Exam 16 Flashcards
Question 1:
Please download or print the in basket that will be needed for this exam… OT REFERENCE SHEET PAID 74-5-FF Minimum Staffing Policy Guidelines PAID 2017-2-Professional Workplace Policy PAID 2013-1-Hazing Policy PAID 89-4-Bereavement Leave PAID 77-1-EEO Complaint Process REGS Ch 7-Battalion Chiefs REGS Ch 12-Fire Prevention BISP Ch 3a2_ig_11 Fire Code Guide BISP Ch 3a2_ig_10 CDA BISP Ch 3-BISP Program BISP Ch 3a2-Inspectional Guides BISP Ch 3a3-Suspension Of Outside Activities bi_05_ref_1_1 OOS Fire Protection Systems bi_05_ref_2_1 A-8 FD Referral Report bi_05_ref_5_2 Fire Escapes bi_05_ref_9_5 Overcrowded Conditions Com Ch 4-CIDS BISP ch 5 ref 2.1 bi_05_ref_2_1a DOB Referral Report… BC 99 is the IC at a manhole emergency and believes the operations are within the capability of a single unit. He/she may leave one unit to await the arrival of the emergency crew. If the expected time of arrival is more than __ minutes, BC 99, based on evaluation of existing conditions, correctly orders _____ .
A: 30, One member shall be left at the scene and the unit shall return to quarters. BC 99 shall provide relief for members.
B: 30, The unit remaining on the scene may respond to assigned alarms received via department radio; one member shall be left at the scene.
C: 60, One member shall be left at the scene and the unit shall return to quarters. BC 99 shall provide relief for members.
D: 60, The unit remaining on the scene may respond to assigned alarms received via department radio; one member shall be left at the scene.
B - Explanation:
AUC 180 sec 2.6
A. Company officer shall provide relief for members.
Question 2:
As an Incident Commander, you shall notify the responsible utility company via the Borough dispatcher any time a natural gas valve has been shut down. The type and location of valve shall be included in this notification. Units are not to required to remain on the scene awaiting the utility’s arrival unless conditions indicate and/or the IC request an immediate response. However, when it comes to notifying DOB, notifications can vary. Choose the one that DOES NOT require a DOB notification.
A: Elevator incident with injuries in a “NYCHA” building
B: Escalator incident with injuries in a High-Rise office building
C: Defective boiler or water heater with injuries (C.O. poisoning)
D: Amusement ride incident with injuries
A - Explanation:
The NYCHA shall be notified for incidents occurring in NYCHA buildings and facilities. The Department of Buildings DOES NOT require notification for incidents occurring in NYCHA buildings and facilities
BISP ch 5 ref# 2.1A sec 6
Question 3:
In your first hour out of the command course, you receive a phone call from a new Lt. in one of the companies regarding a criminal level hazing event that just occurred in quarters. Which of the following actions is MOST CORRECT for the new chief to recommend to the fresh Lt.?
A: Any reported hazing/bullying incident that would also be a crime will be reported directly to NYPD for investigation.
B: Alleged violations of this policy will be handled confidentially, however members cannot submit a hazing/bullying report anonymously to BITS or EEO.
C: Hazing or bullying that may also implicate or violate the department’s EEO policy is covered by reporting under the Anti Hazing/Anti Bullying policy.
D: Any incidents or allegations of hazing or bullying shall be reported by supervisory personnel in writing up the chain of command to the Chief of Department.
D - Explanation:
PA/ID 1/2013
A – Incorrect – DOI for investigation.
B – Incorrect – Can submit anonymously. Members are encouraged to provide one’s name and contact information. 4.2
C – Hazing/Bullying that violates EEO Policy shall be reported directly to EEO office in accordance with the EEO Policy. 4.6
D – Correct 4.4.
Question 4:
A knowledgeable BC would know which choice below to be INCORRECT regarding brush fire operations?
A: Attack the fire from the flanks and attempt to narrow its spread, eventually heading it off.
B: In general, avoid attacking from or operating in front of the fire. If necessary to operate in front of the fire (only to protect life), sufficient charged lines must be in place and capable of protecting operating forces.
C: Fires burning on hillsides will burn rapidly towards the top of the hill. In no case should units be positioned on streets at the top of the hill; always have units operate from the bottom of the hill and work upward.
D: Handlines should be considered when protecting exposures, when cutting off forward fire travel, and for deep seated fires. The commitment of resources necessary to get a handline into operation must be weighed against its effectiveness, mobility and anticipated results.
C - Explanation:
Fires burning on hillsides will burn rapidly towards the top of the hill. Have units positioned on streets at the top of the hill to protect exposures but attack the fire from the bottom of the hill and work upward.
AUC 151 5.4.5, 5.4.6, 5..4.7, 5.4.9, 5.4.16
Question 5:
Engine 16 gives a 10-75 at a foreign embassy for fire blowing out the windows on the 4th floor of a 5 story brownstone. Battalion 8 goes 10-84 a minute later and takes over command. The embassy grants access to FDNY units. Of the following choices, which is INCORRECT?
A: B-8 orders Engine 16 to stretch an 1 3/4” line as the first line.
B: Once B-8 is aware the fire is in an embassy, he notifies the dispatcher and immediately informs them of units progress with entry.
C: Explosives are found on the 3rd floor so B-8 orders an immediate evacuation.
D: Saving lives is our highest priority, but we can’t force occupants to leave if they refuse.
C - Explanation:
ABC 1-2010 sec 5.3
C. If explosives and ammunition are INVOLVED, evacuate immediately and notify NYPD and Fire Marshals.
*This was heavily protested after the 2013 BC test due to the tightness of the question.
Question 6:
Following an active shooter incident gone wrong, the department amended the Aggressive Deadly Behavior bulletin. A discussion among knowledgeable chiefs yielded the statements below. Which is the only CORRECT statement according to operations at these incidents?
A: NYPD requests for immediate life-saving medical interventions in the warm zone must be approved by an FDNY Deputy Chief.
B: A BC designated the Task Force Supervisor will be in overall command of a Rescue Task Force.
C: The Rescue Task Force supervisor shall operate on the Warm Zone tactical channel and the aide shall operate on the primary tactical channel.
D: Members operating as part of the Rescue Task Force shall operate on the Warm Zone Tactical Channel. One member shall monitor the TAC-U Channel.
D - Explanation:
ERP ADDENDUM 3A
A – Incorrect – Deputy approves normal requests, not required for immediate life saving 7.5
B – Incorrect - NYPD SRG member will be in overall command of a Rescue Task Force. 11.2.3
C – Incorrect – Aide operates on the command channel 11.3.2
D – Correct 11.5.2 Note
Question 7: Units respond to an alarm where construction activities set off the class 3 alarm. You CORRECTLY transmitted the following code \_\_\_\_. A: 10-35 no code B: 10-35 code 1 C: 10-35 code 2 D: 10-35 code 3
C - Explanation:
Communications 8
Question 8:
You just received a ticket to respond to the mobilization point (Wall St heliport) to act as the High-Rise Roof Chief (HRRC) due to a 3rd alarm transmitted for a fire on the 30th floor of a 60 sty 200x200 CL1 office building. While responding, you gather 3 key pieces of information from the IC via the dispatcher, which include the Progress report, ID of Attack and Evacuation Stairs, and ID of the stairs that lead to the roof. Once the permission is given to “Airlift” you must ensure certain protocols are followed. Choose the only CORRECT protocol you followed…
A: Ensure that the High Rise Roof Chief, High Rise Roof Teams, and PD ESU are all on HT ch 3 (secondary tactical) during air operations
B: Ensure Post Radio is on and set to ch 2 (command channel) during air lift operations to communicate with the Air Recon Chief and Incident Command Post
C: Ensured the Battalion FF was on the first airlift to monitor tactical channel 1
D: Due to weight limitations, 2 airlifts will be necessary. The first airlift will include the HRRC, the officer and FE team. The second airlift will include the Chauffeur, OV, and Roof FFs
D - Explanation:
AUC 269 add 1 sec 4.3.4.C
A- TAC-U ch 13 ….3.1.5.A
B- Take Post Radio for use on/within structure. If a Post Radio is not available, take the Battalion FF’s HT. Post Radio cannot be used in the helicopter…..3.1.5C
C- HRRC Battalion FF will remain at the mobilization point to provide security for the Battalion vehicle and HRRT apparatus……3.1.8
Question 9:
During drill in the kitchen of quarters on a Monday, at approximately 1400 hours, you observe one member punch another following a verbal confrontation. In this situation you would be MOST CORRECT to?
A: Immediately notify the Bureau of Investigations and Trials
B: Forward a written notification to the Bureau of Investigations and Trials
C: Immediately notify the Inspector General
D: Forward a written notification to the Inspector General
A - Explanation:
AUC 268A 3.1.2
Question 10:
It is Wednesday at 1209 hours when you are alerted by a member that another member under your command is taking false MSOT marks on CityTime. You would be CORRECT to make which notification?
A: Direct notification to the Bureau of Investigations and Trials
B: Direct notification to the Inspector General’s Office
C: Written notification to the Borough Commander
D: Written notification to the Bureau of Investigations and Trials
B - Explanation:
AUC 268 A
2.1.4 - Any allegation concerning the theft of City property or services by an employee or person dealing with the City.
2.1.8 - Any allegation concerning the falsification of or tampering with FDNY records, forms or computer data.
Question 11:
You are responding as the 1st due BC for a report of a top floor fire at 200 Dean street in the great Borough of Brooklyn. The ticket reads as follows: E100, E200, E300, L100, TL200. B100. CIDS: MD 4 STY 20X60 CL3 - 2 APTS PER FLOOR- CELL SITE ON ROOF-BACKUP POWER SUPPLY AND SHUT OFFS LOCATED IN CELLAR. E100 transmits the 10-75 for a fire on the top floor of a 4 sty non-fire proof tenement, which gives you E400, L300F, B200, D100 for a total of 4 Engines, 3 Ladders, and 2 BCs. As a newly promoted BC, you were only CORRECT in which tactical decision made for a fire in this type of building?
A: Special called an additional Engine and Ladder company because the building had a cell site on roof
B: Special called a Tower Ladder for the cell site installation on roof
C: Used B200 to supervise roof operations
D: Ordered a line stretched to the roof to cool cell site supporting “I” beams
D - Explanation:
AUC 331 sec 6.7
A- Special call an additional Engine and Ladder company if the cell site installation is involved….6.3
B-Ensure TL response on the initial alarm for a reported fire in these buildings (TL200 on initial ticket)….6.4
C-Special call an additional BC above the 10-75 to supervise roof operations…..6.5
Question 12: All visible fire is knocked down at a fire in Park Slope and EMS delivers the civilian casualty count to the Incident Commander. Dean Street produced eleven 10-45’s. There were two black tag, three orange tag, four yellow tag, and five green tag. According to the color-coding tags, how many of the 45’s were code 2? A: 0 B: 3 C: 4 D: 5
A - Explanation:
COMMUNICATIONS CHAPTER 8 PG 8-13
Code 1 – Black tag/deceased
Code 2 – Red tag/life threatening injury
Code 3 – yellow/orange tag non life threatening injury
Code 4 – Green tag/non serious ambulatory
Question 13:
To expedite the departure of units scheduled for training, Battalion Chiefs are to provide such units with details from within the Battalion. Which choice below is NOT in accordance with Department policy?
A: The Battalion shall, when necessary, provide appropriate transportation to ensure the detail arrives before 0915 hours or 1815 hours.
B: Units scheduled for such activities must leave from their quarters, with the day tour members no later than 0930 hours or night tour members no later than 1830 hours.
C: Any member, from outside the Battalion, originally assigned a detail to a unit scheduled for such activity will be reassigned by the Battalion Chief.
D: A unit in a double house scheduled for training and unable to comply with the guidelines above, shall have the adjoining unit in quarters supply the detail and leave for training at the appropriate time. The adjoining unit will await the detail.
B - Explanation:
Units scheduled for such activities must leave from their quarters, with the day tour members no later than 0915 hours or night tour members no later than 1815 hours.
AUC 287 5.1.3
Question 14:
As the first arriving BC, the MOST CORRECT tactic used for a fire inside a Con-Edison Substation can be found in which choice?
A: When raising aerial ladders and tower ladders, maintain a 15-foot safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line
B: Only place portable ladders against or over the wall or fence to rescue a con-ed worker (life safety)
C: Once gate is open by Con-ed White Hat, have member retrieve information from the Lockbox located inside the substation
D: If no White Hat on scene, call the posted number and request that one respond
D - Explanation:
AUC 338 add 2 sec 4.3
A- 18 foot safe clearance…..sec 6
B- Do not place portable ladders, aerial ladders, or TLs boom or bucket against or over the wall or fence……sec 6
C- Have White Hat retrieve info…..4.2
Look at sec 5.2…….A 3 1/2 supply line shall be stretched, but not charged to the sprinkler siamese if present. If requested by con-ed White Hat, supply the siamese with water at the posted pressure. Sprinklers if present protect only transformers
Question 15: \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ barrier tape should be used for perimeter identification of the Contamination Reduction Zone. A: White B: Green C: Yellow D: Red
C - Explanation:
Haz Mat ERP sec 4.3.5
Question 16:
During a recent drill visit, BC Jones discussed the parameters of department operations at a chemical suicide incident the engine received as an EMS run for an unconscious in a car with a bucket in the front seat. Which action taken by the company was CORRECT according to department policy?
A: Stretch a charged line with a fog nozzle attached, primarily for vapor dispersal or in case of ignition.
B: Ventilate the vehicle prior to entering.
C: Prior to removing the victim, check the victim for responsiveness to avoid unnecessarily disturbing the crime scene.
D: Without disturbing the container, recap the open container to minimize escaping gases.
B - Explanation:
HAZ-MAT 11 (FORMERLY AUC 353)
A – Incorrect – stretch a fog line primarily for decontamination. 4.1
B – Correct 4.1
C – Incorrect – Remove from hazardous environment and check for responsiveness. 4.1
D – Incorrect – Avoid disturbing the container. Haz Mat task. 4.1 / 5.3.
Question 17:
Due to a major storm that struck the Borough of Queens, several Rapid Response Vehicle Task Forces (RRVs) have been implemented to respond to, but limited to trees/wires down, elevator incidents and flooding conditions not imminently hazardous to life. As a Group Sector Supervisor in charge of 5 RRV Task Forces, you should know there are 4 ways to communicate with the ICP (Primary, Alternate, Contingency, and Emergency). From the following choices, choose the MOST CORRECT communication method used.
A: The primary communication method is the 800 mhz radios
B: The alternate communication method used is the DARS radios
C: The emergency communication method used is the ERS call box
D: The contingency communication method used is the cell phone
Explanation: AUC 159 add 8 sec 4.1 A- DARS radio B- 800 mhz radio C- Department radio
Question 18:
A BC responding to an explosion on the Brooklyn Bridge would be correct in all considerations below EXCEPT in which choice?
A: The Field Guide is the “Green Book” and is used by First Responders to increase awareness of potential hazards, identify structural components and accurately report details at the scene.
B: The FDNY Incident Commander must relay information from the scene to the Deputy Chief and be ready to answer any additional questions. Maintaining radio and cell phone communication with the Deputy Chief is critical.
C: NYCDOT and MTA Bridge and Tunnel engineers are to be notified immediately through FDOC of information gathered from the Incident Assessment Report.
D: Refer to the Field Guide to identify affected structural members. Transmit an incident assessment to the Dispatcher using the “Size-Up” section of the Field Guide.
B - Explanation:
The FDNY Incident Commander must relay information from the scene to the Command Chief and be ready to answer any additional questions. Maintaining radio and cell phone communication with the Command Chief is critical.
AUC 344 1.2, 1.3, 1.4
Question 19:
What is the priority order for use of positive pressure fans at a FDNY high-rise structural fire?
A: 1. Pressurize the evacuation stairwell to support the fire attack; 2. Pressurize the attack stairwell for smoke and CO control. 3. Ventilate the public hallways for smoke and CO control.
B: 1. Ventilate the public hallways for smoke and CO control. 2. Pressurize the attack stairwell to support the fire attack; 3. Pressurize the evacuation stairwell for smoke and CO control.
C: 1. Pressurize the attack stairwell to support the fire attack; 2. Pressurize the evacuation stairwell for smoke and CO control. 3. Ventilate the public hallways for smoke and CO control.
D: 1. Ventilate the public hallways for smoke and CO control. 2. Pressurize the evacuation stairwell to support the fire attack; 3. Pressurize the attack stairwell for smoke and CO control.
C - Explanation:
AUC 349 6.5
Question 20:
Assigned Battalion Chiefs must visit at least once each week, every Department building over which the Battalion has supervision, and inspect members, uniforms, apparatus, equipment, records, and all areas of quarters to ensure Company Commanders and Company Officers are following the rules and regulations of the FDNY. From the list below, choose the only regulation that was followed CORRECTLY…
A: Officers on duty shall not permit photographs to be taken in department buildings under their jurisdiction without approval of the Fire Commissioner
B: Officers on duty shall ensure privately owned automobiles or vehicles shall never be stored in quarters under any circumstances
C: Officers shall ensure that the Workplace Violence Prevention Policy is posted permanently on the bulletin board of the company quarters/administrative offices
D: Company Commanders shall ensure the interior of all lockers are secured in a neat, clean, and serviceable condition for the storage of uniforms, clothing, and other personal property. Materials prohibited by any Department rules or regulations shall not be posted or otherwise kept on the interior sides of lockers
A - Explanation:
Regulations ch 19 sec 19.2.7
B- Fire Commissioner approval needed to store in qtrs…19.2.3
C- EEO Policy Statement and Sexual Harassment Policy Statement and Diversity and Inclusion Mission Statement are posted on bulletin board (19.2.2). The WorkPlace Violence Prevention Policy is available on FDNY Intranet PAID 1-2011 sec 1.5
D- Not the CC…THE INDIVIDUAL MEMBERS are responsible….19.2.2
Also see Regs ch 7 sec 7.4.1
Question 21: You, the BC, return from a 2nd alarm fire and the incoming aide greets you with the following 4 statements: 1. The DC called and said call him back about the fire from last night.... 2. Lt Smith E-99 slammed the door open and said he is upset over your last email and call him ASAP.... 3. Capt Williams L-200 needs to speak with you about cross training.... 4. NYPD 3 star chief Jacobs called about the parade on Sunday.... According to the guidelines of the management bulletin, place these contacts in priority order... A: 1, 2, 4, 3 B: 2, 1, 3, 4 C: 2, 1, 4, 3 D: 4, 2, 1, 3
A - Explanation:
TB Management sec 2.3
Superiors
People who are upset, whether outsiders or insiders
Outsiders: from another agency or unit, civilians
Routine contacts with insiders
SPOR
- Superiors
- People who are upset, whether outsiders or insiders
- Outsiders: from another agency or unit, civilians
- Routine contacts with insiders
Question 22:
Battalion 99 is 1084 at a confirmed leak in the Iroquois Pipeline. Which of the following is CORRECT regarding department operations at this emergency?
A: The primary consideration is the evacuation of the area involved.
B: Except in the event of immediate threat to life or property, no valves should be opened or closed without the approval of Con Edison/Iroquois personnel.
C: Patrolling the pipeline to locate the leak will be performed by a Squad Company or SOC Support ladder. If not available, the IC shall special call one for their metering capabilities.
D: Once the location of the leak is confirmed, fog lines shall be used to aid in the dissipation of the escaping gas.
A -Explanation:
AUC 150
A – Correct 7.2.1
B – Incorrect – FD Incident Commander in consultation with Con Ed/Iroquois personnel. 4.5
C – Incorrect – If Rescue, Squad, Soc Support not available, IC shall order available units 7.2.3
D – Incorrect – Fog lines may hinder the dissipation of the gas. 7.1.2
Question 23: You are once again attending a Division conference. The hot topic for the week is the uptick in Loft building fires. As a refresher, the Deputy Chief made the following statements about Loft type building features: 1) Segmental arch floors should only be breached (checking for extension) for small type fires........2) If fire is impinging on a segmental arch floor, have engine companies get as close as possible to the segmental arch floor and operate hoseline overhead to extinguish fire as quick as possible......3) Indiscriminate overhauling on the underside of segmental arch floors can cause a localized collapse.......4) Cast-Iron Columns are not designed to withstand an eccentric load..........5) When subjected to heat from a fire for long periods of time, cast-iron columns can fracture and fail......The Deputy Chief was only CORRECT in which statements? A: 1,3,4,5 B: 2,4,5 C: 1,5 D: 3,4,5
Explanation:
FF Procedures/Lofts
1- Segmental arch floors should not be breached for fear of causing a general floor collapse spanning a wide area…..5.2.1
2- Segmental arch floors exposed to fire can spall violently and possibly fail when struck by water from a hoseline below. Use the reach of the stream and do not operate the stream directly overhead….6.1.8
3- correct…..7.1.19
4- correct…..5.1.10.C
5- correct…..5.1.10.F
Question 24:
The presence of lightweight construction in private dwellings has increased the potential hazard to firefighters operating in these structures. Once the fire enters a concealed space containing lightweight trusses or joists, it can rapidly travel to remote locations. The IC shall immediately be notified and consider all of the following EXCEPT?
A: The IC shall ensure all members on scene are made aware of the presence of lightweight construction.
B: Once lightweight construction is discovered, this information shall be transmitted to the borough dispatcher in the preliminary and/or progress reports so that it can be relayed to responding units.
C: All members shall be directed not to enter the fire area or areas directly above the fire until the IC determines the risk of a planned coordinated interior attack. This is especially true with laminated wood I-beams.
D: When heated gases build up in the concealed spaces of the trussloft and attic/cockloft, there is a much greater potential for a backdraft to occur.
C - Explanation:
This is especially true with the open-web design of lightweight parallel chord wood and composite trusses.
PD Ch 6 4.1.3, 4.1.4
Question 25:
You just went 10-84 for a fire in a Private Dwelling. The ticket reads as follows: E100, E200, E300, E400, TL500, L600, B1, B2, D5. CIDS: REHAB PD 2 STY 20X60 CL4LW-FLAT ROOF-SIDE ENTRANCE TO CELLAR ON EX 4 SIDE. As the 1st arriving BC, you should know the only CORRECT action/decision taken at this fire can be found in which choice?
A: B1 sees smoke pushing at the floor line of the 1st floor on the outside of the building indicating fire in the voids with collapse imminent
B: With E100 and E300 having 2 lines stretched and operating and unable to knock down the cellar and 1st floor fires, B1 called for an extra Engine and ordered a 3rd line stretched to assist E100 and E300 without any consideration of withdrawing companies and instituting an outside operation
C: With TL500 confirming a cellar fire and rapidly extending to the 1st floor, TL500 officer radioed to his LCC to examine the attached exposure to id the type of construction used
D: B1 ordered L600 Roof FF to stop operating the saw on the roof, because under no circumstances shall the roof be cut.
D - Explanation:
Private Dwellings ch 6
A- Indication of fire in a truss loft. When this warning sign is evident at a PD fire, it is an indication that the probability of collapse is significantly increased…..sec 4.1.12
B- When the fire is of such magnitude that it cannot be quickly knocked down with two hoselines, then an outside operation must be considered….4.2.3
C- This inspection shall be assigned by the IC to an available unit……4.3.2
D- Under no circumstances shall the roof be cut in any peaked or flat roof building of lightweight construction…4.3.8 and 4.3.11
Question 26: The standard emergency signaling system used by all FEMA USAR Task Forces has been adopted by this Department. It may be sounded on a handheld aerosol can air horn, or on apparatus air horns. Each Safety Officer and member monitoring a transit, as well as members positioned as lookouts for hazard monitoring, will be issued an air horn. Which signal indicates “evacuate the area?” A: 1 long and 1 short blast B: 3 short blasts (1 second each) C: 1 Long Blast (3 seconds) D: 1 short and 1 long blast
B - Explanation:
1 Long Blast (3 seconds) - Cease Operations/All Quiet
3 short blasts (1 second each) - Evacuate the area
1 long and 1 short blast - Resume Operations
Collapse 9.2
Question 27:
While working the 6x9 tour in Battalion 99 you pay Engine 98 a visit for drill. Upon entry, you suspect several firefighters in quarters have been drinking on duty. You summon the captain to the house watch and call the command chief to designate an investigating officer. Of the actions listed below, which is CORRECT as a responsibility of the chief officer who discovered the situation?
A: Immediately removes the members from emergency response duty and places the unit out of service.
B: Conducts a roll call of all members
C: Allows firefighter Joy to leave quarters, clearing her of any involvement.
D: Conducts an investigation to determine which members may have engaged in prohibited conduct.
A - Explanation:
AUC 202
A – Correct – Discovering officer does this 5.5 – 2 & 3
B – Incorrect – Investigating officer does this 5.7.1
C – Incorrect – Investigating officer grants permission for members to leave 5.5 #1. Prohibit on and off-duty members present at the time of discovery of any violation of this policy from leaving premises without permission of the investigating officer.
D – Incorrect – Investigating officer does this 5.7 #3
Question 28:
The fire sector chief at a taxpayer fire transmits a mayday for an imminent collapse situation. You, the IC, CORRECTLY give the following transmission…
A: MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY, Command to all units MAYDAY, GET OUT OF THE BUILDING, GET OUT OF THE BUILDING
B: Command to all units MAYDAY, GET OUT OF THE BUILDING, GET OUT OF THE BUILDING
C: MAYDAY MAYDAY MAYDAY, Command to all units MAYDAY, BACK OUT OF THE BUILDING, BACK OUT OF THE BUILDING
D: Command to all units MAYDAY, BACK OUT OF THE BUILDING, BACK OUT OF THE BUILDING
B - Explanation:
Yes, the question was this tight and it wasn’t double answered.
Communications Ch 9. sec 9.4.1 A 4
Question 29:
A BC discussing proper ventilation tactics with the OV FF of the Ladder Company in quarters during drill had to correct which INCORRECT statement made by this member?
A: All horizontal ventilation tactics, whether Ventilation for Extinguishment or Ventilation for Search, require communication with, and coordination by, the Ladder Company Officer operating inside the fire area to be vented.
B: Horizontal ventilation tactics include controlling door and window openings until a charged hoseline is advancing within the fire area and extinguishing the fire.
C: If the member on the exterior waiting to perform horizontal Ventilation for Extinguishment hears a transmissions from the Engine Company Officer that his/her unit is “knocking down visible fire,” this indicates to the exterior member to immediately perform horizontal ventilation of that area.
D: If the member on the exterior waiting to perform horizontal Ventilation for Extinguishment hears a transmissions from the Engine Company Officer notifying the Engine Chauffeur to “start water,” this indicates to the exterior member to prepare to conduct Ventilation for Extinguishment.
C - Explanation:
PREPARE to conduct Ventilation for Extinguishment. Before venting the window(s) the member MUST communicate with and receive approval from the Ladder Company Officer inside the fire area to be vented.
Vent 7.1, 7.2, 11.4
Question 30:
As the IC at a gas leak where units can’t stop the leak at the appliance valve, you CORRECTLY order them to try the ______ next.
A: Interior Gas Riser Valve located near the ceiling of the basement/cellar
B: Interior Gas Riser Valve located near the ceiling on the first floor
C: Master Meter Valve located in the basement/cellar usually towards the front wall
D: Master Meter Valve located on the exterior of the structure
A - Explanation:
EMERGENCY PROCEDURES NATURAL GAS Pg 23
“All Meister’s Irish Men Hate Engine
Companies”
Appliance, meter, Interior Riser master meter head of service, exterior gas riser, curb valve, street valve
Question 31:
You are winding down from a fire in apartment 5A on the 5th floor of a 6 sty 100x100 “H” type multiple dwelling. The Fire Sector Supervisor tells you that the secondary searches are complete and negative and recommends that you place the fire Under Control. You turn to the DC on scene, and he agrees. The DC leaves you in charge and takes up. After the DC leaves. a women approaches you and tells you that her diamond engagement ring is missing from apartment 6A . The MOST CORRECT action for you to take at this point can be found in which choice?
A: Conduct an investigation by interviewing all witnesses on scene
B: Have members conduct an immediate search of apt 6A for ring
C: If the women alleges that FFs stole the ring after a thorough search of the apt, then a notification to BITS is required
D: In all cases of property missing, lost, or stolen from the scene of a fire, an immediate notification to the Fire Marshal and PD are required
B - Explanation:
Regulations ch 11 sec 11.3.16
A- IC should not interview witnesses….. 11.3.16
C- Notify the IG….. 11.3.16
D- If the complainant alleges a FF stole the ring and the fire has been designated a 10-41 (all codes), notify the Fire Marshal and IG…..11.3.16
Read this section carefully
Question 32:
As the IC in charge of an advanced fire in the cellar of a taxpayer that is equipped with a sprinkler system throughout, you should know each choice below to contain correct information EXCEPT?
A: Transmit a second alarm.
B: The second arriving Engine Company is responsible for ensuring the sprinkler system is supplied.
C: Flood the first floor with the Stang nozzle or tower ladder pipe as a last resort.
D: Cellars of large area or heavy fire conditions may require two lines advancing in unison. If these lines do not control the fire, heavy outside streams will be required.
B - Explanation:
The THIRD engine company: - Ensure sprinkler system is supplied.
Txpyr 5.7.4, 7.2.2 M, P, 7.2.3 C
Question 33:
Answer the following question according to Brannigan……..The correct fire tactics used in Garden Apartments can be found in all of the following EXCEPT?
A: The stairway is a safe working platform for FFs
B: Once the attic is fully involved, the use of a ladder pipe for suppression is questionable
C: If the fire reaches the attic, the roof will burn away in a short amount of time. The sooner it goes the better, because then it will be safe to operate on the top floor
D: It might be better to use the ladder pipe to protect the firewall and extinguish any fire spreading on the roofing
A - Explanation:
The stairway is NOT necessarily a safe working platform
If the truss floors are extended to act as a stairway platform, a void fire may involve the stairway early on
Chapter 5
Question 34:
You arrive at an incident where a strange chemical has been detected inside of a warehouse in Brooklyn. Squad reports they are unable to identify the material. NYPD is not yet on scene. Based on the Citywide Incident Management System (CIMS), when all resources and agencies arrive, who will be the Incident Commander? A: NYPD Single Command B: FDNY Single Command C: FDNY and NYPD Unified Command D: DEP Single Command
A - Explanation:
CBRN/Haz-Mat Incidents - NYPD Single Command UNTIL “NYPD” determines there is no actual/suspected crime or terrorism. If NYPD determines there is no actual/suspected crime or terrorism, then it becomes FDNY & NYPD Unified Command.
AUC 276 6
Question 35:
BC Knowitall made a bunch of decisions upon arrival at a fire in a HRFPMD. Which of the choices made was CORRECT while awaiting the arrival of the deputy?
A: Contacted the 2nd Arriving Ladder Company to confirm the evacuation stair door was being maintained in the closed position.
B: Ordered the 4th due ECC to assist in receiving calls and recording information from building occupants.
C: Ordered the use of the high-rise nozzle as the first alternate strategy due to the immediate availability of a second line & the time it takes to put into operation.
D: Had the 3rd & 4th Arriving Engine Companies place the high-rise nozzle in operation using the 2nd line.
B - Explanation:
MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
A – Incorrect – 3rd Due Truck Responsibility 6.22F
B – Correct – 6.22L
C – Incorrect – KO Curtain would normally be the 1st tactic 5.1 & 5.2 notes…
D – Incorrect – 5th Due Engine responsibility. 2nd line can be used to carry out…6.1.12
Question 36:
With the possibility of being designated as the High-Pressure Group Supervisor for a fire on an upper floor of a High-Rise office building, you must be well versed in high-pressure pumping operations. Choose the MOST CORRECT high-pressure pumping operation.
A: The standpipe should only be supplied by 1 high-pressure engine
B: Fires above the 100th floor, will require a 3rd stage engine
C: Stairwells served by standpipes and used for high-pressure pumping shall be avoided by fleeing occupants, but can be used to stage FFs
D: Only the IC at the rank of BC or ABC or higher may order the use of the 3rd stage
Explanation:
Engine Operations ch 9 add 1
A- Should be supplied by 2 engines. This will require more than one high-pressure or 3rd stage engine to be assigned or special called to the incident is pressures higher than 250 psi are required….sec 3.3
B- Correct- Pressures exceeding 600 psi will require a 3rd stage engine…..2.1 table and 4.1
C- Must not be used as staging areas or rest areas during high-pressure operations……top of page 4
D-Only the IC at the rank of BC or higher may order the use of the 3rd stage. Acting battalion chief not included in this……4.1
Question 37:
You are notified by one of your administrative units of a building with an imminently hazardous condition and that they have submitted an immediate eCIDS entry. You should know which action below to be INCORRECT?
A: Enter the eCIDS application to view the pending immediate CIDS. If approved, notify the administrative DC by phone to inform the Chief of the pending immediate CIDS.
B: Expect the immediate eCIDS entry to appear at the top of your eCIDS pending list in bold print.
C: “MEGA” should appear under the “FD Designation” portion of the CIDS if it was submitted for a building over 800’.
D: “CL2LW” should appear under the “Description of Building” portion of the CIDS if it was submitted for a Brownstone building that was recently renovated using metal “C-joists” and “C-beams.”
D - Explanation:
This should be CL3LW….CL3 indicates the original structure with “LW” signifying the addition of lightweight materials, which should be described in the “Transmitted Data” portion.
Comm Ch 4 4.3.1, 4.3.3, 4.4.2 D3
Question 38:
The Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS) is designed to improve the accountability of members at all operations. EFAS is installed on the MDT of many FDNY vehicles throughout the department. From the choices listed below, choose the MOST CORRECT one that accurately describes the EFAS features.
A: The EFAS system is capable of handling up to two Emergency Alert transmissions at the same time. Two or more EFAS vehicles are mandatory at all incidents
B: EFAS in Battalion vehicles has the capabilities of monitoring any of the 16 channels only. Divisions vehicles need to be on scene to monitor UTAC and NYMAC channels
C: EFAS defaults to Channel 2
D: EFAS can only monitor one channel at a time. A separate Battalion/Division EFAS equipped vehicle in conjunction with a EFAS trained member is required for each channel in use
D - Explanation:
Communications ch 9 add 3
A- The EFAS system is capable of handling MULTIPLE Emergency Alert transmissions at the same time…..5.1.4
B- EFAS has the capabilities of monitoring any of the 16 channels, including UTAC and NYMAC channels….6.1
C- Defaults to Channel 1 …..6.1
D- Correct….6.1
Question 39:
You are conducting a drill with members of your Battalion on a local building equipped with a Base Station Leaky Cable Simplex UHF/VHF Radio System. All choices below contain correct information regarding this Auxiliary Radio Communication System (ARCS) EXCEPT?
A: It is a simplex radio that can either operate on FDNY UHF HT channels 1 through 8 (FDNY Programmed) or it may utilize in-house radios (Proprietary). Transmissions made from the base station will be carried by the cable to all areas of the building or infrastructure.
B: Transmissions captured by the cable are received by the base station radio but are not re-transmitted. Therefore, important messages that are needed to be heard by all members should be re-transmitted at the base station radio by the member monitoring transmissions.
C: The IC must notify the Dispatcher for relay to responding units any time an auxiliary communications system is activated. IC must also notify the FAST Truck when additional communication channels are used as the FAST Truck will need to obtain an additional HT for each channel in use.
D: If this system fails, consider utilizing the Reverse Channels of the Post Radio or FDNY mobile UHF radio to transmit an emergency message.
D - Explanation:
This is only an option if the building has a “DUPLEX UHF radio repeater system.”
Comm Ch 13 2.2, 4.1, 4.2, 5.2
Question 40:
Following a recent Wind Impacted fire in a HRFPMD, chief officers were discussing parts of the operation. Which was the only CORRECT action taken when confronted with an open apartment door during a flanking attack?
A: An officer and one member shall enter the public hall to locate and gain control of the fire apartment door.
B: The hoseline was stretched via the hallway to the adjoining apartment and the door closed once the line was charged to limit the possibility of a flow path.
C: Once members were able to get into the adjoining apartment an opening was made in the adjoining wall to the fire room as close to the exterior wall as possible to avoid creating a flow path.
D: The initial opening in the wall was only large enough to place the main stream tip of the nozzle in the opening & direct the stream on the main body of fire.
C - Explanation:
MULTIPLE DWELLINGS
A – Incorrect – Tactic used during deployment of wind control device 5.1E
B – Incorrect – Line is stretched via the exterior from the apartment below 4.2.4 A dot 3 – Done this way when the fire apartment door is closed. 4.2.4B
C – Correct – Opening made near the exterior wall 4.2.4
D - Incorrect – Stream is directed at the ceiling of the fire room. 4.2.4
Question 41:
Units respond to a box truck on its side after it crashed into a tree. They are getting hits for radiation of 200 mR/hr at the surface of one of the packages. This package has a radioactive level - III transport index label that reads 10 mR/hr. The IC CORRECTLY transmits that this is a _________
A: radiological emergency because the total transport index of a vehicles shipment can’t exceed 50 mR/hr
B: radiological incident because this package can emit radiation levels as high as 50 mR/hr at 1 meter from the package
C: radiological emergency because radiation levels over 50 mR/hr at the surface of the package means it most likely has been breached
D: radiological incident because this package can emit radiation levels as high as 200 mR/hr at the surface of the package
D - Explanation:
ERP Add 4 sec 2.2, 2.3 and Appendix 2 sec 2.4
A package shipped according to DOT guidelines can emit radiation levels as high as 200 mR/hr at the surface of the package
Don’t confuse this with the transport index which is read 1 meter from the package.
A. This is a correct statement, but not for the incident mentioned in the question
B. 10 mR/hr
Question 42: Upon arrival of an incident, chief officers shall give a Preliminary Report to the dispatcher within how many minutes? A: 2 minutes B: 5 minutes C: 10 minutes D: 15 minutes
Explanation:
The Preliminary Report shall include: 1- Existing conditions
2- The number of companies operating
3- Status of all hoselines
a- being stretched and to what location
b- Hoselines that are operating
c- Any problems with water supply and corrective actions being taken
** When 2 engines and 2 ladders or all 1st alarm units are operating, or a greater alarm has been transmitted, and within 10 minutes of the Preliminary Report, a PROGRESS Report shall be transmitted
Communications ch 10 sec 10.3.2
Question 43:
Upon arrival at the scene of a collapse, the first arriving Chief Officer should take command at the scene and follow the recommendations listed in each choice below EXCEPT?
A: Announce arrival and evaluate the ICP established by the initial IC. Ensure the ICP is located at or in the immediate vicinity of the incident site, in an area outside of the operations site and collapse zone.
B: Keep in mind there are likely to be multiple responding agencies whose ranking representatives need to be accommodated at the ICP. The ICP must be clearly visible from the collapsed structure and accessible to incoming units.
C: Reevaluate the location of the Staging Area and assign a company officer to be the Staging Area Manager until replaced by a Battalion Chief. Transmit a preliminary report regarding the location of the ICP and the staging area. The Dispatcher can assist in identifying a staging area.
D: The third and fourth engines should be used to seal off the ends of the street of the collapse.
D - Explanation:
If possible, both first and second arriving engines should take separate hydrants outside the block, each on separate mains, and prepare to supply handlines and a large caliber tower ladder stream. The third and fourth engines should take similar positions at the rear of the structure. Two of the SECOND ALARM ENGINE COMPANIES should be used to seal off the ends of the street. The chauffeurs of these units must remain in the cab, able to move the apparatus if directed by the IC. Remaining engine companies should be positioned well away from the scene, for they will probably be responding for personnel needs only.
Collapse 5.3, 6.1, 6.2
Question 44:
The Personal Safety System (PSS) is used by members to remove themselves from an untenable position above grade to a place of safety. The PSS is a one time use system and is only to be used as a last resort. In addition to being inspected semi-annually, the PSS shall be inspected at the start of each tour. If during inspection it is discovered the PSS is in doubt or contaminated, the only CORRECT procedure for you to perform can be found in which choice?
A: When a Chief’s PSS is out of service, the unit where they are working shall be placed OOS until a replacement PSS is obtained.
B: Anytime a PSS has been placed OOS, a Deputy Chief must conduct an investigation and the officer must complete an Out of Service Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2)
C: When the PSS has been grossly contaminated from fireground contaminants, the PSS shall be placed OOS
D: Whenever the PSS is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall have the system immediately replaced by making immediate phone notification to the administrative Battalion and request a replacement PSS
A - Question 44:
The Personal Safety System (PSS) is used by members to remove themselves from an untenable position above grade to a place of safety. The PSS is a one time use system and is only to be used as a last resort. In addition to being inspected semi-annually, the PSS shall be inspected at the start of each tour. If during inspection it is discovered the PSS is in doubt or contaminated, the only CORRECT procedure for you to perform can be found in which choice?
A: When a Chief’s PSS is out of service, the unit where they are working shall be placed OOS until a replacement PSS is obtained.
B: Anytime a PSS has been placed OOS, a Deputy Chief must conduct an investigation and the officer must complete an Out of Service Life Safety Equipment Report (SCF-2)
C: When the PSS has been grossly contaminated from fireground contaminants, the PSS shall be placed OOS
D: Whenever the PSS is placed OOS, the officer on duty shall have the system immediately replaced by making immediate phone notification to the administrative Battalion and request a replacement PSS
Question 45:
B-100 receives a phone alarm at 1200 hrs for a truck fire next to a school. Upon arrival, B-100 receives confirmation from L-200 that there is a gasoline tanker that rolled over and is on fire about 100 feet from a school covering an area approximately 100x100. L-200 also states that the tanker is holding approximately 4,000 gallons of gasoline and has an aluminum shell that is mostly in tact. B-100 transmits the 10-86, which gives her; 2 Foam Tankers; 2 Foam Coordinators (BCs); 1 Satellite with Engine; 1 Foam Tender with Engine; 2 Purple K units and Engines; Haz-Mat1; HMB1; 1 HMTU. Since this is the first gasoline tanker roll-over for the Chief in B-100, she only performed which tactic CORRECTLY?
A: Ordered the Satellite into operation with applying a large caliber stream directly at the fire as far away as possible
B: While waiting for Satellite to arrive, order a Tower Ladder to get as close to tanker as possible applying large caliber stream to the vapor area of tanker
C: Ordered a Tower Ladder and handlines into operation as close as possible to incident because BLEVE isn’t an issue with aluminium shell tankers (melt before BLEVE)
D: Ordered members into foam blanket to turn off the leaking valve
B - Explanation:
A- Onto the vapor area of the tank as close as possible…8.7
B- Correct…8.7
C- If the tank is made of steel, or when an aluminum tank remains intact, the chance of BLEVE still exists and its extremely important to get a large caliber stream on the vapor area of the tank quickly…..8.7
D- Entry into a foam blanket should be limited to the rescue or injured victims….8.4 last bullet
Question 46:
The storage and use of bunker gear have become a hot topic in and around quarters these days. Which statement below CORRECTLY describes the new bunker gear policy?
A: During drill visits, Battalion and Division Chiefs shall ensure that “No Bunker Gear” signage is posted in designated areas and remains in place.
B: Sending your gear either to the Decon Support Unit or delivering it to the Quartermaster for cleaning satisfies the NFPA standard for cleaning and inspecting Bunker Gear.
C: Conducting a Life Saving Rope drill wearing bunker gear in the bunk room is considered prohibited behavior.
D: Members who do not have a second set of gear due to laundering can obtain loaner gear by contacting the Special Operations Command.
C - Explanation:
AUC 310 & ADDENDUMS
A – Incorrect – ADD 3 – 3.3 – Company Commanders shall ensure that signage is posted and remains in place.
B – Incorrect – ADD 2 -1.1 – Does not satisfy the requirements.
C – Correct – ADD 3 – 2.1.2 & 2.1.3
D – Incorrect – ADD 2 – 3.4 - Haz Mat Decon Support Unit.
Question 47:
You respond to a CBRN/HAZ-MAT incident in Times Square where terrorism is not suspected. According to CIMS this would be _______.
A: FDNY and NYPD unified command and unified operations section
B: NYPD single command with unified operations section
C: FDNY single command with unified operations section
D: FDNY single command with FDNY and DEP unified operations section
A - Explanation:
AUC 276 sec 6
Question 48: Removal of non-ambulatory victims at an emergency in an under river rail tube will be labor-intensive and will require increased personnel and logistical support. Of the following choices, which is the the primary method for moving patients and equipment? A: Rail Carts B: Rescue Train C: SKED Stretchers D: Victim Removal Relay Teams
A - Explanation:
URR 7.3
Question 49:
You are the IC at a gas leak inside a Rowframe in the middle of the block in the great Borough of Brooklyn. Choose the MOST CORRECT action taken at this incident…
A: If the Altair meter displays 5 percent of the LEL, this may indicate a potentially serious leak and may require treating the incident as a Major Gas Emergency
B: If the Altair meter displays 10 percent of the LEL, only 1 Engine and 1 Ladder shall be positioned in front of building of reported gas leak. All other units to shall stage at street corners
C: After several minutes on scene with confirmed detector activation and meter readings, companies are unable to locate leak. Odor has dissipated and you transmit a 10-40-1 and take up
D: Meter readings of 10 percent of the LEL may be treated as a Major Gas Emergency
D - Explanation:
Emergency Procedures/Natural Gas ….New as of 3/29/2019
A- 10 percent of the LEL…..6.2
B- First arriving units shall not be positioned in front of the reported leak location. Additional units shall stage at street corners…6.2
C- When detector activation and meter reading wer present, it is not acceptable to leave the scene of an “odor of gas” response after the odor has dissipated without mitigation or coordination with utility company representative….page 19
D- page 16
Question 50:
During a day tour in the borough of Manhattan, one of your units advises you that their apparatus radio is out of service. Of the following choices, which is the only one with CORRECT information regarding the procedure to be followed?
A: The Battalion shall supply the affected unit with a portable citywide radio capable of direct communications with all borough dispatchers.
B: During a response, the affected unit will use the citywide radio in lieu of the non-operating apparatus radio for all communications to the borough dispatcher until the apparatus radio is repaired.
C: The citywide radio shall be carried/worn by the company officer and only under his/her control.
D: If a response is received while awaiting the arrival of the citywide radio, the officer shall notify the dispatcher that the unit is out of service.
xplanation:
A) The DIVISION shall supply the affected unit with a portable citywide radio capable of direct communications with all borough dispatchers.
C) The citywide radio is NOT to be carried/worn by the company officer; it shall remain in the front cab of the apparatus and serve as a communication link from the unit to the borough dispatcher.
D) If a response is received while awaiting the arrival of the citywide radio, the officer shall NOTIFY the dispatcher that the unit is responding without an operating apparatus radio. The dispatcher will then ensure that an additional unit (nearest available Engine or Ladder) with an operating apparatus radio is dispatched to the same alarm.
Comm Ch 8 8.14.4-8.14.6
Question 51:
The time is 1600 hrs and you receive a phone call from a distraught Lt. advising you he needs to immediately take emergency leave and bereavement leave following notification that his father-in-law passed suddenly at 1400 hrs. Which of the following choices is CORRECT recalling your knowledge of the leave policies?
A: You advise the Lt. that the emergency leave request is invalid, the bereavement leave request is valid and begins at 0900 tomorrow.
B: You advise the Lt. that the emergency leave request is valid, the bereavement leave request is invalid and you relieve him from duty allowing him 2 night tours off.
C: You advise the Lt. that the emergency and bereavement leave requests are valid, relieving him from duty and advising him that the bereavement leave request may not be less than 4 days.
D: You advise the Lt. that neither request is valid, however, due to the circumstances, you relieve him from duty.
Explanation:
CROSS REFERENCE – PA/ID 4/89 & REGULATION CHAPTER 17
A – Correct – In-laws are NOT covered under emergency leave, but mother and father-in-law are covered under bereavement leave. PA/ID 4/89 1.1 & 1.3. Immediate family member of spouse or domestic partner: Spouse or domestic partner’s parent or child or other relative residing in the member’s household at the time of death.
Deputy Chiefs shall, when notified of serious illness of a spouse, child, parent (step, foster or natural), brother or sister of a member, grant an emergency leave to member. Deputy Chief granting such leave shall complete and forward form BP-603. Regs 17.4.1
Bereavement leave may not be less than 4 days. 2.5 Bereavement leave begins at 0900 following time of death. 2.7. Two 15 hour tours or one 15 hr tour and two 9-hr tours. 2.1
Question 52:
A knowledgeable BC should know which choice below to contain INCORRECT information regarding the FAST Pak?
A: The Fast Pak is a portable air supply intended for use as an emergency air source for members when they are low or out of air while operating in an IDLH atmosphere. The Fast Pak is carried by all Ladder, Rescue and Squad Companies.
B: A Mask Record Card (Form SD-30) shall be filled out and maintained for each Fast Pak assigned to a unit. Defects found must be included on the Mask Record Card.
C: If a company’s Fast Pak is out-of-service they can request a Spare Fast Pak as a replacement from the Division.
D: Once a Fast Pak is put into operation, the IC shall ensure that a second Fast Pak is readily available at the scene to be used as required.
C - Explanation:
If a company’s Fast Pak is out-of-service they can request a Spare Fast Pak as a replacement from the BATTALION.
TB SCBA Add 1 1.1, 9.11, 9.12.2, 10.4
Question 53:
Sound powered telephones (SPT) provide a hard wired means of voice communication without the need for a power source. Since these SPT are issued to all Battalions, you should know that all of the following are correct EXCEPT?
A: A SPT wire reel consists of a 400 foot long wire wound around the reel inside a plastic case
B: SPT coverage includes a particular station and the street above (street to station)
C: SPT coverage includes a particular under river tube to a nearby station (station to tube)
D: SPT coverage includes a particular under river tunnel or tubes and a location on both sides of the tunnel, typically the nearest emergency exit (street to tunnel)
C - Explanation: Training Bulletins Tools 31 A- 2.4 B- 4.1.1 ***Street to Tunnel SPT systems usually include a specific pair of tubes. For example, members in the Brooklyn-bound Clark street tubes could speak to others in the Manhattan-bound Clark street tube, but they cannot speak to members operating in a completely different tunnel or tube.
Question 54:
You are a S/A Battalion Chief working in Wood City, Brooklyn. Your first run is a phone alarm for fire in a vacant and on arrival, you find heavy fire venting from all floors of a four-story frame in the middle of a row of 7 vacant frames. Which of the following line placement options is INCORRECT for the second line at this fire when the first hand line was stretched to exposure 2?
A: The second line was needed to back up the first and was stretched to exposure 2.
B: The second line was stretched to the fire building.
C: The second line was stretched through exposure 4 to operate in the rear yard.
D: The second line was stretched to exposure 4.
B - Explanation: BROWNSTONES & ROWFRAMES PG 51 A – Correct 6.7B3 B – Incorrect – 6.7B3 – If not needed to back up the first hoseline, stretched to the opposite exposure or through an exposure to the rear yard. C – Correct 6.7B3. D – Correct 6.7B3.
Question 55:
The MOST CORRECT tactic used at a steam emergency can be found in which choice?
A: The Inside Service Valve will be labeled and sealed. This valve should never be shut by members
B: Once a steam valve is shut, it shall never be opened
C: In an emergency, the steam shut off valve located outside the building may be shut by members
D: If a valve has been shut, it can be reopened if it was discovered that the members shut the wrong valve
B - Explanation:
Emergency Procedures Steam System Emergencies
A- In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve. If possible, wait for Con-Ed steam personnel to shut the necessary valves….4.4
B- Correct….4.4
C- Outside valve should only be shut by Con-Ed steam personnel….4.4
D- Once a steam valve is shut, do not reopen it…4.4
**Do not randomly close valves
Question 56:
After your row-frame fire, you take up and receive a ticket to respond to a fire in Brownstone nearby. Moments later, you are 10-84 at fire venting out of the parlor floor doors & windows of a four-story brownstone. Your first due Tower Ladder is in place, the dispatcher just advised you of reports of people trapped, & your second due truck is delayed. Your aide acknowledges the message as Rescue is arriving. What is the MOST CORRECT action for the rescue company to take when arriving under this circumstance?
A: Split into three teams operating as a fire floor, floor above, and roof team.
B: Split up and operate as the 2nd due ladder company on the floors above until their arrival.
C: Await the arrival of the 2nd due ladder company prior to committing to fire operations on the top floor.
D: Report in to the Incident Commander for unit assignment.
D - Explanation:
AUC 275 ADDENDUM 1
A – Incorrect - If BC is not on scene and both ladder companies in place.
B – Incorrect – If 2nd ladder and BC not on scene.
C – Incorrect – not stated
D – Correct – Section 6 – The Rescue Company Officer shall report into the IC for unit assignment.
Question 57:
An experienced BC should know which choice below to be INCORRECT regarding the Department’s policy on SCBA use?
A: If a member runs out of air, that member should remove the regulator from the facepiece. The donned facepiece will provide some protection to the skin on the face.
B: If a members runs out of air or their SCBA malfunctions, they should notify their Officer and immediately leave the contaminated area. This member MUST be accompanied to a safe area by another member using an SCBA.
C: The wearing/use of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by the Incident Commander, Sector Supervisor or Safety Chief.
D: Facepiece sharing with other members and/or civilians is always prohibited.
C - Explanation:
The wearing/use of SCBAs may be dispensed with only when authorized by the INCIDENT COMMANDER.
TB SCBA 2.1.7, 6.5.4 Note, AUC 220 1.3, 2.7
Question 58:
Units respond to a track fire where a light train is needed. The BC makes certain decisions and is incorrect in which choice?
A: Progress reports from the light train shall be transmitted as soon as possible, but at least once every 15 minutes.
B: The chief decides to board the light train with the ladder company.
C: Light Train shall not travel past the next station without the permission of the chief.
D: Chief checks communications with the ladder company on the light train once it begins to move.
D - Explanation:
AUC 207 add 7 sec 2
The Chief must assure a communications link with the FD Unit on the “Light Train” before authorizing its use. If a communications link cannot be established, the “Light Train” is not to be used.
Question 59:
You are en-route to a report of an explosion “in the area” when the 1st Engine transmits a 10-60 on arrival for an explosion with numerous people hurt and several buildings affected. You arrive, and try to establish some sort of order. You start implementing the tactics associated for an explosion, but were only CORRECT in which tactic?
A: Directed the 4th arriving BC to the Transportation Sector
B: Staged incoming units in a protected area and have members search the area for additional explosive devices including opening doors, lockers, pails, etc
C: Directed the 2nd arriving BC to the POI
D: Order members to remove apparatus from primary blast sight/crime scene area until NYPD Bomb squad gives the all clear to return
A - Explanation:
ERP add 3 Operations at Explosive and Incendiary Incidents
A- Correct…1st BC to ICP, 2nd BC to TTP, 3rd BC to POI, 4th BC to TS….5.4.4
B- Members of the FDNY are not trained to conduct a SEARCH for explosive devices. members are to SURVEY the Staging Area, but shall not conduct a SEARCH for devices…..5.1.3
C- 2nd arriving BC to TTP….page 19
D- Leave emergency vehicles that were inside of the primary blast/crime scene area in place until the NYPD Bomb Squad can determine they are safe to move them will not destroy evidence…5.1.3
Question 60:
Your battalion has gotten loaded up with probationary firefighters over the past year. You check the probie notebooks during company drill visits and ________
A: sign and date in red ink.
B: sign and date in blue/black ink.
C: Initial and date in red ink.
D: initial and date in blue/black ink.
Explanation:
AUC 323 add 2 sec 2.1
Chief Officers- Review during company drill visits. Initial and date in red ink.
Question 61:
You are the IC operating at a fire in the cellar of a taxpayer. Suddenly the emergency alert tone activates followed by a “Mayday” for a missing member. You believe the missing member is the first arriving Ladder Company Can FF. You would be correct to take all of the actions below EXCEPT?
A: Obtain as much information as possible from the member before instructing them to activate their PASS alarm.
B: Prior to acknowledging the MayDay transmission, pause momentarily to obtain the transmitting member’s Internal Radio Identification Code, which may be obtained from either the Battalion HT or FAST Radio.
C: Immediately transmit signal 10-66 as this signal shall always be transmitted any time there is a Mayday for a missing, lost or trapped member.
D: Gain control of the HT frequency and direct that all non-essential HT traffic cease.
C - Explanation:
DETERMINE if additional resources are required, e.g., special units, additional alarm, signal 10-66. A 10-66 is NOT always required.
MMID Ch 4 5.1, 5.4, 6.4
Question 62:
Your busy tour continues in Brooklyn’s Battalion 99 and you are assigned to a train collision in the Manhattan bound tube of the #4 express train. Enroute, you are pondering power removal and victim removal options. Which is MOST CORRECT according to under river tunnel operations?
A: Activation of the power removal box will shut power to the tubes in both directions.
B: Delaying power removal may increase the rescue problem at the incident location while allowing the TA to remove operable trains from the tunnel.
C: A rescue train would take some time to put into operation and would be useful to remove victims who are non-ambulatory, or too weak to evacuate on foot.
D: Nolan rail carts which require 3rd rail power to operate are the primary means or removing non ambulatory patients
C - Explanation:
UNDER RIVER RAIL OPERATIONS
A – Incorrect – 4.5 Figure 14 – There is a separate set of power removal boxes in each tube.
B – Incorrect – Moving trains out of the tube may save lives and lessen the rescue problem, even if it delays power removal. 4.5
C – Correct 7.2.2C
D – Nolan rail carts do not require 3rd rail power to operate. 7.3.3
Question 63:
You are en-route to a report of a ship fire in the great Borough of Manhattan. Upon arrival, you discover that there is a fire in a sanitation scow, which is moored to pier 17 near the Brooklyn bridge. The tactics used at this type of fire are much different than a building fire. Choose the MOST CORRECT tactic you ordered at this fire.
A: To check for water in double bottom scows, you ordered FFs to look for the red stripe on hopper bulwark, opposite the scuttle, to locate the compartment covers leading to this area
B: FDNY IC should always have compartment covers lifted and areas of double bottoms check for water
C: If water is noted in any compartment, have engine companies along with SOC companies use their trash pumps as promptly as practical to pump out accumulation and maintain stability
D: Ordered FFs into the hopper to overhaul the burning debris
B - Explanation: Marine Manual A- Yellow stripe....4.5.2 B- Correct...4.5.2 D- FFs should never be ordered into hopper area, due to likelihood of falling through burned out area.....EXCEPT FOR LIFE-SAVING PURPOSES ...4.5.5
Question 64:
A BC reviewing Under River Rail procedures should be able to identify which choice below as containing INCORRECT information?
A: The best location for the Command Post may not be evident until the situation is more well-defined. The Command Post location should provide communication capability between the Command Post and the under river tube, protection from smoke, hazardous materials and excessive noise and sufficient room for representatives from numerous agencies.
B: Special call a Battalion Chief, at least one engine and one ladder, and a unit with monitoring capability to stage at the stations and the emergency exits nearest to the under river tube.
C: In most cases, the initial Command Post will be located at the station closest to the tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned Battalion Chief.
D: SOC resources may be stretched thin and should be used only as necessary for monitoring, structural assessment, and technical rescue. If use of the SOC Rebreather System is being considered, request it as soon as possible, due to the time it takes to put into operation.
C - Explanation:
In most cases, the initial Command Post will be located at the station closest to the tunnel, in the borough of the first assigned DEPUTY Chief.
URR 4.2, 4.4
Question 65:
Draeger EDSCBA’s are designed to enhance our operational capability by providing increased operational time in places like tunnels, ships, and complicated confined space entries where mask usage is required. Which of the following statements is INCORRECT according to the bulletin regarding this mask?
A: Once members reach the point of operation, the safety management team will determine the duration of operations.
B: Incidents in tunnels, ships, and other large areas can pose serious communications challenges. The primary means of communication with the entry team will be post radio in the vicinity of the operations site and exit point.
C: The fast unit will be on air and accompany the operational units to the vicinity of the operation to obtain a size-up of conditions confronting the units.
D: The support unit shall serve as the communications link, relaying info between the entry team leader, operating units and the command post. They may be required to assist the fast unit with additional personnel during a mayday situation.
A - Explanation: SCBA ADDENDUM 4 A – Incorrect – Prior to entry, the safety management team will determine duration of operations. 6.1.3 B – Correct 7.1 C – Correct 6.2.1 D – Correct 5.3.1 & 5.3.2
Question 66: In addition to picking up and dropping off the "bag," you are reminding all officers to initiate and submit any injury/exposure report from the date of occurrence within a certain time period. The CORRECT time period can be found in which choice? A: Within 5 days B: Within 7 days C: Within 10 days D: Within 2 weeks
B - Explanation:
Safety Bulletin 7 sec 4.1
All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member’s signature and/or narrative.
Any injury/exposure reports that are not initiated and submitted within 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure cannot be entered into CIRS. If this occurs, the supervisor is required to forward a CIRS-1 report, available on the Intranet, through the chain of command to the Chief of Safety with an explanation of the circumstances
*** Supervisors and Reviewers are required to access this section DAILY to review reports in their Unit/Battalion …..3.3 last bullet point
Question 67:
Your tour takes you on a visit to the division for a conference and the recent changes to the Rehab Policy are being discussed. Which of the following statements is MOST CORRECT according to department policy?
A: At 2nd or greater alarm fires & long duration and/or physically demanding incidents, a Rehabilitation group shall be established by the incident commander.
B: A RAC Unit will respond on 1075 & greater alarms, 1060, 1076, 1077 & when special called. A Rehabilitation Manager will respond on 2nd & greater alarms, 1060, and when special called.
C: At 2nd or greater alarms, or when special called for by the IC, The Rehabilitation Manager shall assign units being relieved or released to the Rehabilitation group.
D: When a Rehabilitation Group is established, all members shall have their oxyhemoglobin and carboxyhemoglobin levels measured.
B - Explanation:
AUC 230 & Addendum
A – Incorrect 7.1 – 1075 or Greater
B – Correct – AUC 230 ADD 1 3.1 & 5.2
C – Incorrect - Resource Unit leader does this 7.4
D – Incorrect – All members EXPOSED to products of combustion 7.8
Question 68:
A determined BC should know all of the statements below to contain correct information regarding the Department’s “Water/Ice/Surf Rescue Policy” EXCEPT?
A: A Long-Shore Current (Sweep Tide) is an ocean current that moves parallel to shore. It is caused by swells sweeping into the shoreline at an angle and pushing water down the length of the beach in one direction. Long-Shore Currents are more pronounced at out-going tides and are common at any beach that is exposed to breaking surf.
B: At Water/Ice Rescues, The Incident Commander shall ensure a Tower Ladder or Aerial Ladder is raised as a vantage point to assist the victim spotter. Portable lights and lights on the apparatus should be used whenever they would assist in the operation.
C: For Ice Rescues, “Water Safety Units” will use the equipment provided in the Water Safety Kit in addition to any other equipment available to them that they deem useful (e.g. ladders, hooks). “Water Rescue Units” will have a greater capability to deal with an Ice Rescue.
D: All FDNY Companies, excluding Battalions and Divisions, have been trained to operate as “Water Safety Units.” Water Safety Kits have been issued to these units as well as companies trained as Water Rescue Units and Surf Rescue Companies.
D - Explanation:
All FDNY Companies AND BATTALIONS have been trained to operate as “Water Safety Units.”
EP WR 2 3.1, WR 3 3.1.1, 4.1.1, 6.12, WR 4 2.4
Question 69:
You just responded to two back to back runs for a fire, which both turned out to be portable LPG barbecues in use. One involved a barbecue on a 5th floor balcony of a 6 sty 100x100 “H” type multiple dwelling (R-2 occupancy), and the second one involved a barbecue in the rear yard of a 2 1/2 sty 20x60 private dwelling (R-3 occupancy). In regards to the Fire Code for LPG barbecue use for these two occupancies, the MOST CORRECT statement can be found in which choice?
A: In an R-2 occupancy, only portable barbecues may be use outdoors with a capacity of one 20 pound LPG container
B: In an R-2 occupancy, a total of four 16.4 ounce containers may be stored indoors of dwelling unit
C: In an R-3 occupancy, portable outdoor barbecues designed for use with LPG containers with a capacity of 40 pounds or LPG containers with a capacity of 16.4 ounces may be stored or used
D: In an R-2 occupancy, a maximum of two 20 pound LPG containers may be stored on premises and/or balcony
B - Explanation:
BISP Fire Code ch 3 page 7
A- 16.4 ounce container
B- Correct
C- 20 pound or 16.4 ounce containers may be stored or used
D- 20 pound LPG containers shall not be stored or used indoors, or on any rooftop or balcony
This may or may not be an in-basket question. Know this section of the fire code.
R-2 occupancy: portable outdoor barbecues are permitted with a capacity of 16.4 ounce containers, which may be stored or used on the premises. Indoor storage of 16.4 ounce LPG containers are limited to four per dwelling unit
R-3 occupancy: A maximum of two 20 pounds or LPG containers with a capacity of 16.4 ounces may be stored or used to fuel a portable outdoor barbecue. Indoor storage of 16.4 ounce LPG containers for this or any other purpose is limited to a maximum of four such containers per dwelling unit. Cannot store or use 20 pound cylinders indoors, or on any rooftop or balcony
Question 70:
Engine 36 is operating a hoseline at a 5th floor fire in a 6 story multiple dwelling in Harlem when they suffer a burst length. An urgent is given to the IC by the control FF of E-36. The IC would be MOST CORRECT to contact ________ by HT.
A: only the units affected by the water loss on the fire floor
B: all of the units affected by the water loss and units operating in positions above the water loss
C: all of the units operating in the building and conduct a roll call to account for all members
D: all of the units operating in the building and evacuate until the water loss can be solved
B - Explanation:
Communications 9 sec page 12
The IC shall contact by HT, all of the units affected by the water loss and units operating in positions above the water loss to ensure they are aware of the problem. If necessary, the IC shall back units out of exposed areas, assign specific units to assist in removal of these units, and conduct a roll call to account for all members.
Question 71:
All BCs should be familiar with the Department’s EEO Policy. Of the following choices, which is described INCORRECTLY?
A: “Retaliation” is the Illegal treatment of a person or group (either intentional or unintentional) based on the person’s protected category which adversely affects employment and promotion opportunities or retention in service. The term also includes the failure to remedy the effects of past discrimination.
B: “Harassment” is unwelcome verbal or physical conduct with the purpose or effect of unreasonably interfering with an individual’s work performance or creating an intimidating, hostile, or offensive working environment.
C: “Quid Pro Quo”’is conditional sexual harassment (i. e. you do something for me and I, in turn, will do something for you.) It is using the power of an individual’s position to sexually harass.
D: “Sexual Harassment” consists of unwelcome sexual advances, requests for sexual favors and other verbal or physical conduct of a sexual nature.
A - Explanation:
RETALIATION - In regard to EEO, retaliation is punitive action(s) or discrimination against a person who has filed a complaint or participated in the investigation of an EEO complaint.
DISCRIMINATION - Illegal treatment of a person or group (either intentional or unintentional) based on the person’s protected category which adversely affects employment and promotion opportunities or retention in service. The term also includes the failure to remedy the effects of past discrimination.
PAID 1-77 3
Question 72:
You are working the 9x6 tour in B200 in the great Borough of the Bronx when you receive a ticket for for an odor of gas in a hardware store for the address 710 Eastchester Rd. The ticket reads as follows: E400, E500, L100, L200, B200. CIDS: MERCANTILE 1 STY 40X80 CL3-PART OF TAXPAYER WITH 10 STORES - COMMON CELLAR & COCKLOFT- SPKR IN CELLAR- SIAM LOC EX 2 SIDE OF BUILDING- YEAR BUILT 2009. Upon arrival, L100 tells you over the HT that the cause of the gas odor is a cracked gas pipe feeding the boiler. L100 shuts down the gas valve at the meter and the incident is under control. L100 officer asks you to come down to the cellar where you find the following: 1 gallon of gasoline, 2 1/2 gallons of diesel fuel, and 5 gallons of kerosene all stored in the proper containers. Your next course of action is to?
A: Transmit the 10-40-1 and take up since the owner provided you with permits for the flammable and combustible liquids stored below grade
B: Transmit the 10-40-1 and order the removal of all flammable and combustible liquids from below grade even with permits present
C: Transmit the 10-40-1 and order the removal of all combustible liquids even with permits present, but leave the flammable liquid since it was less than 2 1/2 gallons and permits are present
D: Transmit the 10-40-1 and order the removal of the 1 gallon of flammable liquid and leave combustible liquids in place since permits are present
D - Explanation:
BISP ch 3 Fire Code ch 34 pages 2-4
Make sure you study this section. Pre 2008 and 2008 requirements.
Effective July 1, 2008: Flammable liquids in any amount shall not be allowed in basements, cellars, or other areas below grade
Combustible liquids shall be allowed to be stored in basements, cellars, or other area below grade provided that these areas are protected throughout by a sprinkler system
Question 73:
You are working in Battalion 74 and arrive at the scene of a worker down in a manhole. Rescue and Squad will be extremely delayed into the box and your SOC Support ladder company is on scene. As you oversee the initial operation, which action taken by the SOC Support Ladder Company is INCORRECT?
A: The unconscious victim can be seen at the bottom of the hole making it a permissible entry for the SOC Support truck.
B: Readings were taken at the bottom of the hole and oxygen displacement was the only atmospheric issue making it a permissible entry for the SOC Support truck.
C: The life saving rope was readied for the rescuer to use as a safety for the worker making it a permissible entry for the SOC Support truck.
D: A tower ladder was positioned and readied as a high point making it a permissible entry for the SOC Support truck.
C - Explanation:
HAZMAT 10 – SOC SUPPORT
A – Correct 7.2 – Line of Sight entry is a permissible entry.
B – Correct 7.2 – Entries other than atmospheric and controllable are not permitted.
C – Incorrect – SOC Support trucks shall use the ½” kernmantle rope in place of the LSR when lowering a safety line. 7.1
D – Correct 7.2
Question 74:
You’re working in battalion 51 on the 6x9 tour and get dispatched to JFK airport for a plane that overshot the runway and crashed. Communications from the FDNY Incident Commander at the Command Post to the Staging Area can be accomplished via ________
A: 800 MHz radio directly to the Staging Area.
B: the post radio directly to the Staging Area.
C: the Handie Talkie on a 5 watt channel directly to the Staging Area.
D: the 40 watt NYPD helicopter directly to the Staging Area.
A - Explanation:
AUC 325 sec 5.3.4
Question 75:
Fresh off his first fires as a chief officer, BC Thermal was discussing with friends the use of the camera at the box. Which of the following was the only CORRECT statement made about using the camera?
A: Thermal Imaging does not see through plastic, clear glass or bodies of water. They all act as a mirror to the IR.
B: Thermal imaging cameras are intrinsically safe.
C: Operators should begin scanning the viewing area at the floor and using a side to side motion, work their way up to the ceiling.
D: The thermal imaging camera’s field of view is approximately 50 degrees.
D - Explanation:
TRAINING BULLETINS – THERMAL IMAGING CAMERA
A – Incorrect – plastic and clear glass act like a mirror. Water on the floor also, not bodies of water 4.1/4.3
B – Incorrect – Not intrinsically safe 4.8
C – Incorrect – Begin at the ceiling 3.3
D – Correct 4.4
Question 76:
Chief Fitz is the IC for a 1st floor fire in a private dwelling where a PV (PHOTOVOLTAIC) electrical system is on the roof. She orders the utilities to be turned off to the structure. The ladder company officer quickly reviews the following statements in his head, but was incorrect in which choice?
A: Shut-off electrical power to the inverter to ensure power does not enter the building from the PV array conduit, batteries, or back-up generator.
B: Utilizing disconnects ahead of or after the inverter still does not eliminate the electric current coming from the PV array.
C: The energy within the capacitors will discharge soon after the power to the inverter is disconnected.
D: Combiner boxes should be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shutdown the PV array.
Explanation:
Combiner boxes should NOT be opened by firefighters in an attempt to shutdown the PV array.
AUC 351 sec 6.1 and 7
Question 77:
Battalion 99 paid a drill visit to Ladder 99, a SOC Support ladder company in their battalion to discuss their capabilities at trench emergencies. Which of the following actions is INCORRECT according to department guidelines for this unit?
A: Conduct scene evaluation and hazard identification through the use of their air monitoring equipment.
B: Establish a safe zone around the perimeter with the prevention of a secondary cave in as the prime consideration.
C: If possible, begin removing the spoil pile from the danger zone if that’s identified as a problem.
D: Use portable ladders to gain entry into trenches 5’ or less in depth to assist in victim removal.
D - Explanation: HAZMAT 10 – SOC SUPPORT A – Correct 7.4 B – Correct 7.4 C – Correct 7.4 D – Incorrect – Not stated
Question 78:
The A-8 and the Department of Buildings (DOB) referral forms shall be used for the referral of conditions that require a follow up evaluation by DOB, Bureau of Fire Prevention’s Field Public Operations Support Unit (FPOSU) or the Bureau of Operation’s Public Transportation Safety Unit (PTSU). From the choices listed below, which referral form was forwarded correctly?
A: An A-8 referral form was forwarded to FPOSU for a building Standpipe system OOS and a defective siamese supplying an under river tube
B: A DOB referral form was forwarded to DOB for inadequate rooftop access
C: A DOB referral form was forwarded to DOB for holes in a floor of a commercial occupancy
D: A DOB referral was forwarded to DOB for an open and unguarded vacant building using FDNY exposure terminology in the “description” box on the bottom of form
D - Explanation: BISP Ch 5 ref 2.1 and 2.1A A- A separate A-8 must be completed if conditions found require both a Fire Prevention referral and a PTSU referral...1.1.2 B- A-8.....page 6 C- FDNY Summons VC-11...page 11 ref 2.1A D- ref 2.1A sec 5 and page 9
Question 79:
Regarding the Department’s “Workplace Violence Prevention Policy,” all of the following statements are correct EXCEPT?
A: Every supervisor who has received a Workplace Violence Report (or a verbal report) shall ensure that it is forwarded via the chain of command to the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator. All supervisors within the chain of command shall ensure that the report is forwarded on an expedited basis.
B: Supervisors (in consultation with their chain of command) may take any measures within their authority to correct a potential for workplace violence or to respond to a workplace violence incident including contacting law enforcement authorities, temporarily re-assigning personnel, or referring personnel for discipline.
C: The supervisor shall affirmatively seek the guidance of the Workplace Violence Prevention Coordinator on matters that are very likely to lead to an incident of workplace violence.
D: When appropriate to ensure the effectiveness of control measures such as lighting or access, supervisors may also request that building repairs be made. In this case it is not necessary to also complete and submit a Work Order to the Bureau of Facilities for required repairs.
D - Explanation:
This DOES NOT relieve supervisors from the duty of completing a Work Order and submitting it to the Bureau of Facilities for required repairs.
PAID 1-2011 11.1.1, 11.1.2, 11.2.1, 11.2.2
Question 80:
BC Safety is on scene of a collision, which involved 2 apparatus and 1 civilian vehicle. From the choices listed below, the FOC-1 form was filled out CORRECTLY in which one?
A: BC Safety recorded one apparatus and the civilian vehicle on one FOC-1 and the second apparatus on an additional FOC-1. The second apparatus is designated vehicle 3
B: BC Safety recorded one apparatus and the civilian vehicle on one FOC-1 and the second apparatus on an additional FOC-1. The second apparatus is designated vehicle 1
C: BC Safety recorded both apparatus and the civilian vehicle on one FOC-1. The second apparatus is designated vehicle 2
D: BC Safety recorded both apparatus and the civilian vehicle on one FOC-1. The civilian vehicle is designated vehicle 3
A - Explanation:
Safety Bulletin 56 add 5 sec 6.7.4
Question 81:
A 2nd Alarm 1076 is transmitted for fire on the 37th floor of 1 Vanderbilt Plaza, an 80 story mega hi-rise commercial building. Ringling Brothers Agency has access stairs that service floors 36-40. The building has 4 banks of elevators. The A bank services floors 1-30. The B bank services floors 30-45. The C bank services floors 45-60. The D bank services floors 60-80. Based on your knowledge of elevators and Hi-Rise operations, which choice is MOST CORRECT regarding the location of the Fire Sector, SAE, Forward Staging & Forward Triage Posts?
A: Fire sector is established on the 36th floor, reached by the B elevator to the 35th floor and walking up. The SAE Group is established on the 46th floor reached by taking the C elevator to the 46th floor. Forward Staging is established on the 35th floor. Forward Triage established on the 33rd floor.
B: Fire sector is established on the 35th floor, reached by the B elevator to the 33rd floor and walking up. The SAE group is established on the 45th floor reached by taking the C elevator to the 45th floor. Forward staging is established on the 33rd floor. Forward Triage established on the 32nd floor.
C: Fire sector is established on the 36th floor, reached by the B elevator to the 34th floor and walking up. The SAE Group is established on the 46th floor reached by taking the C elevator to the 46th floor. Forward Staging is established on the 35th floor. Forward Triage established on the 33rd floor.
D: Fire sector is established on the 35th floor, reached by the A elevator to the 30th floor and walking up. The SAE Group is established on the 46th floor reached by taking the C elevator to 46th floor. Forward Staging is established on the 34th floor. Forward Triage established on the 32nd floor.
Explanation:
C is Correct – Elevators 6.1.3 & 6.1.4 / HR 6.4.2 & 6.5.2, 6.6.2, 6.7.3
Access stairs service floors 36-40 which means the elevator used can’t go past 34 if it’s in the bank servicing the fire floor. Fire sector is established on the floor below the fire (36). SAE is established on floor 46. C bank of elevators doesn’t service the fire floor. SAE Post is established one floor above the terminal floor of the elevator bank servicing the fire floor. Forward staging is established two floors below the fire floor. Forward Triage is established on an environmentally safe floor on “A” floor below Forward Staging.
6.1.4 – When it is necessary to use an elevator in a bank which serves the fire floor: If Firemen Service is available, use a car with the Firemen Service feature. Select a floor at least two floors below the fire floor or two floors below the lower level of an access stair in the fire area, whichever is lowest.
6.4.2 – The Fire Sector Supervisor/Branch Director shall direct units from a location that provides: Proximity to the units operating within the Fire Sector/Branch, usually the floor below the fire
6.5.2C – If possible, the SAE Group Supervisor shall choose a location on a floor which is not serviced by the same bank of elevators as the fire floor and at least five floors above the fire floor.
6.7.3 – The FTA shall be established in an environmentally safe location on a floor below the Forward Staging Area.
Question 82:
Your whirlwind tour took you to fires in a Hi-Rise, a Loft, a Taxpayer, and Queen Anne Private dwelling. At each, you made special calls & decisions according to the guidelines for these buildings. Which one was most CORRECT?
A: You contacted the 2nd arriving ladder company to determine the number of staircases serving the fire floor at a fire in a High-Rise office building.
B: You special called an additional engine and truck for fire spreading to the adjoining occupancy in an isolated two-store, one story 30x50 taxpayer.
C: You special called an additional truck company to a confirmed fire in a Queen Anne.
D: You ordered the 3rd arriving engine to ensure the sprinkler system was supplied at a cellar fire in a loft building.
C- Explanation:
CROSS REFERENCE
A – Incorrect – 8.5.1B3 – Third due ladder company does this at High Rise Office Buildings.
B – Incorrect – Second Alarm for extension to adjoining occupancy. Txpr 5.7.4
C – Correct – Good practice to special call an additional ladder company. PD’s Chapter 4 8.4.
D – Incorrect – 2nd due Engine – Lofts 6.2.1 B
Question 83:
A newly promoted Battalion Chief is on scene for a report of a cellar fire in a 2 1/2 sty 20x60 private dwelling. Upon further investigation, the 1st ladder company officer communicates via HT to the chief that one of the family members who rents an apartment in the cellar, burnt his food on the stove top accidentally. Since there was no extension to the cabinets, the ladder company officer recommended a 10-26. In regards to the cellar apartment, the newly promoted Battalion Chief should take what CORRECT course of action?
A: Prepare for a possible vacate and call DOB to scene
B: Transmit the 10-26 and take up since cellar apartments can be used for sleeping, eating, or cooking purposes as long as its a family member
C: Transmit the 10-26 and take up since basement and cellar apartments are legal in private dwellings whether its a family member or not
D: Transmit the 10-26 and take up since the cellar is partially below the curb level and having at least 1/2 of its height above the curb level and is considered a legal cellar apartment
A - Explanation:
No room in the cellar of a one or two family dwelling shall be rented and no member of the family or families occupying the dwelling shall use such room for sleeping, eating or cooking purposes, except that a secondary kitchen for accessory cooking may be located in the cellar
Cellar no good.
Basement: A room in the basement of a 1 or 2 family dwelling may be occupied for living purposes by members of the family or families in conjunction with their occupancy of the dwelling if certain conditions are met…see page 36
Choice “D” is the definition of a basement
BISP ch 3 add 2 Residential Guide page 36
Question 84: Today is April 10, 2019. It is 1500 hours and Battalion 99 is hard at work trying to make sure the night-tour overtime slots are covered correctly. Below is the list of firefighters that made themselves available. All owe self-mutual and none will have exceeded 24hrs working if hired. The Battalion Average is 130 hrs. Which two firefighters from the list would be CORRECT to hire according to department guidelines for MSOT? A: FF Adams, FF Edwards B: FF Howard, FF Stone C: FF Edwards, FF King D: FF Zane, FF Bones
C - Explanation:
PA/ID 5/74 – SECTION 2.1.2, 2.1.3, 2.1.4, 2.1.5 & SECTION 2.2.1 & 2.2.2
C is Correct – The parameters are FF’s off probation (hired before 7/10/18), non-redlined – (Under 205 hrs) and not outside the hour parameters for working overtime when close to redlined, not owing a self mx over 90 days (1/09/19) and not on any leave. (Vacations start and end at 0900 – Regs Chapter 17 – 17.7.1) FF EDWARDS is eligible. FF KING is eligible. FF ADAMS, HOWARD, & ZANE are more than 60 hrs above the average and ONLY entitled to work ONE tour of overtime. All are coming off overtime tours on the day tour. EDWARDS is 45 hours above the average (& LESS THAN 60) and is allowed to work 24 hours OT. FF STONE owes a self-mx over 90 days. FF BONES is on probation…
Question 85:
According to the 2008 NYC Fire Code and the Rules for the City of New York (RCNY), bars, grilles, grates or similar devices placed over emergency escape and rescue openings, and windows or other openings onto fire escapes, are permitted under certain conditions. Which condition below is described INCORRECTLY?
A:✔Both pre-existing window bars and new installations approved by the Board of Standards and Appeals (BSA) are acceptable. No other certification is required.
B: Bars, grilles, grates or similar devices shall be releasable or removable from the inside without the use of a key, tool or force greater than that which is required for normal operation of the escape and rescue opening, window or other opening.
C: Window/egress gates shall be designed installed in a manner that is readily openable from the inside of the building or structure with no more than one releasing operation, and without the use of a tool, key or special knowledge or effort.
D: Window/egress gates shall be designed installed in a manner that will readily open manually even if springs or other automatic actuating devices used to assist in the release operation do not operate properly or at all.
A - Explanation:
Pre-existing window bars approved by the Board of Standards and Appeals (BSA) are acceptable; however any new installations require a certificate of approval from the FDNY.
BISP Ch 5 Ref 5.2
Question 86: When it comes to buildings under construction or demolition, some conditions call for an inspection cycle more frequent than every 30 days. When evidence of smoking is found at one of these sites, what would be the recommended inspection frequency? A: Daily B: Every 7 days C: Every 14 days D: Every 15 days
B - Explanation:
BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 10
Question 87: All conduits and piping installations on roofs shall be color-coded with continuous, durable and weatherproof reflective or luminescent markings. For conduit and piping installed after July 1, 2014, they shall be continuously labeled in an approved manner to indicate its contents. Finding a yellow conduit on a rooftop would indicate? A: Natural gas piping B: Fuel oil piping C: Low voltage wiring D: High voltage wiring
A - Explanation:
BISP Fire Code Guide Ch 3 Add 2 IG 11 Ch 5 p4
Question 88: You are reviewing eCIDS entries when you come across a building in which the transmitted data reads: MD 4STY 25X80 - BROWNSTONE - RENOVATED THRUOUT WITH METAL C JOISTS AND C STUDS-EXTERIOR STAIR TO PARLOR FL REMOVED-WSD 1ST FL FRONT & REAR You would be MOST CORRECT to notify the submitting officer that she forgot to insert which designation? A: CL2 B: CL3 C: CL2LW D: CL3LW
D - Explanation:
Comm Ch 4 4.4.2 D
Question 89:
Two BCs discussing the Department’s BISP Policy (standard BISP - not the pilot program) were able to identify which INCORRECT comment?
A: Expect suspension of outside activities when the Heat Index (HI) is 105 or higher.
B: An officer, or acting officer, and not less than three firefighters, exclusive of the chauffeur, shall perform field inspection or reinspection activities with a properly operating radio equipped apparatus.
C: If a member performed BISP in one company in the AM, then was detailed to another company in the middle of the tour, if scheduled, she would also be required to participate in the full PM BISP period in all cases. No time is to be granted for personal needs.
D: Expect suspension of outside activities when the Wind Chill Index (WCI) is 15 or less.
C - Explanation:
When one or more members, for any reason, would be involved in inspection duties on both the AM and PM periods, on the same date, such members shall be given adequate time for meals and personal needs.
BISP Ch 3 3.3.3, Add 3 4.1, Regs 12 12.2.2
Question 90:
You respond to a vehicle accident where a taxi struck a sidewalk shed in front of a privately-owned multiple dwelling. As there was extensive damage to the sidewalk shed, you would be MOST CORRECT to take which action?
A: Immediately notify the Department of Buildings and request an ETA.
B: Immediately forward a High Priority DOB Referral.
C: Immediately forward a DOB Referral.
D: Immediately forward an A-8 Referral.
A - Explanation:
The DOB Referral Report would not be forwarded since DOB would be responding to the site.
BISP Ch 5 Ref 2.1a 1.2.3, 6
Question 91:
A BC conducting drill on buildings under construction started a conversation about required color-coding in new structures. All buildings, no matter the size or occupancy, must comply with color-coding requirements as stated in the Building Code. Which statement below is INCORRECT?
A: All exposed standpipe piping must be painted red. All exposed sprinkler piping must be painted green.
B: Dedicated standpipe valve handles must be painted red.
C: Combination standpipe valve handles must be painted yellow.
D: Dedicated sprinkler valve handles must be painted green.
- Explanation:
All exposed standpipe AND sprinkler piping must be painted red.
BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 10 p18
Answer questions 92-94 according to Chief Dunn's book "Collapse of Burning Buildings" 2nd Edition. Chief Dunn lists several types of masonry wall collapse that occur during a fire. Which is the most common type of masonry wall collapse to occur at a fire? A: 90-degree angle wall collapse B: Curtain wall collapse C: Inward-outward wall collapse D: Progressive wall collapse
A -Explanation:
Ch 4
Choices A, B, and C are the 3 types of masonry wall collapse with 90 degree being the most common
Choice D doesn’t exist
Question 93:
In his new book, Chief Dunn introduces a new chapter discussing the tactics used to extinguish fires in Places of Worship, and concerns for safety of the members. From the following choices, choose the tactic/safety concern that is MOST CORRECT…
A: Exposures 1, 2, 3 are the most dangerous area during a Place of Worship fire
B: Fire reaching the attic space of most Places of Worship can be easily extinguished by hand held hose lines because of the door/staircase that leads directly to the attic area
C: Primary venting should be the large stain glass windows on both sides of the building.
D: The tower and steeple are the part of the worship place that is most unstable
D - Explanation:
Ch 8
A- Exposures 1,2,4
B- Cannot be extinguished by hand held hose lines because there is only one small door and no possibility to vent
C- Rose window located at the front of the church or temple
D- Tower/steeple, Chimneys, then free standing parapet walls (In that order)
Question 94:
There are several ways for wood buildings to collapse during a structural fire. Choose the most dangerous one.
A:✔Inward-outward collapse
B: 90 degree collapse
C: Lean over collapse
D: Curtain wall collapse
A - Explanation:
Dunn Ch 15
It is sudden, it gives no visible warning signs prior to failure, and it may involve the collapse of 2,3, or 4 walls simultaneously
Sometimes the only indication that a collapse is imminent is a serious fire burning for a long time on the lower floor
Choice D is found in masonry
Question 95:
Inspections and investigations are for the most part, Chief Officers responsibilities. From the list below, choose the investigation that is MOST CORRECT…
A: E-100 has 2 FFs injured in quarters. One FF injured occurred sliding pole. One FF received burns while cooking at stove. These 2 injuries requires a DC investigation
B: L-100 transmitted a verbal for a vehicle lockout in front of quarters. One FF injured attempting to open door of vehicle. This injury requires a BC investigation
C: L-200 was backing into quarters from a previous run when a FF received an injury stepping into a pothole. This injury requires a BC investigation
D: E-200 and L-300 were conducting a search drill in quarters when 2 FFs from L-300 received injuries. One FF sprained her ankle and one FF sprained her wrist. These 2 injuries requires a BC investigation
D - Explanation:
Battalion Chiefs shall be responsible for investigating ALL INJURIES OCCURRING IN QUARTERS. Particular attention shall be given to injuries at or immediately after the change of tours. A report with full particulars shall be forwarded to the Chief of Operations
Regulations ch 7 sec 7.5.1
Question 96:
You are special called to a cabaret for an overcrowding condition. Upon your arrival, you confirm the occupancy is overcrowded but determine a vacate is not necessary. What would be the MOST CORRECT enforcement action for you to take?
A: Serve an FDNY Summons to reduce the number of occupants as well as a Summons for violating the law.
B: Notify NYPD to order an evacuation of the building and issue a forthwith VO (EG-7) to reduce the number of occupants.
C: Serve a Summons for violating the law and issue a forthwith VO (EG-7) to reduce the number of occupants.
D: Serve an FDNY Summons for violating the Fire Code and issue a forthwith VO (EG-7) to reduce the number of occupants.
C -Explanation:
BISP Ch 5 Ref 9.5 2
Question 97:
You respond to a rubbish fire in some boxes located in the cellar of a commercial occupancy. Your units report that the sprinkler did not activate because it was previously shut down without any form of notification to the Fire Department. You would be MOST CORRECT to take which action?
A: Issue a forthwith VO for “failure to notify.”
B: Serve an FDNY Summons for “failure to notify.”
C: Issue a High Priority DOB Referral for “failure to notify.”
D: Serve an immediate Summons for “failure to notify.”
D - Explanation:
BISP Ch 5 Ref 1.1 4.5.6
Question 98:
You are working the 6x9 tour in B-100 in the great Borough of Staten Island when you receive a ticket at 1830 hrs for a fire in the rear of 506 Hyland Blvd. The ticket reads as follows: E100, E200, E300, L500, L600, B100. CIDS: PD 3 STY 25X60 CL4LW-L/W WOOD JOIST TRUSS ON ROOF AND FLOORING ALL FLRS- YEAR BUILT 2008. En-route to the reported address, you see smoke in the distance and start sizing up the incident based on the CIDS. Upon arrival, and after a thorough investigation, L600 radios to you that there is a family in the rear of the reported address using a portable patio fireplace that they just purchased from a local home improvement center. Your next cause of action at this point is to?
A: Order the administrative company to write a forthwith V.O to discontinue use
B: Tell L600 to order the family to immediately discontinue its use. No further action is to be taken at this time
C: Order the administrative company to write a FDNY Summons to discontinue use
D: Order the administrative company to write a Criminal Court Summons to discontinue use and call Haz-Mat Logistics to confiscate the portable patio fireplace
B - Explanation:
If patio fireplaces are found by Fire Officials they should order the use of these devices discontinued immediately. No further enforcement action is required other than discontinuance of use at this time
If the use of an outdoor fireplace becomes a chronic problem at the same location the Fire Official should order the use of the outdoor fireplace discontinued immediately and serve a summons at this time for failure to comply with FC 307.1 and/or FC 307.2
BISP Fire Code Ch 3 add 2 page 4
Question 99:
You are on scene for a fire on the 31st floor of a 60 sty 100x200 CL1 High-Rise Office building. The Engines on scene are: E1P, E2, E3, E4, E5C. In reference to High-Pressure pumping, the MOST CORRECT action taken at this fire can be found in which choice?
A: High-pressure pumping is not an issue since the fire is on the 31st floor
B: Maintain safety zone of at least 25 feet around E1 in all directions including the high-pressure supply hose
C: Order E2 to connect to building siamese other than the one E1 is using to assist in high-pressure pumping
D: Only a BC or higher can order the use of the 3rd stage for high-pressure pumping
D - Explanation:
Engine operations ch 9 add 1
A- Floors 31-40 (300psi). High-pressure pumping is defined as operating at discharge pressures over 250 psi…… 1.3 and 2.1
B- 50 feet around E1 (working engine)….3.1
C- Special call another high-pressure/3rd stage engine to incident if pressures higher than 250 psi are required (only one on ticket (E1P)…….3.3
D- correct….4.1
A BC should be assigned as the High-Pressure Group Supervisor to control this pumping operation. When only one building siamese connection is available, stretch the second supply line to the first floor outlet. Do not connect two high-pressure supply lines to a single building siamese connection……3.3
Question 100:
Two company officers were having a discussion in quarters about holiday inspection. The BC listening to the conversation addressed which INCORRECT statement?
A: It shall be unlawful to display in any building natural decorative greens that contain pitch.
B: It shall be unlawful to store natural decorative greens in any building, except merchandise for sale or displayed for sale which does not contain conifer.
C: It shall be unlawful to store or display any natural trees in any building.
D: Cut natural trees may be displayed in houses of worship and dwelling units in Group R-2 apartment house occupancies.
C - Explanation:
It shall be unlawful to store or display natural trees THAT ARE CONIFERS in any building.
D) i.e. Christmas Trees
BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 11 Ch 8 p1-3
