Exam 12

Question 1

Question 1:
Chief officers are at a division conference and are going over the possibility of a high energy line break (HELB) at a Con Ed generating plant. All of the following are correct regarding this operation except?
A: Plant personnel will mitigate the emergency. Leaking steam will condense quickly filling the plant, obscuring vision.
B: Perform search and rescue for missing plant personal only after a con ed escort is provided and keep a safe distance from this escort.
C: Recognize that asbestos pipe insulation can be found in the plant, on pipes buried under the street and in buildings supplied with steam.
D: A high pressure steam leak will make verbal communications difficult. A pinhole leak in a high pressure steam pipe, though invisible near the source, is capable of instantly cutting through a steel bolt.

Answer 1

B
Explanation:
Emergency Procedures - Steam sec 4.1
B. When entering the plant, stay close to the provided escort and be guided by their advice.

Question 2

Question 2:
Vertical growth in the city has exploded over the last 10 years giving birth to a whole new class of buildings. Mega Hi-Rise Buildings are the future constructed of a mix of retail, commercial, and residential space all in one.  MEGA is now required on CIDS cards to reflect this class of building.  Which height listed below is correct for determining whether a building qualifies as a Mega Hi-Rise?
A: Buildings over 1000' tall.
B: Buildings over 900' tall.
C: Buildings over 800' tall.
D: Buildings over 700' tall.

Answer 2

C
Explanation:
*Communications Chapter 4 (New Material)
C is correct – 4.3.1 Mega Hi-Rise is any building OVER 800’ tall.

Question 3

Question 3:
The BC in charge of a Buckeye Pipeline emergency should know all of the following actions to be incorrect except?
A: Upon “confirmation” of a confirmed leak, transmit a 10-60 for the street box nearest the leak location.
B: Request the Planning Vehicle to respond.
C: Verify that the isolation and search phases have been carried out.
D: Consider calling additional foam units over and above those assigned on the “first alarm” by use of 10-87 signal.

Answer 3

C
Explanation:
A) Upon “confirmation” of a confirmed leak, transmit a second alarm for the street box nearest the leak location.
B) Request that the Field Communications Unit respond and consider the need for a Communications Unit to respond.
D) Consider calling additional foam units over and above those assigned on the “first alarm” by use of 10-86 signal.
AUC 149 7.3.1-7.3.5

Question 4

Question 4:
Due to the uniqueness of the “Battalion Aide” assignment, firefighters assigned to these duties are not required to work RSOT as per the RSOT schedule but will work as per all choices below except?
A: Battalion Commanders will authorize RSOT for aide as openings occur.
B: Battalion Commanders will attempt to limit RSOT for any member to 24 hours per quarter.
C: No more than 48 hours of RSOT will be allocated to a member from January 1st through June 30th or from July 1st through December 31st.
D: Battalion Commanders may authorize aides to work more than 96 hours of RSOT in a single year (up to a maximum of 24 hours) if there are no trained aides available to work.

Answer 4

D
Explanation:
AUC 290 1.2

Question 5

Question 5:
You, the Battalion Chief, working the 9x6 tour in B-200 are sorting through the “bag” when you come across a request from L-100 for their company logo to be mounted on their new apparatus arriving next month. Before you forward L-100’s request, you call the company commander and remind him of the requirements for apparatus logos and decorations. Choose the incorrect requirement.
A: The maximum vertical dimension shall be no more than 3 feet
B: The maximum horizontal dimension shall be no more than 3 feet
C: Only 2 of the official FDNY logos may be removed to make room for the unit logos if required
D: Change in the official color scheme of the apparatus shall be permitted with approval of Chief of Operations and Fleet maintenance
E: Door locations are suggested, but this shall not be considered limiting

Answer 5

D
Explanation:
NO change in the official color scheme of the apparatus shall be permitted
Also, An appropriately sized drawing to scale, in the colors to be used, shall be submitted with the request.
This is considered a community relations question AUC 270 3.2 and 3.4

Question 6

Question 6:
The best way to serve a criminal court summons upon corporations and partnerships is to?
A: personally served the owner of the building or business.
B: serve a secretary, handyman, or other employee.
C: send them to the Administrative Enforcement Unit, Bureau of Legal Affairs, which will arrange for service by a process server.
D: serve a responsible person in charge of the premises or an approved person in charge (APIC).

Answer 6

C
Explanation:
BISP Ch 4 Add 3 4.1-4.1.3

Question 7

Question 7:
A group of Long Island City Chiefs were assembled to talk about the construction of Mega Hi-Rise buildings in the area. They were discussing the building code in relation to Hi/Low Standpipe Risers in these buildings. Which is the only CORRECT description of the code for these buildings?
A: Under the 2008 building code, a building having a standpipe riser over 600’ in height shall have separate Low and High Zone Siamese connections.
B: Under the 2008 building code, a building reaching 600’ in height shall have separate Low and High Zone Siamese connections.
C: Under the 2014 building code, a building having a standpipe riser 600’ or higher shall have separate Low and High Zone Siamese connections.
D: Under the 2014 building code, a building over 600’ in height shall have separate Low and High Zone Siamese connections.

Answer 7

A
Explanation:
*Engine Operations Chapter 9 – 9.3.13
A is Correct - Under the 2008 building code, a building having a standpipe riser over 600’ in height shall have separate Low and High Zone Siamese connections.
May be a tight question, but only to point out the trap about the height of the standpipe riser not the building determining whether high or low zone risers are required…

Question 8

Question 8:
Today is January 20, 2019, and you are working the 9x6 tour in B-500. You receive a ticket for an oven fire for the address 86-53 Grand ave in the Borough of Queens. The units responding are E-100, E-200, E-300, L-400, and L-500. Upon arrival, the officer of L-400 states they have a small kitchen fire. L-400 then tells you that all fire has been extinguished and that primary searches are completed, with negative results. L-500 then tells you that secondary searches are completed and yielded a 10-45 that appears to be a code 1 unrelated to the kitchen fire. From your study days, you realize that this is now a possible crime scene and follow all the correct procedures. The most correct procedure can be found in which choice
A: Not all DOA’s whether fire related or EMS generated should be treated as a potential crime victim
B: The fire scene becomes a crime scene if the IC declares the fire to be incendiary (intentionally set)
C: Take multiple paths of travel entering and leaving the crime scene area
D: Units should never avoid the “overkill” method of overhauling
E: If it is necessary to leave the scene prior to the fire marshals arrival, a Police Officer is sufficient to maintain FD control of the premise
F: Do not cover any corpse except in public view

Answer 8

Explanation:
A- ALL DOA’s whether fire related or EMS generated should be treated as a potential crime victim
B- The fire scene becomes a crime scene if Fire Marshals declare the fire to be incendiary (intentionally set)
C- Take a single path of travel entering and leaving crime scene and have all required personnel use the same path when possible
D- Units should avoid the “overkill” method of overhauling
E- If it is necessary to leave the scene prior to the fire marshals arrival, a FF or unit fulfilling a watchline is sufficient to maintain FD control of the premise
AUC 317 pages 1-3

Question 9

Question 9:
Upon notification of an alleged incident of harassment, discrimination and/or retaliation of any kind by a member, the Officer on Duty is required to abide by all of the following except?
A: Interrogations or investigations of alleged incident(s) shall not be initiated, except if requested by the EEO Officer or BITS
B: Provide a copy of the FDNY EEO Complaint Procedure - PA/ID 1/77 to the member making the complaint
C: Complete a Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report and submit to the EEO Officer with intermediate endorsements
D: If a complaint is sexual harassment, the complainant may also choose to file directly with BITS

Answer 9

C
Explanation:
Training Bulletin EEO
B. 7.2 D
C. The incident report shall be submitted DIRECTLY to the EEO Officer in a sealed envelope without intermediate endorsements. No copies shall be retained by the Officer on Duty. 7.2 F
D. 7.2 E

Question 10

Question 10:
At a major aircraft emergency at JFK or LGA the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ arriving BC will be the Staging Area Manager and communicate with the ICP via \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ radio
A: 2nd, Post
B: 3rd, Post
C: 3rd, 800 MHz
D: 2nd, 800 MHz

Answer 10

D
Explanation:
If two 800 MHz radios are not yet available, then it would be Department radio via Queens dispatch
800 MHz radio will be channel 6B
AUC 325 sec 5.2.2, 5.3

Question 11

Question 11:
Professional Workplace is the wave of the future and officers and chiefs up and down the chain are responsible for maintaining it. How frequently shall Battalion Commanders confer with each company commander in their battalion regarding the mandates of this policy?
A: Weekly
B: Monthly
C: Quarterly
D: Semi-Annually

Answer 11

C
Explanation:
PA/ID 2/2017 sec 1.2
This is a recent update from January 2019

Question 12

Question 12:
Inflatable water rescue hose can be a great asset to the Incident Commander of a water rescue operation. Which choice below is incorrect?
A: One 45 minute cylinder can fill five lengths of 2 ½” hose in approximately 2 minutes 30 seconds.
B: Every company, including Battalions, carry the Yellow Water Rescue Fittings.
C: The apparatus air outlet can fill five lengths of hose in approximately 1 minute.
D: Inflatable water rescue hose can be deployed in either a straight line or loop. Each looped length is capable of supporting approximately 10 people.

Answer 12

A
Explanation:
One 45 minute cylinder can fill five lengths of 2 ½” hose in approximately 1 minute.
EP Water Rescue 2 Add 1 1.1, 3.2, 3.3, 4.1

Question 13

Question 13:
An experienced BC from Division 1 knew that Fire Towers may be found in what types of loft buildings?
A: Mill lofts and Older Cast-Iron lofts
B: Mill lofts and Fireproof lofts
C: Older Cast-Iron lofts and Fireproof lofts
D: Older Cast-Iron lofts and Newer Cast-Iron lofts

Answer 13

B
Explanation:
Lofts Glossary

Question 14

Question 14:
At a critical incident, where a member suffers a life threatening injury, the IC should do all of the following except?
A: Isolate the scene and maintain security until the Safety Chief and the Chief of Operations determine otherwise
B: Secure evidence. This includes, but not limited to protective clothing, SCBA, HTs, and apparatus. The evidence should be secured by the IC or his designee
C: When members are transported to the hospital, the IC shall obtain information from EMS and have the Borough Dispatcher send a BC designated as the Member Tracking Chief, to that hospital
D: Whenever a member suffers an injury as a result of using a tool or piece of equipment, it is essential that the Safety Command recover the item in the same condition as when the injury occurred

Answer 14

A
Explanation:
Safety Chief and the Chief of Fire Investigation
AUC 314
Dont get this confused with Arson (Training Bulletins/Arson 1 sec 4.1) No one is to cross established fire lines during a fatal fire and arson investigation unless authorized by the assigned Fire Marshall and/or Chief of Operations

Question 15

Question 15:
Roof ventilation at taxpayers fires is critical for a successful operation. Which statement below would be contrary to proper FDNY practices?
A: It must be understood that ventilation will increase the intensity of the fire if it is not carefully coordinated with engine hoseline operations.
B: The immediate ventilation and cutting of an effective size hole on the roof calls for two saws and four members on the roof.
C: Additional ladder companies should be special called to the scene of the operation as needed. The first arriving officer should initiate this, if necessary.
D: Cutting a hole three feet by six feet is recommended in providing ventilation at the roof.

Answer 15

D
Explanation:
Taxpayers
A. sect 5.4.2 NOTE
B. sect 5.4.12
C. sect 5.4.13
D. sect 5.5.16 Cutting a hole eight feet by eight feet is recommended in providing ventilation at the roof

Question 16

Question 16:
Chief Timber was discussing truss construction and bowstring truss fires and made the following statements about tactics in these buildings. Which statement made by the chief officer is INCORRECT?
A: At fires in vacant buildings with bowstring truss roof construction, exterior operations should be the primary tactical consideration.
B: At large/advanced fires where the timber trusses or the underside of the roof are involved in fire, exterior operation should be the primary tactical consideration.
C: Under no circumstances shall any member operate on the roof of any building involved in a content or structural fire with a wooden, metal, or combination bowstring truss design.
D: Under no circumstances shall any member be allowed to operate on a bowstring truss roof of a building not involved in fire if the building is vacant.

Answer 16

D
Explanation:
Taxpayers…
A,B,C are correct. 5.5.25B, 5.5.25C, 5.5.25A
D – Incorrect – When there is a need for members to operate on a bowstring truss roof of a building not involved in fire, the IC must take into account the past history of truss failure particularly if the building is vacant… 5.5.25F

Question 17

Question 17:
B-48 is special called to a serious car accident with multiple fatalities involving a bus and a hybrid vehicle. Upon arrival, the chief transmitted a 10-75 for an emergency so she could ascertain the extra companies. She knew which point below to be incorrect regarding hybrid vehicles?
A: The voltage in most hybrid batteries can deliver a lethal shock, much like that of an electric chair. The voltage from a hybrid battery is direct current (DC).
B: Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is OFF and the key or key fob is at least 30 feet away from the vehicle.
C: At a hybrid vehicle fire, always make sure that the high voltage battery case is cooled down to prevent re-ignition.
D: Never cut any high voltage cables. High voltage cables in hybrid vehicles are usually color-coded to warn of their potential danger. On most, the high voltage cables are color-coded ORANGE. Although some cables are color-coded BLUE.

Answer 17

B
Explanation:
B) Many hybrid vehicles use a keyless start system. Make sure the ignition is OFF and the key or key fob is at least 15 feet away from the vehicle.
TB Fires 8 11.6 B

Question 18

Question 18:
You have just been designated the Battalion Training Coordinator for B-500. As the Battalion Training Coordinator, you expect the Proby Training Notebooks to be forward to you when?
A: 13th and 17th months
B: 9th and 17th months
C: 9th and 13th months
D: 17th month only
E: 13th month only

Answer 18

A
Explanation:
Forward Training Notebook to the Battalion and Division Training Coordinator. Books will be returned to the member upon completion of evaluation
Remember: Chief officers review Training notebook during company drills visits. Initial and date in red ink
AUC 323 add 2 sec 2

Question 19

Question 19:
A BC was recently notified by one of his covering Lieutenants of an alleged incident of discrimination. Which action taken was incorrect?
A: The BC notified the Fire Department’s EEO Officer.
B: The member elected to provide information regarding the alleged incident, other than the fact that a complaint was being made, so the BC completed a Confidential EEO Incident Report.
C: The Confidential EEO Incident Report was submitted directly to the EEO Officer in a sealed envelope marked “Confidential” without intermediate endorsement. No copies were retained by the BC.
D: The BC immediately initiated an investigation into the alleged incident.

Answer 19

D
Explanation:
The Officer/Supervisor shall not interrogate any individual involved in the alleged incident, or initiate an investigation into the alleged incident, except if requested to do so by the EEO Officer, or Bureau of Investigations and Trials (BITs).
PAID 1-77 6.2, 6.3, 6.4, 6.7

Question 20

Question 20:
The most correct tactic for a cell site located on or within a building can be found in which choice?
A: Special call an additional engine and ladder company, for a report of a fire in these buildings
B: Ensure a TL response only if the cell site is involved in fire
C: Special call an additional ladder company above the 10-75 to supervise roof operations
D: Ladder companies should consider utilizing portable dry chemical extinguishers at incipient fires

Answer 20

D
Explanation:
A- Special call an additional engine and ladder company, if the cell installation is involved
B- Ensure a TL response on the initial alarm for a reported fire in these buildings
C- Special call an additional battalion chief above the 10-75 to supervise roof operations
AUC 331 sec 6

Question 21

Question 21:
Battalion 99 is designated as a fire window blanket company. Minutes into the tour, you receive a run and arrive at a fire in a high-rise multiple dwelling. Smoke is seeping from three windows on the 30th floor and it appears that there is fire blowing into a fourth window that has vented. Chief Flowpath orders the blanket deployed. Which decision regarding the fire window blanket is correct?
A: Rescue & Squad are the only units which can deploy the blanket, so they were reassigned to the task.
B: A second blanket was pre-deployed over an adjoining window prior to it failing.
C: The blanket could only be lowered from the floor above due to the short length of the top straps and the inability to reach from a greater distance.
D: Once in place, an announcement was made to report any adverse conditions caused by the blanket being in place.

Answer 21

B
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Tools 3 – Fire Window Blanket
A – Incorrect – Any unit can deploy the blanket. Rescue & Squad must assist. 3.3/3.4
B – Correct. 2.2
C – Incorrect – Due to the length of the supporting straps, the blanket can be lowered from two floors above if the IC deems necessary. 3.5
D – Incorrect – Just before the blanket is put in place an announcement is made. 3.7

Question 22

Question 22:
Once the fire is under control, Battalion 99’s blanket was returned to the vehicle. Which of the following actions taken next by Chief Flowpath was correct?
A: The Safety Battalion secured the blanket and conducted an inspection to determine serviceability.
B: Once the blanket was condemned, Chief Flowpath had the officer that deployed it prepare a brief letterhead report to the Chief of Operations detailing the use & description of any damage
C: A copy of the report was forwarded to the Chief of the Fire Academy
D: A replacement blanket was requested by the chief from the Division.

Answer 22

C
Explanation:
Training Bulletins Tools 3 – Fire Window Blanket
A – Safety conducts the investigation, R&D conducts the inspection to determine serviceability. 4.1
B – The officer of the confiscated blanket prepares a brief letterhead to the Chief of Operations. 4.2.
C – Correct 4.2
D – Replacement blankets are secured from R&D during normal business hours and SOC during non business hours. Different from Window Curtains which are issued from the division’s spares…

Question 23

Question 23:
You are the first arriving chief officer in charge of a large radiological incident. You conduct your initial size-up and give a preliminary report to the dispatcher. You transmit the 10-80-1 and start establishing a Safe Refuge Area (SRA) for decontamination. The SRA should be established how far away from the suspected explosion origin site?

A: 100 yards

B: 500 meters

C: 300 feet

D: 150 feet

Answer 23

B
Explanation:
AUC 337 OCL-8
Also: Confirmed readings above 50mr/h, notify Staff Chief

Question 24

Question 24:
Choose the incorrect statement in reference to biological and chemical incidents.
A: Manifestation of a biological incident is not immediate, however, exposure to biological toxins such as ricin or mycotoxins may present immediate symptoms that mimic exposure to a chemical agent.
B: There are no devices currently available to the Department that can detect the presence of a biological agent instantaneously or in real time.
C: Effectiveness of medical treatment is often diminished or limited once symptoms appear
D: By weight, chemical nerve agents are thousands of times more lethal than biological toxins

Answer 24

D
Explanation:
ERP Addendum 1, Chapter 1
A. 2.1.1
B. 2.1.2
C. 2.1.4
D. 2.1.5 By weight, biological toxins are thousands of times more lethal than chemical nerve agents

Question 25

Question 25:
A BC operating at a large Staten Island brush fire should know that, of the following, the Air Support Plan utilizing the Air Recon Chief (ARC) in the NYPD helicopter is primarily used for?
A: Air Reconnaissance
B: Implementation of fireground strategy
C: Control of field forces
D: Water drops

Answer 25

A
Explanation:
The ARC can be used for all of the above, however, it is “primarily” used for Air Recon.
AUC 151 9.1

Question 26

Question 26:
Choose the incorrect procedure when arriving at the hospital as a “Member Tracking Chief.”
A: Confirm name and unit of member(s) along with nature of injury
B: Notify the Division and Borough Command Chiefs of situation and give update
C: Obtain and verify injured member information from FDOC or Unit. Prepare F.C. Liaison rundown and injured member form
D: Contact hospital administrator and request the use of 2 rooms. One for FD Command Post, and one for family

Answer 26

B
Explanation:
Notify FDOC and Staff Chief on-duty of situation and give update
AUC 336 add 1

Question 27

Question 27:
How often are Supervisors/Reviewers required to access the Computerized Injury/Exposure Reporting System (CIRS) to review reports in their Unit/Battalion?
A: Tourly
B: Daily
C: Weekly
D: Monthly

Answer 27

B
Explanation:
SB 7 3.3 last bullet

Question 28

Question 28:
The incorrect statement made about the FDNY’s Public Speaking and Press Policy/Newsworthy Events can be found in which choice?
A: The IC in charge of the scene of an incident or event is hereby designated to act as the Fire Department’s spokesman during such incident or event until the arrival of the Deputy Commissioner for Public Information or his designee
B: Any member receiving an inquiry from a press representative shall refer the inquiry to his or her immediate supervisor, except as written in choice A
C: If no supervisor is present on scene and if a press inquiry does not interfere with Department operations, members may respond to press inquires only for the following non-confidential information: Type of incident…..number and condition of patients/victims if known……Hospital patients/victims are being transported to
D: All requests to ride in FD vehicles by any individual not authorized to be present in a FD vehicle, must be forwarded to and approved by the Chief of Operations

Answer 28

C
Explanation:
Do not disclose the condition of patient/victims
1- Type of incident or event
2- Number of patients or victims, if known
3- The hospital(s) to which the patient(s) or victim(s) are being transported AUC 332 sec 3.1.2, 3.1.4, 3.4.3, 3.5.1

Question 29

Question 29:
A BC at a company drill where members were discussing fire operations in which possible armed individuals may be involved pointed out which incorrect statement?
A: A NYPD officer may confront a firefighter or EMT to verify their identity. This is called a challenge situation. Remain motionless (no sudden movements), comply with commands and identify yourself.
B: When it is determined that a fire and/or smoke condition (smoke grenades) is present, in which active shooting is occurring or possible firearms could be used against firefighters, members shall remain behind hard cover and out of the line-of-sight.
C: At any time, if shooting starts and endangers FDNY units, members shall immediately hide behind some piece of cover (any material that can reasonably be expected to stop the travel of a bullet fired from small arms.) If members are in an open area without some type of cover, they should immediately assume a prone position on the ground.
D: Alert on-scene and incoming units of an active shooter. For heightened situational awareness and greater range, consider using the emergency alert tone with a mayday message to notify units that this is an active shooter incident and not a routine fire or emergency.

Answer 29

D
Explanation:
D) Alert on-scene and incoming units of an active shooter. For heightened situational awareness and greater range, CONSIDER using the emergency alert tone with a/n URGENT message to notify units that this is an active shooter incident and not a routine fire or emergency (over the Department Radio and shall not request a “Mixer off”.)
SB 89 2.3, 3.1

Question 30

Question 30:
Chief officers must remind officers under their command when a crime is reported to or observed by members, that all of the following procedures must be adhered to except?
A: If a civilian is being threatened with bodily harm or is being assaulted, members may intervene, consistent with their personal safety, to assist the victim
B: If a past crime has been reported or observed, (a thief has stolen a woman’s pocketbook and is running down the street) members shall split into two teams. One team to render assistance and the other team assist NYPD in capturing the thief
C: If a crime in progress involving an armed perpetrator is reported or observed, member must exercise utmost restraint and should not intervene.
D: The above policies applies to all members of the uniformed force except those members of the BFI

Answer 30

B
Explanation:
If a past crime has been reported or observed, (a thief has stolen a woman’s pocketbook and is running down the street) members shall provide first aid/assistance to the victim and notify PD
AUC 317 add 2

Question 31

Question 31:
Prior to the arrival of the deputy, ordering line placement at an expanding Rowframe fire is a high priority for a chief officer. Of the following scenarios, which line placement is incorrect according to the bulletin?
A: At a fully involved occupied OLT type Rowframe, the BC ordered the 3rd line into the fire building to back up the 1st line after the second line was stretched to the most severe exposure.
B: At a fully involved vacant in a row of vacant frames, the IC ordered the 2nd line stretched through an exposure to the rear yard.
C: At a upper floor fire involving an entire floor in an OLT type row frame where fire is reported in an exposure, the IC ordered the 2nd line stretched to the exposure.
D: At a fully involved vacant in a row of occupied frames where the second line was stretched to the opposite exposure of the first, the IC ordered the third line into the fire building.

Answer 31

A
Explanation:
Row frames
A -- Incorrect -- If the 2nd hose line is needed to back up the first hose line, the 3rd hose line is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure. If the 2nd hose line is stretched to the top floor of the most severe exposure, the 3rd hose line is stretched to the opposite exposure. 6.5C
B -- Correct 6.7 B3
C -- Correct 6.4 B
D -- Correct 6.7 #4

Question 32

Question 32:
You are conducting a drill with newly promoted BCs on Emotionally Disturbed Person(s) EDP where individuals are threatening physical harm to themselves or others. Select the incorrect procedure when responding to and/or encountering an EDP.
A: The nearest available Battalion Chief shall be dispatched to all incidents involving a reported EDP
B: Units encountering possibly emotionally disturbed persons who are exhibiting bizarre behavior at an incident shall immediately notify the dispatcher to request 10-48 for “POSSIBLE EDP.” The dispatcher shall relay all information to the NYPD
C: Where persons are threatening to jump from a window ledge, bridge, etc., the primary concern shall be for the safety of persons using sidewalks, streets, and roadways below
D: No overt action shall be taken by any member that might cause the person to carry out the suicide threat
E: No attempts to forcibly restrain the person shall be made unless there there is a direct threat of physical harm to members of the Department
F: Absent clear indications of fire or other imminent danger of a type which mandates immediate Fire Departments actions, forcible entry will be delayed until arrival of police personnel, and then done only at police request

Answer 32

B
Explanation:
10-47
AUC 271
Remember, 10-48 is for FFs are being harmed (Comm ch 8 page 13)

Question 33

Question 33:
In the company journal, Pages 500 running backward to 498, inclusive, shall be ruled and indexed to record visits of chief officers. When an entry is made by a Chief Officer, the chief shall record all of the following except?
A: page number of entry, and date and time
B: signature
C: conditions, and status of uniforms
D: whether or not roll call was conducted

Answer 33

D
Explanation:
Regs 15.2.1 R

Question 34

Question 34:
Chief Dunn has added several new definitions to his new book. From the choices listed below select the least correct definition.
A: Progressive Collapse is the initial structural failure that spreads from structural element to structural element resulting in a collapse of the entire structure or a disproportionately large part of it
B: Gravity Load is a combination of dead load and live load
C: Demising Wall is a bearing wall that extends from a floor slab to the floor slab above
D: Corner Safe areas are the 4 flanking zones around a burning building

Answer 34

C
Explanation:
C. Demising Wall is a partition wall (chapter 2)

Question 35

Question 35:
In private dwellings, lightweight construction often provides for the creation of large rooms. Areas unsupported by columns with spans greater than \_\_\_ feet are generally an indication that lightweight construction is present.
A: 10
B: 15
C: 20
D: 25

Answer 35

D
Explanation:
The collapse potential in a “wide-open” room of this type is greater than in a compartmented area that has interior walls.
Private Dwellings Chapter 6 (1.8)

Question 36

Question 36:
Click here for in basket PAID 84-1-Substance Abuse And Situation Stress PAID 75-7-Military Leave SB 7 Add 1-SH 900 And SH 900.1 BISP Ch 4 Add 5-SFOs bi_05_ref_9_6 Denied Access A “supervisory referral” occurs when an employee is ordered to C.S.U. by a superior officer or when an individual with a previous “voluntary referral” seeks assistance for a second time within a?
A: one (1) year period.
B: three (3) year period.
C: five (5) year period.
D: ten (10) year period.

Answer 36

B
Explanation:
PAID 1-84 2.8.1, 2.8.2

Question 37

Click here for in basket PAID 84-1-Substance Abuse And Situation Stress PAID 75-7-Military Leave SB 7 Add 1-SH 900 And SH 900.1 BISP Ch 4 Add 5-SFOs bi_05_ref_9_6 Denied Access

Question 37:

You are inspecting quarters during a company visit when the Company Commander asks you about the NYS Department of Labor’s Log and Summary of Occupational Injuries and Illnesses (SH-900 and SH-900.1 forms). You would be correct to inform her of all of the following except?
A: The Supervisor is required to record SH-900 information, including injuries to members, in the Office Record Journal.
B: In February, each unit shall post the SH-900.1 Summary report.
C: From February 1st to April 30th the Summary SH-900.1 of all injuries and illnesses for the previous year must be posted on a notice board accessible to all employees.
D: If a Safety and Health inspector from the NYS Department of Labor enters a firehouse for an inspection and requests that the officer produce the Log of Work Related Injuries and Illness (SH 900), the SH 900.1, or SH 900.2 form, refer the inspector to the FDNY OSHA unit.

Answer 37

A
Explanation:
The Supervisor is no longer required to record SH-900 information in the Office Record Journal. These records will be captured by the CIRS program.
The SH-900.1 form is retrievable from the CIRS.
SB 7 Add 1

Question 38

Click here for in basket PAID 84-1-Substance Abuse And Situation Stress PAID 75-7-Military Leave SB 7 Add 1-SH 900 And SH 900.1 BISP Ch 4 Add 5-SFOs bi_05_ref_9_6 Denied Access

Question 38:
While a BC was explaining the Department’s military leave program to a newly appointed member, he made an incorrect statement. Indicate the incorrect comment.
A: Members placed on Military Leave to fulfill service obligations with the National Guard or Reserves may be eligible for a maximum of 240 hours of paid Military Leave per calendar year, not to exceed 240 hours in one continuous period of absence.
B: Unused Military Leave Entitlement may be carried over into the next year, but not beyond.
C: Excusals for partial tours are permitted for a minimum of 3 hours. If excusal for a partial tour results in a combination of Fire Department duty time and military duty time in excess of 24 consecutive hours, member must request excusal for the entire tour.
D: Vacation Leave may be interrupted by Military Leave only if notification of Military Leave is received before the start of Vacation Leave. Interrupted Vacation Leave must resume immediately upon return from Military Leave as determined by the Military Desk.

Answer 38

B
Explanation:
There is NO yearly carryover of unused Military Leave Entitlement.
A)….If such member’s Military Leave will exceed the Military Leave Entitlement, the member may thereafter utilize other leave balances (i.e., Vacation Leave and Compensatory Time).
PAID 7-75 4.1, 4.3, 4.4, 4.5