and members are cutting a trench around colored conduit. A sharp Chief Officer could readily identify the hazards associated with the Red, Orange, and Yellow conduit with black stripes they encountered during trench operations. Which choice correctly describes the conduit and piping found on the roof?
A: Red Conduit is high voltage wiring; Orange conduit is low voltage wiring; Yellow conduit with black stripes is fuel oil piping
B: Red Conduit is low voltage wiring; Orange conduit is high voltage wiring; Yellow conduit with black stripes is natural gas piping
C: Red conduit is low voltage wiring; Orange conduit is high voltage piping; Yellow conduit with black stripes is fuel oil piping
D: Red conduit is high voltage wiring; Orange conduit is low voltage wiring; Yellow conduit with black stripes is natural gas piping

A

A
Explanation:
FIRE CODE GUIDE CHAPTER 5 PAGE 4 – Not much in the fire code to commit to memory, but you could see a tactical question like this on the exam where the reference is not provided….
A is correct – Red conduit = High voltage wiring
Orange Conduit = Low voltage wiring
Yellow with black stripes = Fuel Oil Piping
Yellow piping = Natural gas
not listed above – Yellow piping labeled at regular intervals = Other compressed gas piping…

21
Q

Question 22:
The arriving BC at a Bulk Oil Tank Facility incident should know that “Steam” extinguishing systems can be identified by piping and valve bodies and handles which are ______.

A: red with contrasting black bands

B: red with contrasting brown bands

C: red with contrasting blue bands

D: red with contrasting bright orange bands

A

AExplanation:

BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 11 p150

22
Q
Question 23:
At a recent study group, Captain Hetfield argued with the other captains in the group about District Service Cabinet (DSC) and Community Board (CB) meetings. After reading and studying AUC 285, Captain Hetfield  claims the following statements to be correct: 1) DSC meetings are generally conducted in the morning or early afternoon, whereas, most CB meetings are conducted in the evening......2) If available, the CB Coordinator (or alternate) shall attend such meetings on a compensatory time basis......3) If the CB Coordinator (or alternate) is unable to attend on compensatory time, the Battalion Commander shall have a regularly assigned BC attend such meetings while on-duty......4) A regularly assigned BC is a Chief Officer working in the Battalion for more than a vacation period......5) Off-duty BCs will attend these meetings in Class "A" uniform and On-duty BCs will attend these meetings in work duty uniform . If attending on-duty, unit will be OOS for the duration of meeting unless the Supervising Dispatcher determines that the circumstances necessitate their response......6) If no BC is available to attend a DSC or CB meeting, a regularly assigned BC should notify the District Manager by phone prior to the meeting, if possible. The Battalion Commander shall ensure a follow-up call is made following the meeting...........Captain Hatfield's fellow captains say he is correct in which statements?
A: All are correct
B: Only 2,3,4,5,6
C: Only 2,4,5,6,
D: Only 1,3,5,6
E: Only 1,3,5
A

A
Explanation:
AUC 285 section 3
Following all meetings, the attending BC is required to forward a DSC and CB meeting report form through the chain of command to the Chief of Operations…..sec 6.2

23
Q

Question 24:
Before committing personnel to operate at a Radiological Emergency, the Incident Commander must assess the risk/benefit involved operating in the Hot Zone. What is the Decision Dose (whole body) for Firefighters when protecting major property?

A: 5 Rem

B: 10 Rem

C: 25 Rem

D: 50 Rem

A

Explanation:
ERP Addendum 4, Radiological Operations
A. General operations at a radiological emergency
B. 3.1.4 A. Table 3 Protective Action Guidelines
C. Lifesaving or protection of large populations
D. Lifesaving for a catastrophic event

24
Q

Question 25:
Which of the following features common in private dwellings is not correctly stated?
A: In the Straight Line Colonial , a single offset window on the exposure 2 or 4 side of the 2nd floor may indicate the top of the interior stairs leading to the second floor.
B: Queen Annes will have a narrow rear or side stair that connects the 1st, 2nd and 3rd floors, or a stair may lead directly to the 3rd floor from the 1st floor.
C: A dwelling which has 2 or 3 stories in the front may be 3 or 4 stories in the rear. If so, the fire floor should be used as a point of reference as the difference in floor levels may not always be apparent from the front.
D: An open and unenclosed stairway is the major weakness from a firefighting and fire protection standpoint.

A
C
Explanation:
PD Ch 1
A. Photo 1.4 - Note on pg 8.
B. sect 3.3
C. sect 2.5 - The TOP floor may be used as a point of reference as the difference in floor levels may not always be apparent from the front.
D. sect 2.1
25
Q

Question 26:
A knowledgeable Battalion Chief should be familiar with smoke detectors and particularly PAID 6-2009. Of the following choices, which is incorrect?
A: There are two types of smoke alarms, photoelectric and ionization. Both are suitable for use in the home.
B: The photoelectric type alarms are the most reliable for smoldering fires.
C: The ionization type alarms are the most reliable for flaming fires.
D: The ionization type alarms are the most reliable for the types of fires which may occur in bedrooms or sitting rooms. The photoelectric type alarms are the most reliable for the types of fires which may occur in the kitchen or garage.

A

D
Explanation:
The photoelectric type alarms are the most reliable for smoldering fires, which may occur in bedrooms or sitting rooms. The ionization type alarms are the most reliable for flaming fires, which may occur in the kitchen or garage.
ABC 6-2009 1.3

26
Q

Question 27:
A BC in Staten Island was incorrect in which of his thoughts regarding extensive brush fire operations?
A: Bunker gear equipped firefighters can become debilitated from walking long distances into wildlands and working with Indian Pumps and brooms. The need for additional units should be anticipated.
B: A rehabilitation area should be established and designated and the use of Recuperation and Care Units should be maximized.
C: The IC shall give orders to responding units via the department radio or handie-talkie. Units are not to self-commit to operations unless structures are exposed.
D: ATVs are useful for victim removal but have no firefighting capabilities.

A

D
Explanation:
D) ATVs have limited firefighting capabilities.
ATVs have 20 gpm pumps, 70-gallon tanks, booster reel, forestry hose, Indian pumps, pump-and-roll capability, and all wheel drive.
AUC 151 4.6.2, 5.1.2, 5.1.6

27
Q

Question 28:
Following a string of Maydays at his fires, Chief Close Call decided to stop by the companies in the battalion to discuss the capabilities of the Pak-tracker. Which is the only correct statement heard during the visits?
A: When taking a reading with the Pak-Tracker, always pause for 4-5 seconds.
B: The Pak-Tracker will emit a two-tone audible alarm when it receives a signal from a pass device in full alarm for 20 seconds.
C: Once a Pak-Tracker locks onto one signal, It still retains the ability to receive additional Pass Alarm signals.
D: During a search, the LED’s will begin to light when the signal strength rises above the 50% level.

A

D

Explanation:
Training Bulletins – SCBA 8 - Pak-Tracker
D is correct 7.6
A – 3 to 4 seconds 7.9
B – full alarm for 10 seconds 5.2
C – Pak-Tracker receiver can only lock onto one SCBA at a time 5.4

28
Q
Question 29:
In his book collapse of burning buildings edition II, Chief Dunn discusses 4 factors that will increase the number of burning building collapses. Which choice below is not listed as one of the 4 factors?
A: Abandonment
B: Age of buildings
C: Use of lightweight materials
D: Elimination of masonry walls
A

D
Explanation:
Chapter 1
A. buildings deteriorate due to exposure to weather conditions
B. buildings have a life span of 75-100 years
C. lightweight wood trusses, sheet metal, C-beams, wooden I beams, open bar steel joists, collapse more quickly.
D. Faulty Renovations

29
Q

Question 30:
Concerning “hazing” in the NYC Fire Department, all definitions below are considered correct with the exception of which choice?
A: Hazing is an act that includes, but is not limited to, any form of initiation or a “rite of passage” into an employee group, unit, or work location that involves the potential for, or causes, physical injury, mental harm or personal humiliation.
B: Soliciting, coercing, participating in, or condoning others to engage in hazing-type activity is also considered hazing.
C: In order to be deemed hazing, the activity must involve some type of physical contact among or between employees; hazing is not considered verbal or psychological in nature.
D: Hazing includes, but is not limited to, conduct that is cruel, abusive, humiliating, intimidating, oppressive, demeaning or harmful.

A

C
Explanation:
Hazing need not involve any physical contact among or between employees; it can be, in part or wholly, verbal or psychological in nature.
PAID 1-2013 2.1

30
Q
Question 31:
Delayed responding from a division conference, Battalion 99 arrives at the scene of an improvised explosive device.  The first alarm assignment is in place.  Pending the arrival of a Battalion Chief to assume this responsibility, which first alarm unit will the chief officer contact to provide patient tracking information at the Triage Transfer Point?
A: First Arriving Engine Officer
B: Second Arriving Engine Officer
C: First Arriving Truck Officer
D: Second Arriving Truck Officer
A

B
Explanation:
ERP ADDENDUM 3 – Explosive or Incendiary Incidents
B is correct – 5.3.2 Listed under 2nd engine duties – The second arriving Engine officer must remain at the Triage Transfer Point and assume control until relieved by a Battalion Chief. This officer will be responsible for supporting EMS, providing information and situational awareness, and Providing patient tracking information.

31
Q
Question 32:
You are the BC assigned as the resource unit leader to a 2nd alarm in Manhattan. The MDT printout shows many suffixes after the engine companies. Select the correct letter suffix according to the specific task assigned.
A: E5Y- Satellite Unit
B: E21S- Communications Unit
C: E28F- Foam Unit
D: E24I- Incident Control Unit
A
B
Explanation:
Comm 2  page 2-37
A- Systems Control Unit
C- FAST Unit
D- Fire and Ice Unit
32
Q
Question 33:
According to Dunn, There are four factors that determine the speed with which unprotected steel will fail during a fire. Choose the incorrect one.
A: The temperature of the fire
B: The shear stress
C: The steel thickness
D: The size of the fire
A

B
Explanation:
The load stress…the greater the supported load, the faster a structural member can fail ch 10

33
Q

Question 34:
A first alarm assignment arrives at the scene of a manhole where a Con Edison worker has fallen 20’ down sustaining life threatening injuries. A series of decisions were made in haste to save his life. Which of the following actions was correctly carried out by the on scene units?
A: The Engine firefighters assisted the truck companies in lowering a member secured to a life saving rope while the BC conferred with the truck Captain on a retrieval system.
B: Because it could support 600 lbs, the first arriving aerial ladder was quickly positioned to be used as a high point anchor.
C: Rescue arrived with an oxygen meter and made the determination that the air was safe to breathe without an SCBA.
D: As a result of a poorly assembled retrieval system, a tower ladder was used to lift the victim and rescuer from the hole once packaging was completed.

A

C
Explanation:
CONFINED SPACE
A - Incorrect – IC should carefully evaluate their ability to retrieve an injured or overcome member prior to allowing entry. 4.3
B - Incorrect – Aerial ladders can support 250 lbs as a high point anchor. 4.4
C - Correct – The only safe was to detect a lack of oxygen is through the use of oxygen meters carried by Rescue and Haz-mat. 2.1.1
D - Incorrect - Aerial or Tower Ladders should never be used as a crane to lift a person. 4.4

34
Q

Question 35:
In his new book, Chief Dunn dedicates an entire chapter to collapse of buildings under construction. From the list below, choose an incorrect statement regarding crane collapse in these buildings.
A: Crane collapse occurs most often when the building is involved in fire
B: The worst type of incident in buildings under construction is when the crane fails and collapses damaging both the building being worked on and adjacent buildings
C: Collapsed buildings can catch fire due to broken gas pipes and electric sparks
D: If the building is on fire and exposing the crane, a master stream shall be used to protect the crane operator

A

A
Explanation:
when the crane is overloaded, moved, assembled, or disassembled…NOT DURING FIRES
Ch 16

35
Q

Click here for in-basket REGS Ch 17 PAID 90-1 PAID 75-3 BISP Ch 4 Add 4 BISP Ch 3 add 2 IG 10

Question 37:
If an owner and/or occupant refuse to vacate a premise within the designated time after service of an initial Vacate Order, or if surveillance discloses that a vacated building is occupied, all actions below would be appropriate except for which choice?

A: A Criminal Court summons shall be issued to the owner and to any occupants for failure to comply with the Vacate Order/Vacate and Seal Order. This summons shall be issued in addition to the initial summons and/or FDNY Summons issued to the owner, when the Vacate Order and/or Vacate and Seal was issued.

B: Efforts shall be made to serve the building owner with the summons.

C: If the vacate order was issued by the Department of Buildings, a copy of the Summons addressed to DOB shall immediately be forwarded to the BISP Unit through the chain of command.

D: If, following the issuance of a Vacate Order and summons, the occupants refuse to leave the premises, the on-scene Deputy Chief shall request, via the dispatcher, Police Department response for assistance in enforcing the Vacate Order.

A

C
Explanation:
If the vacate order was issued by the Department of Buildings, then DOB shall be called to the scene to enforce the vacate order. A Criminal Court Summons shall never be issued by the FDNY for failure to comply with another agency’s vacate order (HPD, DOB, etc.).
BISP Ch 4 Add 4 11.1, 11.2

36
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Question 38:
Of the following choices, which would not meet the Department’s requirements for the granting of “emergency leave?”

A: Member reports he needs to leave as his step-father, who does not live with him, is in the hospital with severe chest pains.

B: Member reports he needs to leave as the water heater in his home broke down, leaving his wife and children with no hot water on a cold January night.

C: Member reports he needs to leave as his sister, who does not live with him, has suffered a stroke.

D: Member reports he needs to leave as his brother, who lives in the same home with him, has been admitted to the ER for an unknown, serious illness.

A

B
Explanation:
Deputy Chiefs shall, when notified of serious illness of a spouse, child, parent (step, foster or natural), brother or sister of a member, grant an emergency leave to member. Deputy Chief granting such leave shall complete and forward form BP-603.
Regs 17.4.1

37
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Question 39:
Of the following infractions, in which is Command Discipline generally not appropriate?
A: Improper uniform or fire clothing equipment.
B: Two or more tours where a member was AWOL.
C: Disrespect to an officer or superior.
D: Leaving assigned place of duty without authority.

A

B
Explanation:
AWOL not exceeding one tour of duty.
PAID 3-75 2.2

38
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Question 40:
There are many instances where a Firefighter is ineligible for RSOT. Which RSOT tour should be approved?
A: FF Wilson who is a 6th grade Firefighter that was hired to the Fire Department 5 1/2 month ago.
B: FF Stafford who is on accrued leave.
C: FF Sheen whose is on vacation leave that was rescheduled due to being on other than line of duty medical leave.
D: FF Jones who is on terminal leave.

A

C
Explanation:
RSOT is not permitted for 6th grade Firefighters with less than six (6) months in the Department (refer to PA/ID 1-90 Addendum 5). RSOT is not permitted for Firefighters on accrued or terminal leave. Firefighters whose vacation leaves have been rescheduled due to their being on other than line of duty medical leave, and as a result have their scheduled RSOT tour fall between their scheduled vacation dates, may either work or mutual exchange their RSOT tour.
PAID 1-90 8.11, 12, 14

39
Q

Question 9:
The battalion chief arrives at a fast spreading 2nd alarm Taxpayer fire where he smells a strong odor of gas coming from the structure. He correctly radios the unit who is responsible for shutting down the utilities. Which unit would that be?

A: First arriving ladder‘s inside team

B: First arriving ladder’s outside team

C: Second arriving ladder’s inside team

D: Second arriving ladder’s outside team

A

A
Explanation:
Taxpayers 8.2.2
In P.D.’s it is the responsibility of the second arriving ladder (P.D.’s ch 4 sec 4.2)

40
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Question 36:
Click here for in-basket REGS Ch 17 PAID 90-1 PAID 75-3 BISP Ch 4 Add 4 BISP Ch 3 add 2 IG 10 While working in Battalion 59, you receive an administrative assignment to respond to a construction site to meet Engine 100. Upon arrival, the officer has some serious concerns regarding the location and construction of the contractor’s office at the site. Of the following choices, which would be in accordance with the Building Code?

A: It may be located within 30 feet of the building under construction and shall be made of metal or other noncombustible material. Fire Retardant treated wood may be used when protected from the weather.

B: It may be located within 30 feet of the building under construction and shall be made of metal or other noncombustible material. Fire Retardant treated wood shall never be used.

C: It shall never be located closer than 30 feet from the building under construction and may be made of wood, metal or other material.

D: It shall never be located closer than 30 feet from the building under construction and shall be made of metal or other noncombustible material. Fire Retardant treated wood shall never be used.

A

A
Explanation:
BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 10 p 10