Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:
You are the BC at a fire in the private dwelling. CIDS states the building was constructed using lightweight wood trusses. You would know all of the following are correct except?

A: The positioning of the 1st hoseline for a quick knock-down of a contents fire that has not extended to the structural components is of paramount importance.

B: When the spacing between the lightweight floor supports is 24” apart, the potential exists for a larger opening to be formed for members to fall through to the floor below.

C: The IC shall special call an additional engine company for a structural fire in a PD constructed of lightweight materials.

D:When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with one hoseline, an outside operation Is mandatory.

A

Question 1:
You are the BC at a fire in the private dwelling. CIDS states the building was constructed using lightweight wood trusses. You would know all of the following are correct except?

A: The positioning of the 1st hoseline for a quick knock-down of a contents fire that has not extended to the structural components is of paramount importance.

B: When the spacing between the lightweight floor supports is 24” apart, the potential exists for a larger opening to be formed for members to fall through to the floor below.

C: The IC shall special call an additional engine company for a structural fire in a PD constructed of lightweight materials.

D:✔When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with one hoseline, an outside operation Is mandatory.
Explanation:
Private Dwellings Ch 6
A. sect 4.2.1
B. sect 4.2.4
C. sect 4.2.2
D. sect 4.2.3 - When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with TWO hoselines, then an outside operation must be considered.

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2
Q

Question 2:
Chief Officers should be aware of the many hazards associated with steam found in NYC. Of the following, which choice contains incorrect information?

A:Con Edison is the only company that generates and provides high pressure steam in New York City.

B: Steam pressures in generating plants can be as high as 2,000 psi with temperatures reaching 900ºF.

C: Steam pressures in buried supply piping and in supplied buildings can be as high as 170 psi and temperatures as high as 350ºF.

D:Asbestos pipe insulation can be found in the plant, on pipes buried under the street and in buildings supplied with steam.

A

Question 2:
Chief Officers should be aware of the many hazards associated with steam found in NYC. Of the following, which choice contains incorrect information?

A:✔Con Edison is the only company that generates and provides high pressure steam in New York City.

B: Steam pressures in generating plants can be as high as 2,000 psi with temperatures reaching 900ºF.

C: Steam pressures in buried supply piping and in supplied buildings can be as high as 170 psi and temperatures as high as 350ºF.

D:✘Asbestos pipe insulation can be found in the plant, on pipes buried under the street and in buildings supplied with steam.
Explanation:
Con Edison is not the only entity generating high pressure steam in New York City. High pressure steam, generated for use in housing complexes, hospitals and various commercial locations, can be found in any borough. These District Steam systems will have the same hazards as the Con Edison system but will not be run or maintained by the Con Edison. When discovered, district steam systems shall be entered into the CIDS Program.
EP Steam 1.2, 2.2, 4.1

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3
Q

Question 3:
Fire extension throughout H-type MDs is of great concern. Which choice below contains correct information regarding construction features meant to minimize the potential for extension?

A: Between 1920 and 1930, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1930, to the top of the roof boards.

B: Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the top of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the underside of the roof boards.

C:Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the top of the roof boards.

D: Between 1920 and 1930, firewalls were required to be carried to the top of the roof boards, and after 1930, to the underside of the roof boards.

A

Question 3:
Fire extension throughout H-type MDs is of great concern. Which choice below contains correct information regarding construction features meant to minimize the potential for extension?

A: Between 1920 and 1930, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1930, to the top of the roof boards.

B: Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the top of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the underside of the roof boards.

C:✔Between 1930 and 1940, firewalls were required to be carried to the underside of the roof boards, and after 1940, to the top of the roof boards.

D: Between 1920 and 1930, firewalls were required to be carried to the top of the roof boards, and after 1930, to the underside of the roof boards.
Explanation:
C. These changes were designed to effectively reduce the size of the cockloft and limit fire spread.
Acronym: CUT
C - ceiling - before 1930
U - underside roof boards - 1930-1940
T - top roof boards - after 1940
MD 2.4
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4
Q

Question 4:
A properly trained BC knows how to ensure members at the scene of an operation are properly cared for. All of the following are in accordance with FDNY policy except?

A: One RAC Unit will respond to signal 10-75 and greater alarms, 10-60, 10-76, 10-77, and when special called by the IC. At an expanding or extended operation, additional RAC Units may be special called.

B: Members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 20 minutes before being reassigned. Depending on conditions, the IC, in consultation with the Rehabilitation Group Manager, Medical Branch Director or designee, may modify the time frame for rehabilitation.

C:At 2nd or greater alarms or when special called for by the IC, the RUL shall assign units being relieved or released to the Rehabilitation Group, ass appropriate. Units shall be sent in manageable groups, usually three units at a time, so as to not overcrowd the Rehabilitation Group

D: The RUL shall use the Rehabilitation Tracking Sheet and/or the Incident Command Application to document which units and members have reported to, and have been evaluated by the Rehabilitation Group. Once members complete the rehabilitation process, they may become available for another assignment to augment the operation.

A

Question 4:
A properly trained BC knows how to ensure members at the scene of an operation are properly cared for. All of the following are in accordance with FDNY policy except?

A: One RAC Unit will respond to signal 10-75 and greater alarms, 10-60, 10-76, 10-77, and when special called by the IC. At an expanding or extended operation, additional RAC Units may be special called.

B: Members entering rehabilitation should normally rest for approximately 20 minutes before being reassigned. Depending on conditions, the IC, in consultation with the Rehabilitation Group Manager, Medical Branch Director or designee, may modify the time frame for rehabilitation.

C:✔At 2nd or greater alarms or when special called for by the IC, the RUL shall assign units being relieved or released to the Rehabilitation Group, ass appropriate. Units shall be sent in manageable groups, usually three units at a time, so as to not overcrowd the Rehabilitation Group

D: The RUL shall use the Rehabilitation Tracking Sheet and/or the Incident Command Application to document which units and members have reported to, and have been evaluated by the Rehabilitation Group. Once members complete the rehabilitation process, they may become available for another assignment to augment the operation.
Explanation:
Hot topics are always highly likely questions. This is about as hot a topic as we have this year.
Four units at a time
AUC 230 sec 7.2, 7.4, 7.5 and add 1 sec 3.1

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5
Q

Question 5:
You the BC, attend a routine Division conference on Thursday July 5, 2018 to discuss the updated AUC on Major Aircraft Emergencies. The DC in charge of the conference made several statements regarding this bulletin, which were as follows:
A- The first arriving Chief officer shall make contact with the PAPD and ascertain the type and nature of incident…..
B- The first arriving Chief Officer shall designate a Company officer to command the Staging Area until the arrival of the third BC…..
C- The first arriving Chief Officer is to notify the FD dispatcher to notify all responding Chief Officers to activate their post radios and cell phones…..
D- The first arriving Chief Officer shall activate their 800 MHz radio and cell phone…..
E- Communications from the Command Post to the staging area can be accomplished by Post Radio directly to the Staging Area, or Department Radio if two Post Radios are not yet available, or Port Authority Radio to the PAPD Liaison at the Staging Area…… Which statements were correct?
A: A, D
B: A, B, D
C: A, B, E
D: A,B, C, E
E: A, B, C, D, E

A

Question 5:
You the BC, attend a routine Division conference on Thursday July 5, 2018 to discuss the updated AUC on Major Aircraft Emergencies. The DC in charge of the conference made several statements regarding this bulletin, which were as follows: A- The first arriving Chief officer shall make contact with the PAPD and ascertain the type and nature of incident….. B- The first arriving Chief Officer shall designate a Company officer to command the Staging Area until the arrival of the third BC….. C- The first arriving Chief Officer is to notify the FD dispatcher to notify all responding Chief Officers to activate their post radios and cell phones….. D- The first arriving Chief Officer shall activate their 800 MHz radio and cell phone….. E- Communications from the Command Post to the staging area can be accomplished by Post Radio directly to the Staging Area, or Department Radio if two Post Radios are not yet available, or Port Authority Radio to the PAPD Liaison at the Staging Area…… Which statements were correct?

A:✔A, D

B: A, B, D

C: A, B, E

D: A,B, C, E

E: A, B, C, D, E
Explanation:
AUC 325
B- until arrival of 2nd BC
C- 800 MHz radios not Post Radios
E- 800 MHz radios not Post radios
This format is similar to some of the last DC exam questions. Hopefully they won't go to it again, but we need you to be prepared for all types of questions
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6
Q

Question 6:
In which incident would the FDNY be considered the primary agency according to CIMS?

A: Emotionally Disturbed Person

B:Elevator Emergency

C: Explosive Device

D: Water Rescue

A

Question 6:
In which incident would the FDNY be considered the primary agency according to CIMS?

A: Emotionally Disturbed Person

B:✔Elevator Emergency

C: Explosive Device

D: Water Rescue
Explanation:
B. For all others, NYPD is the primary agency.
FDNY primary agency acronym: ABCDEF
Auto accident - when first to arrive
Boat in distress -when first to arrive
Confined space / Collapse (structural)
Down tree (with Dept of Parks & Rec)
Elev / Entrapment & Impalement
Fire
*Haz-Mat (with NYPD if NOT criminal/terrorism)
AUC 276 5.1
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7
Q

Question 7:
Battalion 46 is sent as the decon task force leader for a mass decon at Citifield. Chief Waters knows that when two engines and one ladder are used to set up a corridor for emergency gross decontamination, all of the following guidelines should be followed except in which choice?

A:Pumpers shall be set up with control panels facing the inside of the spray area.

B: Pumpers should be approximately 25’ feet apart.

C: If a tower ladder is used the Turbomaster fog nozzle should be utilized.

D: If an aerial ladder is used the Aquastream fog nozzle should be utilized.

A

Question 7:
Question 7:
Battalion 46 is sent as the decon task force leader for a mass decon at Citifield. Chief Waters knows that when two engines and one ladder are used to set up a corridor for emergency gross decontamination, all of the following guidelines should be followed except in which choice?

A:✔Pumpers shall be set up with control panels facing the inside of the spray area.

B: Pumpers should be approximately 25’ feet apart.

C: If a tower ladder is used the Turbomaster fog nozzle should be utilized.

D: If an aerial ladder is used the Aquastream fog nozzle should be utilized.
Explanation:
A. Pumpers shall be set up with control panels facing the outside of the spray area.
If a third pumper is used in place of a TL / AL, use the Aquastream nozzle.
HM 7 2.4.5 Note

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8
Q

Question 8:
When operating at a taxpayer fire, the potential for a backdraft to occur is a major concern for all members on scene. Choose the correct procedure when dealing with a potential backdraft.

A: The proper procedure is to open the roof as far away from the fire as possible

B: If horizontal ventilation is performed at lower levels prior to roof venting, the chances of a backdraft explosion are greatly decreased

C: Depending on conditions, it may be preferable to vent the rear windows and allow the gases to ignite prior to entry for search and extinguishment of the fire

D:An alternative to roof venting, although not as effective, is the use of a hose stream

A

Question 8:
When operating at a taxpayer fire, the potential for a backdraft to occur is a major concern for all members on scene. Choose the correct procedure when dealing with a potential backdraft.

A: The proper procedure is to open the roof as far away from the fire as possible

B: If horizontal ventilation is performed at lower levels prior to roof venting, the chances of a backdraft explosion are greatly decreased

C: Depending on conditions, it may be preferable to vent the rear windows and allow the gases to ignite prior to entry for search and extinguishment of the fire

D:✔An alternative to roof venting, although not as effective, is the use of a hose stream
Explanation:
Taxpayers page 21 and 22
A. Open the roof or area directly over the fire
B. Increased
C. Front windows

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9
Q

Question 9:
The ___________ Unit is responsible for the collection, processing and organization of incident information. Generally this information is graphically displayed on the command board, or other display at the Incident Command Post.

A:Resource Unit

B:Situation Unit

C: Demobilization Unit

D: Documentation Unit

A

Question 9:
The ___________ Unit is responsible for the collection, processing and organization of incident information. Generally this information is graphically displayed on the command board, or other display at the Incident Command Post.

A:✘Resource Unit

B:✔Situation Unit

C: Demobilization Unit

D: Documentation Unit
Explanation:
ICS Manual Chapter 1
A. The Resource Unit is responsible for maintaining status information of all resources allocated to the incident 4.2.1
B. 4.2.2
C. The Demobilization Unit ensures safe, effective, organized release of resources from the incident 4.2.3
D. The Documentation Unit maintains an accurate and complete log of incident records for analytical, historical and legal purposes 4.2.4

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10
Q

Question 10:
A newly promoted Company Officer calls you when you are working the 9x6 tour in B-100 on Tuesday June 12, 2018 to ask about the Proby Notebook/Development Program. You make the following statements:……
A- At the end of each month, a proby gets 3 attempts to take a 20 question quiz…..
B- Company Commanders shall initial and date once a month in red the proby notebook……
C- Cross unit details can be conducted after completing 60 days of service where assigned……
D- Cross unit details shall be for a period of 60 days……
E- An OSA-2 is needed for a cross unit detail……
Which statements are correct?

A: A, B, C, D, E

B: A, B, C, E

C: A, B, D, E

D:A, B, E

E: D, E

A

Question 10:
A newly promoted Company Officer calls you when you are working the 9x6 tour in B-100 on Tuesday June 12, 2018 to ask about the Proby Notebook/Development Program. You make the following statements:…… A- At the end of each month, a proby gets 3 attempts to take a 20 question quiz….. B- Company Commanders shall initial and date once a month in red the proby notebook…… C- Cross unit details can be conducted after completing 60 days of service where assigned…… D- Cross unit details shall be for a period of 60 days…… E- An OSA-2 is needed for a cross unit detail…… Which statements are correct?

A: A, B, C, D, E

B: A, B, C, E

C: A, B, D, E

D:✔A, B, E

E: D, E
Explanation:
AUC 323 page 2
C- 90 days
D- 90 days
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11
Q

Question 11:
A well-trained BC would know all of the following choices to contain correct information regarding operations at a radiological emergency except?

A: Establish incident command in accordance with CIMS. The Fire Department will designate an Operations Chief to direct all search and rescue, structural evacuation, fire suppression, pre-hospital emergency medical care, Haz-Mat life safety and decontamination operations.

B: In the event the Radiological Emergency is intentional, special call Fire Marshals for additional security and crime scene preservation. Also consider locating the command post in a safer area.

C: Initial operations for victim rescue and fire suppression should not be impeded for rates in the R/hr range.

D: The cumulative dose during a catastrophic event that triggers a decision whether to remove first responders from the hot zone is 50 Rem.

A

Question 11:
A well-trained BC would know all of the following choices to contain correct information regarding operations at a radiological emergency except?

A: Establish incident command in accordance with CIMS. The Fire Department will designate an Operations Chief to direct all search and rescue, structural evacuation, fire suppression, pre-hospital emergency medical care, Haz-Mat life safety and decontamination operations.

B: In the event the Radiological Emergency is intentional, special call Fire Marshals for additional security and crime scene preservation. Also consider locating the command post in a safer area.

C:✔Initial operations for victim rescue and fire suppression should not be impeded for rates in the R/hr range.

D: The cumulative dose during a catastrophic event that triggers a decision whether to remove first responders from the hot zone is 50 Rem.
Explanation:
C) Initial operations for victim rescue and fire suppression should not be impeded for rates in the mR/hr range.
ERP Add 4 3, 3.1.2 B, 3.1.4 C

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12
Q

Question 12:
As a BC, you just received a phone notification from one of your lieutenants that she just submitted an immediate CIDS entry of a hazardous condition involving one of her buildings. After this notification your next coarse of action should be to what?

A:Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the administrative DC by phone to inform him of the pending immediate CIDS

B: Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the BISP unit by phone to inform them of the pending immediate CIDS

C: Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the FDOC by phone to inform them of the pending immediate CIDS

D: Immediately call the administrative DC by phone and have the DC enter the immediate CIDS into Starfire via the green screen

A

Question 12:
As a BC, you just received a phone notification from one of your lieutenants that she just submitted an immediate CIDS entry of a hazardous condition involving one of her buildings. After this notification your next coarse of action should be to what?

A:✔Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the administrative DC by phone to inform him of the pending immediate CIDS

B: Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the BISP unit by phone to inform them of the pending immediate CIDS

C: Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, you shall notify the FDOC by phone to inform them of the pending immediate CIDS

D: Immediately call the administrative DC by phone and have the DC enter the immediate CIDS into Starfire via the green screen
Explanation:
Communications ch 4 sec 4.3.3
Upon notification, the administrative DC shall enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, the DC shall notify FDOC by phone

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13
Q

Question 13:
Of the following injuries below, which is considered minor according to the FDNY?

A: A sprain with discoloration

B: first degree burn

C: Shortness of breath

D: Chest pains

A

Question 13:
Of the following injuries below, which is considered minor according to the FDNY?

A: A sprain with discoloration

B:✔first degree burn

C: Shortness of breath

D: Chest pains
Explanation:
SB 7 sec 2.1.7

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14
Q

Question 14:
An experienced BC would know that at an Under River Rail fire/emergency, the best location for the Command Post may not be evident until the situation is more well-defined. The Command Post location should provide all of the following except?

A:In most cases, the initial Command Post will be located at the station closest to the tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned Battalion Chief.

B: Protection from smoke, hazardous materials and excessive noise (upwind and a safe distance from the ventilation system exhaust fans).

C: Sufficient room for representatives from numerous agencies.

D: Communication capability between the Command Post and the under river tube.

A

Question 14:
An experienced BC would know that at an Under River Rail fire/emergency, the best location for the Command Post may not be evident until the situation is more well-defined. The Command Post location should provide all of the following except?

A:✔In most cases, the initial Command Post will be located at the station closest to the tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned Battalion Chief.

B: Protection from smoke, hazardous materials and excessive noise (upwind and a safe distance from the ventilation system exhaust fans).

C: Sufficient room for representatives from numerous agencies.

D: Communication capability between the Command Post and the under river tube.
Explanation:
In most cases, the initial Command Post will be located at the station closest to the tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned Deputy Chief.
Under River Rail sec 4.4

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15
Q

Question 15:
BC Falcon sends members of a FAST Unit to rescue a downed FF. They would be correct to know that, for a member in distress, the HT beacon tone takes priority over received audio. The HT that transmitted the emergency will cut off incoming transmissions to the member in distress in order to sound the beacon at regular intervals, every ______.

A: 2 seconds

B:4 seconds

C:10 seconds

D: 30 seconds

A

Question 15:
BC Falcon sends members of a FAST Unit to rescue a downed FF. They would be correct to know that, for a member in distress, the HT beacon tone takes priority over received audio. The HT that transmitted the emergency will cut off incoming transmissions to the member in distress in order to sound the beacon at regular intervals, every ______.

A: 2 seconds

B:✔4 seconds

C:✘10 seconds

D: 30 seconds
Explanation:
MMID Ch 4 6.4

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16
Q

It is important that Chief Officers be familiar with the FDNY’s EEO policy. Of the following choices, which is stated incorrectly?

A: Face to face communication works 90% of the time to stop offensive behavior.

B: Although face-to-face communication may be the best way to handle most issues, there are times when a person may feel threatened or uncomfortable. In such a case, the harassed individual may communicate this immediately to his/her Officer and/or an FDNY EEO Officer/EEO Counselor.

C:If it is the complainant’s Officer who is engaging in the offensive conduct, the complainant should communicate directly with the EEO Officer/EEO Counselor and NOT with someone at the next level of supervision.

D: According to the FDNY’s policy, the recipient of the behavior determines whether it is unwelcome or offensive.

A

Question 16:
It is important that Chief Officers be familiar with the FDNY’s EEO policy. Of the following choices, which is stated incorrectly?

A: Face to face communication works 90% of the time to stop offensive behavior.

B: Although face-to-face communication may be the best way to handle most issues, there are times when a person may feel threatened or uncomfortable. In such a case, the harassed individual may communicate this immediately to his/her Officer and/or an FDNY EEO Officer/EEO Counselor.

C:✔If it is the complainant’s Officer who is engaging in the offensive conduct, the complainant should communicate directly with the EEO Officer/EEO Counselor and NOT with someone at the next level of supervision.

D: According to the FDNY’s policy, the recipient of the behavior determines whether it is unwelcome or offensive.
Explanation:
If it is the complainant’s Officer who is engaging in the offensive conduct, the complainant should communicate with someone at the next level of supervision and/or EEO Officer/EEO Counselor.
TB EEO 1.5, 2

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17
Q

Question 17:
The UCALL/UTAC are the National UHF inter-operable radio frequencies used by FDNY Incident Commanders to communicate with public safety agencies. When using FDNY Handie-Talkie radios, the primary UTAC channel for use in the NYC region can be found in which choice?

A: Channel 5 Zone A

B:Channel 6 Zone A

C: Channel 9 Zone B

D:Channel 10 Zone B

A

Question 17:
The UCALL/UTAC are the National UHF inter-operable radio frequencies used by FDNY Incident Commanders to communicate with public safety agencies. When using FDNY Handie-Talkie radios, the primary UTAC channel for use in the NYC region can be found in which choice?

A: Channel 5 Zone A

B:✘Channel 6 Zone A

C: Channel 9 Zone B

D:✔Channel 10 Zone B
Explanation:
Also Named UTAC 42D
The calling channel is channel 5 Zone B
Comm Ch 14 add 4
18
Q

Question 18:
Which of the following choices correctly describes the minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components at a Con Ed facility?

A:15 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or less fog streams.

B: 75 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 130° fog. This distance is equal to approximately one and one-half (1½) lengths of hose.

C: 25 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams. This distance is equal to approximately one and one-half ( 1 ½) length of hose.

D: 125 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately two and one-half (2 ½) lengths of hose.

A

Question 18:
Which of the following choices correctly describes the minimum safe operating distance for applying water on energized or de-energized electrical components at a Con Ed facility?

A:✘15 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or less fog streams.

B: 75 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 130° fog. This distance is equal to approximately one and one-half (1½) lengths of hose.

C: 25 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams. This distance is equal to approximately one and one-half ( 1 ½) length of hose.

D:✔125 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately two and one-half (2 ½) lengths of hose.
Explanation:
D
15 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams.
75 feet on live 138 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately one and one-half (1½) lengths of hose.
25 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for 30° or greater fog streams. This distance is equal to approximately one-half (½) length of hose.
125 feet on live 345 kV electrical components for all straight or solid streams and streams less than 30° fog. This distance is equal to approximately two and one-half (2 ½) lengths of hose.
AUC 338 5.3

19
Q

Question 19:
You are the “Roof Sector Supervisor” at a top floor building fire and you notice several colored pipes at roof level that might interfere with roof operations. As the Chief, you should know what the color of each pipe indicates. Choose the incorrect color piping.

A: Red color piping indicates high voltage wiring

B: Orange color piping indicates low voltage wiring

C: Yellow with black stripes color piping indicates fuel oil

D: Green, labeled at regular intervals with the type of gas, color piping indicates other compressed gases

A

Question 19:
You are the “Roof Sector Supervisor” at a top floor building fire and you notice several colored pipes at roof level that might interfere with roof operations. As the Chief, you should know what the color of each pipe indicates. Choose the incorrect color piping.

A: Red color piping indicates high voltage wiring

B: Orange color piping indicates low voltage wiring

C: Yellow with black stripes color piping indicates fuel oil

D:✔Green, labeled at regular intervals with the type of gas, color piping indicates other compressed gases
Explanation:
BISP Ch 3 Add 2 #11 IG- Fire Code Guide Page 27
Not an in-basket question…This is a tactical question…There are 5 colored pipes:
High voltage wiring – Red.
Low voltage wiring – Orange.
Natural gas piping – Yellow.
Other compressed gas piping – Yellow, labeled at regular intervals with the type of gas.
Fuel oil piping – Yellow with black stripes.
***Please don’t confuse High Voltage Wiring on rooftop piping and the Toyota RAV 4 (Safety Bulletin 86). The Rav 4 high voltage wiring is wrapped in orange-colored harnesses.

20
Q

Question 20:
The internal identification codes on FDNY HT radios are a way to associate the radio with the assigned position in a company in case of an emergency. You decide to test your BC study groups knowledge by giving them several examples of seven digit codes that could appear on the LCD screen of the BC radio. Which code is listed correctly?

A: 7176001 is L176 Roofman

B: 7009001 is E009 Officer

C: 5251002 is E251 ECC

D: 5001004 is E1 Nozzle

A

Question 20:
The internal identification codes on FDNY HT radios are a way to associate the radio with the assigned position in a company in case of an emergency. You decide to test your BC study groups knowledge by giving them several examples of seven digit codes that could appear on the LCD screen of the BC radio. Which code is listed correctly?

A: 7176001 is L176 Roofman

B: 7009001 is E009 Officer

C:✔5251002 is E251 ECC

D: 5001004 is E1 Nozzle 
Explanation:
Comm 11 sec 4.3 chart and 4.4 
A. L176 Officer
B. L009 Officer
D. E1 Backup
21
Q

Question 21:
Chiefs should have a good working knowledge of the construction features of tenements. They should be aware of the avenues of fire travel, exposures and the simplest manner of opening up for examination. Which of the following is incorrectly stated?

A: The removal of involved materials to enclosed shafts or roofs of setbacks is not to be permitted.

B: Lintels in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not be removed, regardless of charring.

C: Wooden structural members that are deeply charred shall never be removed from the building.

D: Excess water may be channeled into wastelines or dumbwaiter shafts.

A

Question 21:
Chiefs should have a good working knowledge of the construction features of tenements. They should be aware of the avenues of fire travel, exposures and the simplest manner of opening up for examination. Which of the following is incorrectly stated?

A: The removal of involved materials to enclosed shafts or roofs of setbacks is not to be permitted.

B: Lintels in brick walls over exterior doorways and windows should not be removed, regardless of charring.

C:✔Wooden structural members that are deeply charred shall never be removed from the building.

D: Excess water may be channeled into wastelines or dumbwaiter shafts.
Explanation:
Lad-3 Tenements
A. sect 9.9
B. sect 9.3
C. sect 9.8 - Wooden structural members that are deeply charred may be removed from the building.
D. sect 9.11

22
Q

Question 22:
Staffing units at the start of the tour can be complex at times for a Battalion Chief especially when it comes to school trained versus company trained chauffeurs. From the list below, which is the only unit not required to be staffed with two school trained chauffeurs?

A: Foam Unit

B: Satellite Unit

C: Planning Vehicle

D: Collapse Rescue Unit

E: Decon Unit (other than TT)

A

Question 22:
Staffing units at the start of the tour can be complex at times for a Battalion Chief especially when it comes to school trained versus company trained chauffeurs. From the list below, which is the only unit not required to be staffed with two school trained chauffeurs?

A:✔Foam Unit

B: Satellite Unit

C: Planning Vehicle

D: Collapse Rescue Unit

E: Decon Unit (other than TT)
Explanation:
The following units shall start each tour with at least one school trained chauffeur and one company trained chauffeur: Foam Unit, Airport Hose Wagons, and back-ups to Foam units, Airport Hose Wagons, Satellite Units, Planning Vehicle, Collapse Rescue Units, and Decon Units (other than TT apparatus)
Units to be staffed with two school trained chauffeurs: Satellite Units, Planning Vehicle, Collapse Rescue Units, Decon Units, Squad Units, and HMTU
AUC 254 pages 4 and 5

23
Q

Question 23:
Any “unusual occurrence” resulting from the FDNY’s Modified Response Program should be reported immediately through the chain of command to?

A: the Chief of Operations

B: the Borough Command or Command Chief on Duty

C: the Fire Commissioner

D: the Chief of Communication

A

Question 23:
Any “unusual occurrence” resulting from the FDNY’s Modified Response Program should be reported immediately through the chain of command to?

A:✘the Chief of Operations

B:✔the Borough Command or Command Chief on Duty

C: the Fire Commissioner

D: the Chief of Communication
Explanation:
ABC 2-2011 5.2

24
Q

Question 24:
During a dangerous active shooter situation, approval from a chief officer is always required. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: FDNY members shall only operate inside the Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD for life saving intervention.

B: Normally this operation must be approved by a FDNY Staff Chief.

C: A Staff Chief must be immediately notified of active shooter incidents.

D: If the NYPD Incident Commander requests entry for “immediate” life-saving intervention an on-scene FDNY BC may grant this approval.

A

Question 24:
During a dangerous active shooter situation, approval from a chief officer is always required. Which choice below is incorrect?

A: FDNY members shall only operate inside the Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD for life saving intervention.

B:✔Normally this operation must be approved by a FDNY Staff Chief.

C: A Staff Chief must be immediately notified of active shooter incidents.

D:✘If the NYPD Incident Commander requests entry for “immediate” life-saving intervention an on-scene FDNY BC may grant this approval.
Explanation:
B) This operation must be approved by a DC unless the NYPD Incident Commander requests entry for “immediate” life-saving intervention.
ERP Add 3A 5.4, 5.7

25
Q

Question 25:
The danger of collapse with fires in rowframe buildings must be a consideration of all members on the fireground. Which one of the following choices is not correct?

A: A heavy fire in the cockloft will burn roof supports and cause the collapse of the roof into the top floor.

B: Rear walls can pull away from the building and collapse in one section into the yard.

C: Brick veneer and stucco facing can collapse in sections or as a complete unit.

D: When a serious fire burns out the entire second floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.

A

Question 25:
The danger of collapse with fires in rowframe buildings must be a consideration of all members on the fireground. Which one of the following choices is not correct?

A: A heavy fire in the cockloft will burn roof supports and cause the collapse of the roof into the top floor.

B: Rear walls can pull away from the building and collapse in one section into the yard.

C: Brick veneer and stucco facing can collapse in sections or as a complete unit.

D:✔When a serious fire burns out the entire second floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone.
Explanation:
A. RowFrames (5,4 A)
B. RowFrames (5,4 B)
C. RowFrames (5,4 F)
D. When a serious fire burns out the entire FIRST floor, there is danger of collapse, especially in corner buildings and buildings standing alone. RowFrames (5,4 H)

26
Q

Question 26:
For the first arriving units at an incident involving a disabled train in an under river rail tube, the acronym “LIVES” can be used to organize a preliminary size-up. Which choice best defines the acronym “LIVES”

A: Location, Incident information, Ventilation, Evacuation, Safety

B: Life, Imminent threat, Ventilation, Egress, Structure stability

C: Life, Incident information, Victims, Evacuation, Structure Stability

D: Location, Incident information, Ventilation,

A

Question 26:
For the first arriving units at an incident involving a disabled train in an under river rail tube, the acronym “LIVES” can be used to organize a preliminary size-up. Which choice best defines the acronym “LIVES”

A:✔Location, Incident information, Ventilation, Evacuation, Safety

B: Life, Imminent threat, Ventilation, Egress, Structure stability

C: Life, Incident information, Victims, Evacuation, Structure Stability

D: Location, Incident information, Ventilation, Evacuation, Sound-powered phones
Explanation:
Under river rails 3.2

27
Q

Question 27:
When responding to a fire in a bulk oil facility, Battalion Chiefs should be familiar with the color coding of the fire protection systems within the facility. These facilities will keep a copy of the color coding in such places as?

A: The foam house

B: Near the front gate

C: Near the rear gate

D: Copies do not exist

A

Question 27:
When responding to a fire in a bulk oil facility, Battalion Chiefs should be familiar with the color coding of the fire protection systems within the facility. These facilities will keep a copy of the color coding in such places as?

A:✔The foam house

B: Near the front gate

C: Near the rear gate

D: Copies do not exist
Explanation:
BISP Ch 3 Add 2 Fire Code Guide Pg 150

28
Q

Question 28:
The BC in charge of a commercial fire took the following actions upon special calling a TL for use of its elevated stream. Which action was incorrect?

A: The IC should, if conditions permit, attempt to clear access to the fire building prior to the arrival of TL.

B: The IC shall have supply lines stretched, if possible.

C: When the TL is called to operate as a special unit at an incident, it should generally operate as a unit. The assigned personnel should perform duties centered around the function of this apparatus.

D: A supply source should definitely be designated prior to arrival of the TL so that TL personnel can stretch their own supply line on arrival.

A

Question 28:
The BC in charge of a commercial fire took the following actions upon special calling a TL for use of its elevated stream. Which action was incorrect?

A:✔The IC should, if conditions permit, attempt to clear access to the fire building prior to the arrival of TL.

B: The IC shall have supply lines stretched, if possible.

C: When the TL is called to operate as a special unit at an incident, it should generally operate as a unit. The assigned personnel should perform duties centered around the function of this apparatus.

D:✘A supply source should definitely be designated prior to arrival of the TL so that TL personnel can stretch their own supply line on arrival.
Explanation:
This may seem too tight, but should and shall were used on the last promotion exam.
A) The IC SHALL clear access to the fire building prior to the arrival of TL.
TL 3.7.1, 3.7.2

29
Q

Question 29:
During the annual Battalion/Captains meeting, several Captains ask you about the Reserve Apparatus stored in the quarters of E-100 located within your battalion. The only correct statement you make can be found in which choice?

A: Battalion Commanders shall schedule the utilization of the reserve apparatus semi-annually on M.U.D. days

B: Whenever a reserve apparatus is activated or otherwise intrusted to the care of another unit, the officer on duty of the unit, wherein the reserve apparatus is stored, must prepare form RT-2 (2 copies)

C: Upon notification that tools and/or equipment was missing upon return, the administrative battalion shall notify the officer where reserve apparatus is stored, to forward a loss property report

D: The officer wherein the reserve apparatus is stored, is responsible for all tools and equipment assigned to that apparatus while out of storage

A

Question 29:
During the annual Battalion/Captains meeting, several Captains ask you about the Reserve Apparatus stored in the quarters of E-100 located within your battalion. The only correct statement you make can be found in which choice?

A: Battalion Commanders shall schedule the utilization of the reserve apparatus semi-annually on M.U.D. days

B:✔Whenever a reserve apparatus is activated or otherwise intrusted to the care of another unit, the officer on duty of the unit, wherein the reserve apparatus is stored, must prepare form RT-2 (2 copies)

C: Upon notification that tools and/or equipment was missing upon return, the administrative battalion shall notify the officer where reserve apparatus is stored, to forward a loss property report

D: The officer wherein the reserve apparatus is stored, is responsible for all tools and equipment assigned to that apparatus while out of storage
Explanation:
AUC 259 pages 3 and 4
A- once a month at M.U.D.
C- Notify the officer who was in charge of the apparatus, while it was out of storage, that the responsibility for the preparation and forwarding of the Lost Property Report and notifications required regarding the loss of department property are his/hers
D- Officer placed in charge of a reserve apparatus, while it is not in storage, is responsible for all tools and equipment assigned to that apparatus

30
Q

Question 30:
Sound powered phones are still a viable means of communications. 2 BC’s from Manhattan were discussing sound powered phone equipment and were correct in all of the following statements they made except?

A: Each member who operates a sound powered telephone shall be paired with another member who monitors HT communications

B: Sound powered telephones do not emit a ringing or buzzing sound when communications are initiated

C: Handsets are preferred for use throughout the NYCT system, due to the high noise levels that may be encountered

D: Sound powered telephones are installed in 13 of the 14 under river tunnels

A

Question 30:
Sound powered phones are still a viable means of communications. 2 BC’s from Manhattan were discussing sound powered phone equipment and were correct in all of the following statements they made except?

A: Each member who operates a sound powered telephone shall be paired with another member who monitors HT communications

B:✘Sound powered telephones do not emit a ringing or buzzing sound when communications are initiated

C:✔Handsets are preferred for use throughout the NYCT system, due to the high noise levels that may be encountered

D: Sound powered telephones are installed in 13 of the 14 under river tunnels
Explanation:
Training Bulletin Tools 31
A. 3.3
B. 3.4
C. HEADSETS are preferred for use throughout the NYCT system, due to the high noise levels that may be encountered 4.1.3
D. The exception is the Joralemon Street Tunnel, which runs from the Bowling Green Station in lower Manhattan to the Borough Hall Station in Brooklyn 4.3.3

31
Q

Question 31:
The BC on scene at a Confined Space incident would be most correct if she ensured the response of all of the following units except?

A: Nearest Rescue

B: Haz-Mat

C: ALS EMS unit

D: CPC Ladder

A

Question 31:
The BC on scene at a Confined Space incident would be most correct if she ensured the response of all of the following units except?

A: Nearest Rescue

B: Haz-Mat

C: ALS EMS unit

D:✔CPC Ladder
Explanation:
D) SSL
TB Confined Space 4.1, 4.2

32
Q

You the BC, make the following statements about the Probationary FF Training Notebook during the annual Battalion/Captains meeting:
A- Training notebooks are to be kept in the company office when not in use
B- Members shall ensure a tool list from their current unit is attached to the first page of the notebook
C- The Monthly training module should be printed and stapled on the inside of the front cover
D- If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Captain must forward a report through the chain of command to the administrative Division within 30 days
E- Training notebooks shall be forwarded to the Battalion coordinator during the 13th and 17th months of their probation period for evaluation Which statements are correct?

A: A, B, C, D, E

B: A, C, D, E

C: B, C, D

D: A, B, D, E

A
Question 32:
You the BC, make the following statements about the Probationary FF Training Notebook during the annual Battalion/Captains meeting: A- Training notebooks are to be kept in the company office when not in use B- Members shall ensure a tool list from their current unit is attached to the first page of the notebook C- The Monthly training module should be printed and stapled on the inside of the front cover D- If the training notebook is lost or destroyed, the Captain must forward a report through the chain of command to the administrative Division within 30 days E- Training notebooks shall be forwarded to the Battalion coordinator during the 13th and 17th months of their probation period for evaluation Which statements are correct?

A: A, B, C, D, E

B: A, C, D, E

C: B, C, D

D:✔A, B, D, E
Explanation:
C- The Monthly training module should be printed and stapled TO CURRENT TRAINING NOTEBOOK PAGE AT TIME OF
COMPLETION
AUC 323 addendum 2
33
Q

Question 33:
Key FOBs for use in NYCHA buildings are a new method of access for FDNY members and also new to our books. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these devices?

A: Key FOBs have been issued to all FDNY units. These key FOBs will grant universal access to all NYCHA buildings.

B: Should the key FOB fail to unlock the door, it can be unlocked remotely by NYCHA Security. This can be done by calling the 24-hour NYCHA emergency number either directly or through the dispatcher.

C: Units can also seek assistance from the building management office at the premise location should the key FOB fail to unlock the door.

D: Should the building lose electrical power, the electromagnetic lock will deactivate, unlocking the door.

A

Question 33:
Key FOBs for use in NYCHA buildings are a new method of access for FDNY members and also new to our books. Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding these devices?

A: Key FOBs have been issued to all FDNY units. These key FOBs will grant universal access to all NYCHA buildings.

B: Should the key FOB fail to unlock the door, it can be unlocked remotely by NYCHA Security. This can be done by calling the 24-hour NYCHA emergency number either directly or through the dispatcher.

C: Units can also seek assistance from the building management office at the premise location should the key FOB fail to unlock the door.

D:✔Should the building lose electrical power, the electromagnetic lock will deactivate, unlocking the door.
Explanation:
D
Should the building lose electrical power, the electromagnetic lock will deactivate, but the door will remain locked by the crash bar lock. A special key will be needed to unlock the door from outside the building This key is not issued to FDNY units at this time, but it can be requested for use from the building management office at the premise location.
MD Add 4 1.3, 1.4

34
Q

Question 34:
Which choice below contains incorrect information in the case of units responding to, or operating at, an incident that develops into a situation where a patient has been exposed to an unknown substance?

A: Proper Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) shall be worn at all times when dealing with patients.

B: When the patient reports that they were contaminated and they have visible powder or other substance on their skin or clothing, ask the patient to remove their outer clothing, if possible, and provide the patient with a disposable garment or sheet.

C: When required, bag the patient’s clothing in a clear, plastic bag and leave with a competent authority on scene.

D: Assess, treat and transport the patient as appropriate. Only patients who are deemed Critical should receive Emergency Decontamination and be treated and transported immediately.

A

Question 34:
Which choice below contains incorrect information in the case of units responding to, or operating at, an incident that develops into a situation where a patient has been exposed to an unknown substance?

A: Proper Personal Protective Equipment (PPE) shall be worn at all times when dealing with patients.

B: When the patient reports that they were contaminated and they have visible powder or other substance on their skin or clothing, ask the patient to remove their outer clothing, if possible, and provide the patient with a disposable garment or sheet.

C:✘When required, bag the patient’s clothing in a clear, plastic bag and leave with a competent authority on scene.

D:✔Assess, treat and transport the patient as appropriate. Only patients who are deemed Critical should receive Emergency Decontamination and be treated and transported immediately.
Explanation:
D. Assess, treat and transport the patient as appropriate. Patients who are Critical or Unstable should receive Emergency Decontamination and be treated and transported immediately.
HM 16 2.2

35
Q

Question 35:
The NFPA Diamond is a labeling system that uses numbers and colors to define the hazards of a material. Flammability is indicated by a red diamond. Which of the following numbers indicate a flash point above 100 degrees F but not exceeding 200 degrees F ?

A: 4

B: 3

C: 2

D: 1

A

Question 35:
The NFPA Diamond is a labeling system that uses numbers and colors to define the hazards of a material. Flammability is indicated by a red diamond. Which of the following numbers indicate a flash point above 100 degrees F but not exceeding 200 degrees F ?

A: 4

B: 3

C:✔2

D: 1
Explanation:
ERP Section 21, NFPA Diamond
Flammability Hazard or Red Section
4 Flash point below 73 degrees F
3 Flash point below 100 degrees F
2 Flash point above 100 degrees F, not exceeding 200 degrees F
1 Above 200 degrees F
0 Will not burn
36
Q

Question 36:
Please download the in-basket: PAID 2011-1-Workplace Violence Prevention Policy PAID 74-6- bi_05_ref_8_3 Assembly Group-Theater Inspections bi_05_ref_8_1 Holiday Inspection bi_05_ref_3_2 Carbon Monoxide Detectors All of the following should be included in the FDNY’s “holiday inspection” program except?

A: Department stores such as Macys, Sears, and similar types

B: Retail Stores with more than 25 employees

C: Retail Stores designed to accommodate more than 300 persons

D: Retail Stores which have more than 4,000 Sq. Ft. combined on two or more floors

A

Question 36:
Please download the in-basket: PAID 2011-1-Workplace Violence Prevention Policy PAID 74-6- bi_05_ref_8_3 Assembly Group-Theater Inspections bi_05_ref_8_1 Holiday Inspection bi_05_ref_3_2 Carbon Monoxide Detectors All of the following should be included in the FDNY’s “holiday inspection” program except?

A: Department stores such as Macys, Sears, and similar types

B: Retail Stores with more than 25 employees

C: Retail Stores designed to accommodate more than 300 persons

D:✔Retail Stores which have more than 4,000 Sq. Ft. combined on two or more floors
Explanation:
Retail Stores which are more than 4,000 Sq. Ft. on any one floor
Also, ANY Retail Store where combustible stock is greatly increased during the holiday season, EVEN IF none of the requirements of 1, 2 or 3 above are met. (Examples: Toy, discount, appliance, and similar stores.)
Acronym: “More than 2,3,4” - More than 25 employees, 300 persons, 4000 sq ft”
BISP Ch 5 Ref 8.1 p2

37
Q

Question 37:
An A-1 occupancy built under the 2014 Building Code should be treated by a BC in all of the following ways except?

A: All inspections conducted shall be made unannounced.

B: The Administrative Battalion shall conduct an annual inspection if more than 75 occupants are presented with live theatrical productions.

C: The inspection by the BC should be conducted when this occupancy is open to the public.

D: An immediate summons should be issued if there are locked or obstructed exits found when open to the public.

A

Question 37:
An A-1 occupancy built under the 2014 Building Code should be treated by a BC in all of the following ways except?

A: All inspections conducted shall be made unannounced.

B:✔The Administrative Battalion shall conduct an annual inspection if more than 75 occupants are presented with live theatrical productions.

C: The inspection by the BC should be conducted when this occupancy is open to the public.

D: An immediate summons should be issued if there are locked or obstructed exits found when open to the public.
Explanation:
Although these are still inspected annually, the “Battalion” shall conduct an annual inspection if more than 500 occupants are presented with live theatrical productions.
BISP Ch 5 ref 8.3 sec 4.1, 4.4, 4.5, 7.1

38
Q

Question 38:
A BC wishing to enforce the FDNY’s grooming policy would be incorrect in which statement?

A: Mustaches must be closely trimmed.

B: Mustaches must not extend beyond the corners of the mouth.

C: Mustaches must not extend below any portion of the lower lip.

D: Beards, goatees, or any form of facial hair beneath the lower lip are prohibited.

A

Question 38:
A BC wishing to enforce the FDNY’s grooming policy would be incorrect in which statement?

A: Mustaches must be closely trimmed.

B: Mustaches must not extend beyond the corners of the mouth.

C:✔Mustaches must not extend below any portion of the lower lip.

D: Beards, goatees, or any form of facial hair beneath the lower lip are prohibited.
Explanation:
Mustaches must not extend below any portion of the upper lip.
PAID 6-74 2.2

39
Q

Question 39:
Employees may submit reports directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator if the incident being reported presents privacy concerns. Of the following, which “privacy concern case” is listed incorrectly?

A: an injury or illness to an intimate body part, the reproductive system, or resulting from a sexual assault

B: select physical ailments, not including mental illness

C: involving HIV

D: involving needle stick injuries and cuts from sharp objects that may be contaminated with another person’s blood or other potentially infectious material

A

Question 39:
Employees may submit reports directly to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator if the incident being reported presents privacy concerns. Of the following, which “privacy concern case” is listed incorrectly?

A: an injury or illness to an intimate body part, the reproductive system, or resulting from a sexual assault

B:✔select physical ailments, not including mental illness

C: involving HIV

D:✘involving needle stick injuries and cuts from sharp objects that may be contaminated with another person’s blood or other potentially infectious material
Explanation:
involving mental illness
Also, requests from employees for other reasons.
PAID 1-2011 10.5.1, 10.5.2

40
Q

Question 40:
In buildings containing dwelling units, including dwelling units classified in occupancy group J-1, J-2 and J-3, CO alarms would be considered properly located in all choices below except?

A: In every dwelling unit on the floor where fossil fuel burning equipment is located (Ex; commercial gas dryer) and the floor below, and the floor above are required to have detectors.

B: In every dwelling unit located within a building served by a central fossil fuel burning furnace, boiler or water heater that is located in an adjoining or attached building.

C: In every dwelling unit located within a building that contains any fossil fuel burning furnace, boiler, or water heater as part of a central system.

D: In every dwelling unit on the same floor, the floor below, and the floor above any open or enclosed parking that is located in the same building are required to have detectors.

A

Question 40:
In buildings containing dwelling units, including dwelling units classified in occupancy group J-1, J-2 and J-3, CO alarms would be considered properly located in all choices below except?

A:✘In every dwelling unit on the floor where fossil fuel burning equipment is located (Ex; commercial gas dryer) and the floor below, and the floor above are required to have detectors.

B: In every dwelling unit located within a building served by a central fossil fuel burning furnace, boiler or water heater that is located in an adjoining or attached building.

C: In every dwelling unit located within a building that contains any fossil fuel burning furnace, boiler, or water heater as part of a central system.

D:✔In every dwelling unit on the same floor, the floor below, and the floor above any open or enclosed parking that is located in the same building are required to have detectors.
Explanation:
In every dwelling unit on the same floor, the floor below, and the floor above any ENCLOSED parking that is located in the same building are required to have detectors.
BISP Ch 5 Ref 3.2 2.4