Exam 10 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:
Upon returning from a Class 3 alarm in which a “10-75 - All Hands” was transmitted, the first arriving Lt calls you, the Battalion Chief, to discuss an unusual occurrence resulting from the modified response program. How should this be handled?
A: Have the Lt immediately notify the supervising dispatcher.
B: You immediately notify the supervising dispatcher.
C: Report the occurrence immediately to your Deputy Chief.
D: Report the occurrence immediately to the Borough Commander/Command Chief on duty.

A

D
Explanation:
Any unusual occurrence resulting from the program will be reported immediately through the chain of command, to the Borough Command or Command Chief on Duty.
ABC 2-11 5.2

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2
Q

Question 2:
Communications systems in High Rise Fireproof Multiple dwellings can be a tremendous asset when it comes to fire operations. Which choice below correctly describes the building where the responding BC will be able to deliver messages to panicked residents above the fire floor?
A: A 500 ft High - 45 Story 100x100 Class 1 MD - Constructed in 2006.
B: A 120 ft High - 12 Story 100x50 Class 1 MD - Constructed in 2014
C: A 250 ft High - 25 Story 150x150 Class 1 MD - Constructed in 2008
D: A 100 ft High - 8 Story 100x100 Class 1 MD - Constructed in 2010

A

Explanation:
Multiple Dwellings 6.21.2 pg 67
2008 Building Code requires one way communications from the fire command center to all stairways and dwellings for all R-2 buildings greater than 125’ in height…

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3
Q

Question 3:
The Resources Unit has a specialized task at an operation. Choose the incorrect duty for the Resources Unit Leader
A: The Resources Unit is a functional unit within the Planning Section primarily responsible for recording the status of resources committed to the incident. If there is no Planning Section Chief, the RUL will report directly to the IC
B: The RUL shall be stationed at the location of the Command Board
C: The RUL shall designate an area where unassigned units will remain intact until assigned
D: The IC shall determine the needed level of resources required at the Staging area. The RUL in conjunction with the Staging Area Manager, shall maintain this level until the incident is under control
E: The RUL shall operate on the Command Channel while at the Command Board while his assigned FF is on the Tactical channel for relay messages to the IC

A

E
Explanation:
RUL operates on the Tactical Channel….his FF is to monitor the Command Channel
ICS ch 2 add 2

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4
Q

Question 4:
Responses to Foreign Embassies, Consulates, and Missions can be quite complex. Which tactic below is not in accordance with Department policy?
A: Upon arrival, officers shall explain as clearly as possible that the fire or emergency situation may worsen and the importance of entry.
B: Attempt to negotiate to have the Ladder Companies’ entry team to investigate conditions; however if the Incident Commander feels this will endanger the members then do not commit the resources. Members shall not operate independently.
C: If embassy personnel allow entry, they must also let relief companies in and allow overhauling. Once entry is gained, Fire Department retains control of the site until released back to Embassy/Consulate/Mission personnel.
D: If entry is denied, do not cause an incident and do no enter. Protect the exposures and set up a tower ladder in front of the building for exterior operations and any rescues of embassy personnel that request it.

A

C
Explanation:
Embassy personnel may refuse to let relief companies in and they might refuse to allow overhauling. Do not argue, if asked to leave then do so.
ABC 1-2010 4.5-4.7

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5
Q
Question 5:
The IC at a high rise office building fire shall ensure the response of which unit when auxiliary radio communications systems (ARCS) are utilized?
A: Planning Vehicle
B: Communications Unit
C: Tactical Support Unit
D: Field Communications Satellite Unit
A
B
Explanation:
D. This term is no longer used
ICS Ch 2 Add 3 3.3
***Be aware Comm Ch 13 sec 4.4 states Field Communications Satellite Unit
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6
Q

Question 6:
Ventilation at taxpayer buildings is a critical function that when carried out correctly can reduce the possibility of a backdraft and determine whether the operation ends in success. Which of the following statements is correct regarding ventilation during operations in these buildings?
A: Simultaneous forcible entry in conjunction with roof vent may reduce the chance of a backdraft.
B: An alternative to roof venting although not as effective is the use of a hose stream. The hose line should be immediately discharged into the fire area when the fire area is opened up.
C: A room or the fire area requires only 20% of its space to contain the explosive mixture for the entire area to possible explode.
D: One of the most effective methods of protecting firefighters from the effects of a backdraft is to provide horizontal ventilation of the fire area.

A

B
Explanation:
Taxpayers
B is correct 4.4.1N
A - Roof vent should be accomplished prior to horizontal venting 4.4.1L
C - 25% 4.4.1F
D - Vertical ventilation. The proper procedure is to open the roof directly above the fire. 4.4.1K.

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7
Q
Question 7:
Five Battalion Chiefs around the city made decisions regarding the units they special called to their fires. Which chiefs made decisions in line with dept guidelines for fire operations? *****(1) BC 1 special called an additional eng & truck for a fire in a private dwelling of lightweight construction. *****(2) BC 2 special called an additional eng & truck while operating two hand lines at an advanced fire in the cellar of a taxpayer. *****(3)BC 3 special called an additional eng & truck for a fully involved top floor in an OLT type Rowframe. *****(4) BC 4 special called an additional eng & truck for two floors of fire in a Brownstone. *****(5) BC 5 special called an additional eng & truck for fire on two floors in an H-type MD.
A: 2 & 4 are Correct
B: 1 & 5 are Correct
C: 3 & 4 are Correct
D: 1 & 3 are Correct
A

C
Explanation:
C is correct - BS 4.4 & RF 7.6A 1 - Additional Engine for a fire in a private dwelling of lightweight construction. PD’s Ch 6 4.2.2
2 - Advanced fire in a cellar of a taxpayer is a second alarm TP 5.7.4
5 - Two floors of fire or extensive cockloft fire in an H-type is a second alarm. MD’s 5.5.2

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8
Q

Question 8:
Choose the only correct statement made regarding FireIce

A: Fireice units can be either Ladder Companies or Engine Companies with the letter suffix “I” on the response ticket when assigned to respond as a FireIce unit

B: FireIce can be applied by SOC units or trained engines or ladder companies

C: Before the arrival of the BC, the engine or ladder officer can order the application of FireIce

D: The objective of FireIce is to enable Chief Officers operating at a 10-25-1 or 10-25-2 incidents the opportunity to suppress fires prior to the utility company arrival at the scene

A
D
Explanation:
A- Engines only E319I
B- Trained units only.....Engines only
C- Only a Chief officer can order FireIce into operation
AUC 180 add 2 pages 1 and 3
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9
Q

Question 9:
L-100 receives a run for a fire on the 10th floor of a 15 story fireproof building. Arriving 1st due, the officer determines it is a rubbish fire in the stairwell on the 10th floor. After extinguishing the rubbish fire, the officer discovered the standpipe system that serves the building is OOS. Both the owner of the building and the superintendent of the building failed to notify the fire department that the standpipe system was OOS. Upon receiving this information the officer contacts the Battalion Chief at the scene for advice. You as the BC would be most correct to give which advice?
A: Issue a forthwith V.O. to the owner or the superintendent of the building for failure to notify the fire department
B: Issue a criminal summons to the owner or the superintendent of the building for failure to notify the fire department
C: Issue a NOV to the owner or the superintendent of the building for failure to notify the fire department
D: Issue a warning to the owner or superintendent of the building for failure to notify the fire department

A

B
Explanation:
BISP ch 5 ref 1.4 sec 3.5
A- Issue a Forthwith Violation Order for the restoration of the system, in addition to the summons
C- No NOV
D- There is no warning in this case
*In addition to the summons and V.O. in all cases of an out of service standpipe system, forward an A-8 to the Bureau of Fire Prevention, Suppression Unit.

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10
Q

Question 10:
2 Battalion Chiefs are discussing the Post Radio at drill. Which comment was incorrectly stated?
A: The key aspect of Post Radio use is the establishment of a Command Channel at 45 watts.
B: The IC may utilize the Post Radio anytime its use would enhance communications at an incident.
C: Upon arrival, it is the responsibility of the Deputy Chief to ensure that a Post Radio is in position at the Incident Command Post (ICP) at every “all hands” or greater alarm.
D: If a Battalion is assigned as an Attack Chief, they can leave their Post Radio at the Fire Sector/Branch set to the command channel.

A

D
Explanation:
D) set to the tactical channel.
Comm Ch 12 5.1, 6.3 Notes

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11
Q

Question 11:
Two members discussing the Department’s EEO procedures were correct in all statements but one. Indicate the incorrect statement.
A: Sexual harassment complaints may be filed directly with the Fire Department’s Bureau of Investigations and Trials.
B: A complaint must be filed with the Fire Department’s EEO Officer within one (1) year from the date the alleged discrimination or harassment occurred.
C: Upon notification to an Officer/Supervisor by a member of an EEO incident, the Officer/Supervisor shall inform the member of available filing options.
D: For EEO incidents that effect operations, the Officer/Supervisor shall always initiate contact with the EEO Officer through the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC).

A

D
Explanation:
For EEO incidents that effect operations, the Officer/Supervisor shall contact the EEO Officer during office hours. During non-office hours, the EEO Officer can be reached through the Fire Department Operations Center (FDOC).
PAID 1-77 5.4-6.1, 6.2.2

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12
Q

Question 12:
When assisting train passengers off of a disabled train during subway or under river tube operations, the emergency evacuation device (EED) can be useful. When it comes the location of the emergency evacuation devices, all of the following are true except?
A: May be located at the base of emergency exit stairs nearest the under river tubes
B: May be located at the first blue light south of the station, on the southbound track
C: May be located at the first standpipe outlet south of the station, on the southbound track
D: Emergency evacuation devices are secured by Transit Authority locks and keys are located at the token booth in the station

A

C
Explanation:
Under River Rail page 9
B. Not at standpipe outlets

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13
Q

Question 13:
B-44 and B-38 are returning from a vacant building fire. They call each other on the battalion cell phone to discuss what went on at this job. They both state many facts such as: interior operations should be predicated on existing and developing conditions. Advancement of lines should be deliberate and with due attention to safety. Units must avoid the passing of any fire that may burn members or become a later threat. In regards to operating at a vacant building fire, choose the incorrect operation.
A: Usually only the officer and two members are needed for advancing the line into the immediate fire area
B: When not first to arrive, ECCs should position apparatus at hydrants and test them. They should listen to Handie-Talkie instructions for the deployment of their apparatus or to assist other operations
C: If the first arriving ECC encounters any hydrant problems, he/she should notify the officer of the first ladder company so as not to make an aggressive interior attack until a positive water source is obtained
D: When stretching hand lines into exposures for operation into the fire building, 2 1/2” lines with solid stream nozzles should be considered. The additional gpm and available reach of the larger line may prove to be a considerable overall advantage

A

C
Explanation:
Vacants 3.1.10
C. notify the officer of his/her unit (1st engine)

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14
Q
Question 14:
To expedite the departure of units scheduled for training, Battalion Chiefs are to provide such units with details from within the Battalion. The Battalion shall, when necessary, provide appropriate transportation to ensure the detail arrives before \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hours or \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ hours
A: 0830, 1730
B: 0845, 1745
C: 0900, 1800
D: 0915, 1815
A

D
Explanation:
Units scheduled for such activities must leave from their quarters, with the day tour members no later than 0915 hours or night tour members no later than 1815 hours
AUC 287 sec 5.1.3

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15
Q
Question 15:
Due to a major power blackout, you have just been designated a RRV Sector Supervisor in charge of 5 Task Forces. You should know from studying that your primary communications method for these Task Forces are?
A: DARS radio
B: 800 MHz radio
C: Cell phone
D: Department radio
A
A
Explanation:
B- Alternative
C- Contingency
D- Emergency
AUC 159 add 8 sec 4
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16
Q

Question 16:
A city surrounded by different departments, IO frequencies can always come into play. Which statement regarding the use of IO frequencies during operations is incorrect?

A: UTAC repeater channels are intended for outside operations and cannot be relied upon for interior structural communications.

B: Conversations on UTAC channels should be in plain speak. Refrain from using FDNY 10 codes.

C: If unable to address problems instituting UTAC protocol at the scene, telephone FD Operations with full particulars upon return to quarters.

D: Due to potential problems involving distance, all operations occurring on the Hudson River with NJ departments shall be conducted on UTAC 42, the primary repeater channel.

A
Explanation:
Communications Chapter 14 Addendum 4
A -- Correct - 2.2
B -- Correct - 3.3
C -- Email FD operations with particulars of the incident. 4.2
D -- Correct - Table 1 & Note 5.1
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17
Q

Question 17:
A knowledgeable Battalion Chief would know all of the statements below to be correct regarding the Department’s “Command and Control” policy except?
A: Upon arrival at a 2nd alarm or greater, the BC assigned as the Resource Unit Leader shall ensure the Portable Command Post (PCP) is deployed at the ICP.
B: When communicating to Sectors, use both the Sector Supervisor’s sector designation and unit number (i.e.”Command to Fire Sector Battalion 2”).
C: The first to arrive BC shall continue to manage the tactical operations of the incident under the supervision of the Deputy Chief - IC. Both Chief Officers shall operate together for the duration of the incident.
D: Upon arrival of the assigned Deputy Chief, the first to arrive Battalion Chief shall be designated the Deputy Incident Commander or the Operations Section Chief. The transfer of command will include a face-to-face exchange of information.

A

A
Explanation:
A) Upon transmission of a 2nd alarm the DC shall ensure the Portable Command Post (PCP) is deployed at the ICP.
Command & Control Ch 2 2.1.5, 2.2.3, 2.3.2, 3.9

18
Q

Question 18:
Chief officers must personally evaluate the condition of members operating under their command and provide appropriate periods of rest and rehab when indicated. Which of the following options is not listed as a factor to consider while being proactive after the knockdown of a serious fire.
A: Members Age and Physical Condition.
B: Type & Duration of Operation.
C: Number of Responses and Hours members have been on duty.
D: Whether or not members operated in hoods.

A

D
Explanation:
AUC 310
D – Not listed as a consideration. 6.3…

19
Q

Question 19:
The BC from B-15 contacts the first arriving officer at a structural building collapse and asks him to describe the type of collapse that occurred. This rusty truck officer quickly reviews in his head the following 4 types of collapses before answering the BC and is only correct in which type of collapse?
A: Lean-over collapse is a collapse of an exterior wall that breaks apart horizontally; the top collapses inward back on top of the structure and the bottom collapses outward onto the street. Wood braced-frame constructed buildings collapse this way
B: Inward/Outward collapse is when an exterior masonry wall drops like a falling curtain cut loose at the top; the collapse of a brick veneer, brick cavity or masonry-backed stone wall
C: Lean-To collapse is a type of wood-frame building collapse indicated by the structure slowly starting to tilt or lean over to one side
D: Tent-floor collapse is when a floor collapses and an interior partition or wall holds up the center of the fallen floor

A

D
Explanation:
The difference between Lean-over collapse and Lean-To collapse can be confusing on test day. We recommend knowing one of the two cold instead of both. This way you won’t get tripped up.
Collapse add 3
A. An Inward/Outward collapse is the collapse of an exterior wall that breaks apart horizontally; the top collapses inward back on top of the structure and the bottom collapses outward on to the street
B. Curtain-Fall Wall Collapse
C. Lean-over collapse

20
Q

Question 20:
A newly assigned probationary firefighter made an incorrect comment regarding single-occupant restrooms found in Fire Department facilities. Indicate the incorrect comment.
A: A single-occupant restroom is considered a restroom containing no more than two water closets and two urinals, even when egress from it is through a male- or female-designated changing area.
B: Even present at a given facility, all single-occupant restrooms must be made available for use by persons of any gender.
C: Facilities may be subject to random inspection by the EEO Office.
D: Any questions or concerns regarding the single-occupant restroom policy should be directed to the EEO Office.

A

A
Explanation:
A single-occupant restroom is considered a restroom containing no more than one water closet and one urinal, EXCEPT where egress from it is through a male- or female-designated changing area.
Appropriate signs must remain affixed on or near the entrance to the restroom.
PAID 1-2017

21
Q

Question 21:
The previous BC exam had a fair amount of SOC questions. When it comes to Confined Space Rescues, SOC Support Ladders have certain limitations. Which choice below is not it accordance with FDNY policy?

A: A fully equipped back-up rescuer shall remain on stand-by in the event the primary (entry) rescuer is injured, overcome, or needs assistance in escaping the space.

B: SOC Support Ladder Companies shall not be permitted to attempt any entry that would require the rescuer to leave the direct line of sight of the back-up rescuer.

C: SOC Support Ladders shall only attempt an entry when all necessary precautions to safeguard the rescuer are taken, specifically, a suitable high point anchor shall be positioned to allow a retrieval system to be placed for immediate retrieval of the rescuers.

D: Air monitoring must take place which determines whether atmospheric hazards are present, and suitable steps must be taken to remove hazards or otherwise protect rescuers from their effects (e.g., use of the SCBA for asphyxiation hazard).

A

Explanation:
B. SOC Support Ladder Companies shall not be permitted to attempt any entry that would require the rescuer to leave the direct line of sight of the OFFICER supervising entry at the entrance to the space.
HM ch 10 7.2

22
Q
Question 22:
The Division Task Force Engine and Ladder Companies can be denoted with what letter suffix?
A: D
B: T
C: F
D: K
A
D
Explanation:
A- Tech Decon task Force Engine or Ladder
B- Transport backup Unit
C- FAST Unit
Division Task Force E100K or L200K
Communications ch 2 page 37
23
Q

Question 23:
When the FDNY Incident Commander (IC) needs to communicate with the NYPD via a NYMAC I/O channel, the IC shall call-in to the NYMAC 1 channel. All of the following statements regarding this procedure are correct except in which choice?
A: The FDNY IC will be instructed by NYPD to either remain on NYMAC 1 or switch to the assigned NYMAC I/O channel for the incident (NYMAC 2 or 3).
B: The FDNY IC shall notify the appropriate Borough Dispatcher and FDOC of the I/O channel that has been activated.
C: A NYMAC I/O channel will be assigned without FDNY request for second alarms or greater as well as pre-planned interagency events.
D: When using an I/O channel, the FDNY IC shall communicate the Box number and Borough of the incident at the beginning of each transmission.

A

D
Explanation:
When using an I/O channel, the FDNY IC shall use the name of the incident at the beginning of each transmission (e.g. 2nd alarm on Northern Blvd in Queens) as simultaneous events may be taking place on the channel.
Comm 14 Add 3 2.1.1, 2.2

24
Q

Question 24:
BC Confrontation arrived at several boxes during his S/A tour in Battalion 59 that tested the limits of interagency cooperation. According to the CIMS document, during which incident would the FDNY not be responsible for tactical direction?
A: Evacuation of distant exposures during a fire involving a row of frame buildings.
B: Removal of patients who fell through the ice on a partially frozen pond.
C: Preliminary and void searches at a building collapse.
D: Decontamination operations at a pepper spray incident in a school.

A

B
Explanation:
AUC 276
B – Ice rescue is directed by NYPD 2.2 #2

25
Q

Question 25:
Portable EFAS tablets with attached HT radios have been issued to all Battalions. Choose the incorrect statement made regarding the portable EFAS
A: At large-scale and expanding incidents (10-75’s or greater), the portable EFAS can be rapidly deployed from the Battalion vehicle to provide early monitoring of EFAS by the IC until the Battalion vehicle EFAS can be monitored by the Battalion FF and later when the FAST unit member arrives to relieve the Battalion FF
B: Provide an initial Portable EFAS at the Command Post if the first arriving Battalion’s Portable was OOS
C: Provide a second Portable EFAS at the Command Post to monitor additional HT channels
D: Portable EFAS can monitor several HT channels at the same time

A

D
Explanation:
Only one HT channel at a time. Each channel activated requires another EFAS to monitor
Comm ch 9 add 3 sec 9.5 and 9.6

26
Q
Question 26:
The physical characteristics of a suspicious substance may indicate the presence of a biological agent.  What color is weaponized anthrax?
A: Opaque
B: Brown or yellow
C: Gray or yellow
D: Gray or brown
A

D
Explanation:
ERP, Addendum 1, Chapter 1 sec 3.2.8
D. Weaponized anthrax may appear gray or brown in color

27
Q

Question 27:
You have just been designated the High-Rise Roof Chief (HRRC). En-route to the mobilization point you obtain from the IC through the dispatcher what 3 pieces of vital information?
A: Preliminary report, ID of attack and evacuation stairs, ID of all exits from building
B: Progress report, ID of attack and evacuation stairs, ID of stairs that lead to roof
C: Progress report, ID of attack stairs only, ID of all exits from building
D: Preliminary report, ID of evacuation stair(s) only, ID of stairs that lead to roof

A

B
Explanation:
AUC 269 add 1 sec 3.1.2

3.1.2 Obtain the following information from the Incident Commander through the
Dispatcher while responding to the mobilization point.
A. Progress Report
B. Identification of Attack and Evacuation Stairs
C. Identification of the stairs that lead to roof

28
Q

Question 28:
As the IC in charge of a tree cutting task force, you are discussing objectives with the teams you have assembled. Which is the only CORRECT statement you made according to department policy?
A: Where possible, clear debris from sidewalks and crosswalks.
B: Do not attempt to remove a tree that has fallen on an unoccupied vehicle in order to establish an emergency lane.
C: Operations on private property can involve removal of obstructions blocking the entrance to a building.
D: Chainsaws are not to be operated from any ladder.

A

C
Explanation:
AUC 301 – Tree Cutting Operations…
A – Not responsible for debris removal from sidewalks. 3.2
B – Do not attempt to remove a tree which has fallen on a vehicle unless such action is required to perform rescue, administer aid, or establish an emergency lane. 3.4
C – Correct. 3.3
D – Chainsaws may be operated from a Tower Ladder bucket if certain precautions are taken. 5.8..

29
Q

Question 29:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding the A-234 Permit Referral?
A: The “Memorandum - A-234” shall be used when an inspection discloses the absence of a required FDNY permit, the need for the renewal of a permit or information relating to the permit is not in conformance with the permit requirements.
B: The A-234 may be used for both FDNY and DOB permits.
C: The A-234 shall be prepared in a single copy by the member discovering the violation of law.
D: When completed, the A-234 shall be forwarded to the District Office having jurisdiction so that a survey can be made and the required permit applications processed.

A

B
Explanation:
The A-234 is ONLY used for FDNY-issued permits. DOB permits should be referred using a DOB Referral Report.
BISP Ch 5 Ref 2.3 pgs 1-2

30
Q
Question 30:
Company officers shall notify the next level of command when a detail from within the Borough does not arrive within \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ and from another Borough in \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_
A: 1 hour, 2 hours
B: 45 minutes, 1 hour 15 minutes
C: 1 hour, 1 hour 30 minutes
D: 2 hours, 3 hours
A

A
Explanation:
The BC will notify the DC with the following info:
Name, Assigned Unit, Detail from/to, Time left/arrived, Method of travel
AUC 287 pages 10 and 11

31
Q

Question 31:
You are in Battalion 99 and arrive at a fire in an H-type Multiple Dwelling. Of the following pieces of information, which is not listed as must transmit information to the IC upon arrival on the fire floor?
A: Access to the fire area & location of the fire apartment.
B: Smoke condition in the hallway.
C: Fire Conditions and whether fire is extending.
D: Difficulties or delays gaining access to the fire area.

A

B
Explanation:
Communications Chapter 9 Section 9.3.1 B,C,D.
B – Smoke conditions not listed as must transmit information. It is listed as information to the IC from the roof firefighter.

32
Q

Question 32:
A newly promoted BC should be able to point out which incorrect comment regarding Bereavement Leave?
A: Bereavement Leave will begin at 0900 hours following the time of death.
B: Bereavement Leave may not be more than four (4) calendar days.
C: Bereavement Leave of not more than two 15-hours tours or two 9-hour tours and one 15-hour tour may be granted by the Deputy Chief.
D: When Bereavement Leave is granted, the officer on duty in the member’s unit must prepare a report (in duplicate) to the Bureau of Personnel. Forward one copy immediately; forward the other copy with transcript of death.

A

B
Explanation:
Bereavement Leave may not be LESS than four (4) calendar days.
PAID 4-89 2.1, 2.5, 2.7, 4

33
Q

Question 33:
The FDNY has developed an agreement with Con Edison that enables Chief Officers at the scene of electrical emergencies to telephone the Shift Manager at the Borough Electrical Control Center. Some conditions that might require a call to a Con Edison Shift Manager can be found in all of the following except?
A: Fire condition becomes more severe than originally reported
B: Dangerous CO conditions in surrounding properties
C: Additional manholes or equipment showing activity
D: Transformer fire affecting one occupancy
E: Sensitive or high-profile occupancy

A

D
Explanation:
Transformer fire affecting several occupancies
Remember, If a Con Ed Substation is involved, Chief officers can contact the Con Edison SUBSTATION Shift Manager. This is different than the Electric Control Center
AUC 180 add 1 sec 2

34
Q
Question 34:
Post-fire, the Subject Matter Expert (SME) of a lithium ion energy storage system is required to be on scene when?
A: Within 30 minutes
B: Within 2 hours
C: Within 4 hours
D: Within 1 hour
A

A
Explanation:
HM 19 6

35
Q
Question 35:
The FDNY has an established protocol for training, familiarization tours, and drills with agencies such as, Amtrack, LIRR, MetroNorth, etc. As per protocol, who must you send a request to for this to happen?
A: Chief of Department
B: Administrative Division
C: The agency directly
D: Public Transportation Safety Unit
A

D
Explanation:
All requests for drills, training, and familiarization tours must be requested (as per protocol) through the Bureau of Operations, Public Transportation Safety Unit…Via chain of command
AUC 207 add 18

36
Q

Question 36:
Click here for the in basket… AUC 336 Add 1 BISP Ch 4 Add 5-SFOs BISP ch 5 ref 2.1 SB 56 Add 4

Notification must be made to the Fire Department for a planned removal from service, or unplanned out-of-service condition, of an Auxiliary Radio Communication (ARC) System. Failure to make this notification would result in what type of enforcement action?
A: VO
B: FDNY Summons
C: Immediate Summons
D: A-8 Referral
A

A
Explanation:
BISP Ch 4 Add 5 p 5

37
Q

Question 36:
Click here for the in basket… AUC 336 Add 1 BISP Ch 4 Add 5-SFOs BISP ch 5 ref 2.1 SB 56 Add 4

Question 37:
All of the following choices below are correct regarding the endorsement and forwarding of an A-8 Fire Department Referral Report with the exception of which choice?
A: The Battalion Chief shall open the e-mail with the attached A-8 and save a copy within the A-8 folder in the Battalion’s computer.
B: The Battalion Chief should evaluate the A-8 and ensure appropriate enforcement action has been taken, if required.
C: The Battalion Chief shall endorse the A-8 by simply typing his/her name in the appropriate box. After endorsing the A-8, the Battalion Chief shall again save a copy of the form within the A-8 folder in the Battalion’s computer.
D: Once saved, the Battalion Chief shall attach the A-8 to an e-mail and send it to the BISP Unit with the subject line “A-8 Referral – (include the street address)”.

A

D
Explanation:
Once saved, the Battalion Chief shall attach the A-8 to an e-mail and send it to the ADMINISTRATIVE DIVISION with the subject line “A-8 Referral – (include the street address)”.
If an A-17 is attached to the e-mail with the A-8, follow the same steps. Both documents should be attached to a single e-mail and sent to the administrative division. Make note of the A-17 in the subject line of the e-mail.
BISP Ch 5 Ref 2.1 1.4

38
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Click here for the in basket… AUC 336 Add 1 BISP Ch 4 Add 5-SFOs BISP ch 5 ref 2.1 SB 56 Add 4

Question 38:
What is the appropriate form for a Fire Department Unit to utilize whenever a commercial cooking appliance lacks proper  maintenance, has an expired permit, and/or lacks an exhaust or extinguishing system?
A: A-8
B: A-8 R
C: A-8 C
D: DOB Referral
A

B
Explanation:
BISP Ch 5 Ref 2.1 1.1.2

39
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Click here for the in basket… AUC 336 Add 1 BISP Ch 4 Add 5-SFOs BISP ch 5 ref 2.1 SB 56 Add 4
Question 39:
As the BC designated the “Member Tracking Chief” following a third alarm fire, you arrive at the hospital and take the following actions. Which is incorrect?
A: Confirm the name and unit of member(s) along with nature of injury.
B: Notify FDOC and the Staff Chief on-duty of the situation and give update.
C: From hospital administrator, request the use of a single, dedicated room.
D: Secure a fax line and fax machine.

A

C
Explanation:
From hospital administrator, request the use of TWO rooms. One used for F.D. Command Post (verify availability of telephones and numbers in Command Post). Second room for family with telephones.
AUC 336 Add 1

40
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Click here for the in basket… AUC 336 Add 1 BISP Ch 4 Add 5-SFOs BISP ch 5 ref 2.1 SB 56 Add 4

Question 40:
All of the following collisions shall be considered preventable with the exception of which choice?
A: A Fire Department apparatus in a non-response mode strikes a vehicle when passing a double parked car.
B: A Fire Department apparatus is involved in a collision while operating in reverse gear when guide personnel should have been available.
C: A double-parked apparatus at Multi-Unit Drill is struck by a civilian vehicle.
D: A Fire Department apparatus strikes the door of quarters when returning from an alarm.

A

C
Explanation:
Also preventable….
Operating a tractor trailer without an operator in the tiller.
Collisions caused by the failure to chock wheels.
A fall from a moving apparatus.
SB 56 Add 4 2.1