Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1:
An officer encountering a fire in the Swedish Embassy, located in a Brownstone in a residential Manhattan neighborhood, would know which tactic below is incorrect?
A: In all cases the Engine Company should stretch a 2 1/2” line and stand by in case entry is granted.
B: A Tower Ladder should be positioned in front of the building.
C: Position aerial and ground ladders for possible rescues.
D: If embassy personnel refuse expanding searches on upper or lower floors notify the IC.

A

A
Explanation:
Engine Companies should stretch hoselines compatible with the occupancy and fire conditions found….in this case, it would be a 1 3/4” line.
ABC 1-2010 5.1, 5.2

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2
Q

Question 2:
According to Chief Dunn, what is the most common cause of early floor collapse?
A: Pre-engineered or lightweight truss construction
B: Old Construction
C: Shoddy renovations
D: Overloading of floors

A

A
Explanation:
Ch 6
Dunn and Brannigan, a must read for the DC and BC exam

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3
Q

Question 3:
A Phase II “Water Pressure Emergency” procedures have just been implemented. Units shall patrol their districts as per schedules established by their DCs. Upon completing their assigned patrol duties, officers on duty shall fax to the Battalion the following information: 1) The number of illegally opened hydrants……..2) The number of hydrants shut down………3) The number of spray caps placed………4) Any areas experiencing dangerously low water pressure that could adversely affect firefighting operations. The Battalion Chief on duty receiving this information shall provide the administrative DC this information every _______ hours

A: 2

B: 3

C: 4

D: 5

A
A
Explanation:
AUC 205 sec 8.2 and 8.3
This AUC was updated in 2015
A must read for a chief officers exam
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4
Q

Question 4:
BC Wrecker has a band-aide for the day and is involved in an accident just blocks away from arrival at a second alarm fire. Which action taken by Chief Wrecker was correct according to department policy?
A: Upon return to quarters, BC Wrecker completed and forwarded an FOC-1 to operations.
B: Once he determined that there were no injuries, BC Wrecker advised the dispatcher that he was continuing up the block to the fire.
C: BC Wrecker completed and forwarded his CD-19 within 96 hours of the apparatus collision.
D: BC Wrecker returned the Safety Battalion and Investigating Chief after determining that the accident was a minor

A

C
Explanation:
A- The investigating chief completes and forwards the FOC-1 to operations. SB56 8.1 pg 6
B- NEW INFO - No longer is continuing the response an option. It has been removed from the new bulletin issued on 8/20/18. Se section 5.1 pg 3.
C- Correct – CD 19 prepared and forwarded by officer/operator within 96 hours. 10.1 pg 9
D- NEW INFO The investigating Battalion Chief will determine if a collision is a minor or if necessary a major in consultation with the Safety Battalion & Division 7.1/6.2. The option for the company to make that determination has been removed from the new bulletin issued on 8/20/18. See section 5.1

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5
Q

Question 5:
BCs may find themselves responsible for proper notifications during “noteworthy” or “potentially noteworthy” incidents. Which choice below is not in accordance with Department policy and procedure?
A: Chief Officers, when operating as the IC at NOTEWORTHY INCIDENTS, are personally responsible for notifying or designating a knowledgeable subordinate to notify the Command Chief of all available particulars
B: Proper notification shall be made through FDOC as soon as an incident is determined to be NOTEWORTHY.
C: A BC may be special called as the Resources Unit Leader to assist the IC with appropriate notifications.
D: Chief Officers should make such notifications from the scene, as a “mixer off” message, through the dispatcher.

A

D
Explanation:
D) Chief Officers should use their cellular phones, which are required to be available at the Command Post at all times, to make such notifications from the scene.
ABC 3-96 3 - 5

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6
Q
Question 6:
An EEO complaint must be filed with the Fire Department EEO Officer within \_\_\_\_\_ from the date the alleged harassment/discrimination occurred.
A: 30 days
B: 90 days
C: 6 months
D: 1 year
A

D
Explanation:
TB EEO 7.2 D Note

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7
Q
Question 7:
You the BC, are in attendance at a HQ nightly conference. The hot topic of the conference is the use of the NYC transit subway repeater system. The following statements were made in reference to the subway repeater system: 1) The repeater system is on 24/7...…...2) Power backup for the repeater provides a minimum of 4 hours of protection in the event of a power outage...…...3) The CORE H/T relay can be eliminated if the repeater system is tested and operational...…..4) The IC shall test the functionality of the repeater system prior to the start of operations...…...5) Any member operating on the repeater channel must be teamed with an H/T equipped member operating on H/T channel 1...….6) On the Post Radio, "Subway 1" is for channel 14 and "Subway 2" is for Channel 15...……..Choose the correct statements made at this conference
A: 1,2,3,5,6
B: 2,4,5
C: 2,3,4,5
D: 1,2,4,5,6
E: 1,2,5,6
A

E
Explanation:
3) CORE HT relay must be established whether the station is equipped with a repeater or not……..4) Once operations are underway and conditions dictate, the IC can have the repeater system tested to see if it is functioning. AUC 207 add 16

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8
Q
Question 8:
As the Chief in charge of a fire at a Bulk Oil Tank Facility, you would be correct to identify carbon dioxide extinguishing systems as having piping and valve bodies and handles labeled how?
A: red with contrasting yellow bands
B: red with contrasting orange bands
C: red with contrasting black bands
D: red with contrasting brown bands
A

D
Explanation:
Although this is a BISP matter, due to the urgency of such a situation this question might be asked without accompanying reference material
BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 11 p150

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9
Q

Question 9:
Proper positioning of the aerial ladder is extremely important for successful operations on the fireground. Which of the following placement options is incorrect?
A: When positioning a ladder at a window, the placement of the ladder tip should be less than 6” over the window sill.
B: Recommended distance of the tip from the objective is 2” to 6”. In case of rescue, use the 6” positioning.
C: Place the ladder alongside the fire escape with the tip 2” away from face of building and about one to three feet above the balcony railing.
D: Whenever possible, place the ladder on the least exposed side of a building.

A
B
Explanation:
***This is one of many company officer questions you will see on test day. PLEASE don't give up on these types of questions. Those members that only focus on chief questions will have a tough time on test day if they get this wrong.
Ladder 2
A. sect 3.1.6
B. sect 3.1.5 Recommended distance of the tip from the objective is 2" to 6".  In case of rescue, use the 2" positioning so that the ladder will rest against the window sill after weight is put on it.
C. sect 3.3.1
D. sect 3.3.2
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10
Q
Question 10:
BC Knowitall was discussing injuries and CD-72's and was so sure of himself when making the following statements.  Which of the below choices represents his correct statements?  *****1,  All levels of command shall access CIRS daily to provide any required review/recommendation.  *****2.   Battalions, Divisions, & Borough Chiefs shall review the Burn Report Screen daily to provide required recommendations.  *****3.   BC's must investigate all injuries occurring in quarters followed by a letterhead report to the Chief of Operations. ****4.  CD-72's missing signatures and narratives must be returned to the administrative companies for clarification.  *****5.   All available injury/exposure information must be initiated and submitted no later than 7 days from the date of the injury/exposure with or without the member's signature and/or narrative.  
A: 1,2,& 4 are Correct
B: 2,3, & 5 are Correct
C: 1, 4, & 5 are Correct
D: 1,3, & 5 are Correct
A

D
Explanation:
SB 7
1 is correct as stated 6.1
3 is correct. Section 4.3 (also stated in 7.5 of Regulations)
5 is correct. 4.1 2 is incorrect. Only Divisions and Boroughs have access to Burn/heat exhaustion/smoke injury report screen 6.2.3
4 is incorrect. Reports missing signatures/narratives are NOT a reason to return for clarification. 6.2.1

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11
Q

Question 11:
Lt. Foresster was correct in all statements made to his members regarding the FDNY smoking policy except in which choice?
A: Smoking is prohibited in FDNY vehicles and ambulances at any time.
B: Smoking is prohibited in all Fire Department facilities at any time, without exception. This policy does not apply to the use of electronic smoking devices.
C: Smoking is prohibited within 20 feet of any oxygen cylinders. This includes FDNY vehicles and/or ambulances equipped with oxygen.
D: This smoking policy shall be actively enforced by all officers/supervisors.

A

B
Explanation:
This includes the use of electronic smoking devices.
PAID 1/94 3, 5.1 (3)

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12
Q

Question 12:
You’re the BC at a 7 story H-type with fire in apt 3E on the 3 floor. Which of the following statements regarding victim removal using the aerial ladder is incorrectly stated?
A: When there are more than two people to be rescued, the officer should assign a member of the inside team to assist after forcible entry was completed.
B: At steeper angles, have the victim grasp the rungs.
C: If the descent is difficult or tiring, another firefighter should “back up” the member carrying or assisting persons down the ladder.
D: Only in an extreme emergency such as serious exposure to flame or high heat will the movement of the ladder with the firefighter and the victim on it be justified.

A

A
Explanation:
Lad-2 Aerial Ladders sec 5.12
When there are more than two people to be rescued, the officer should contact the second ladder company and inform them of the need for supportive assistance.

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13
Q
Question 13:
The handie-talkies currently in use by members of the FDNY are equipped with a “time-out-timer” to eliminate the “stuck button problem.” The “time-out-timer” is set to cut off the member transmitting a message after how many seconds?
A: 26
B: 30
C: 56
D: 60
A

B
Explanation:
A. Comm ch 11 sec 3.4 the radio emits a short audible warning tone at approximately 26 seconds and a continuous tone at approximately 30 seconds.
B. Comm ch 9 sec 9.5.10 Note

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14
Q
Question 14:
Hurricanes and severe storms can seriously complicate operations. Company Storm Operations Coordinators shall initiate surveys to determine locations of institutional occupancies (hospitals, nursing homes, correctional facilities, etc.) and occupancies with pre-incident guidelines that may require special operating procedures during storm emergencies. Where necessary, pre-planned procedures for these locations shall be developed and evaluated during MUD and other drills. Contact lists for these institutions shall be updated starting every?
A: May 1st
B: June 1st
C: October 1st
D: November 1st
A

A
Explanation:
A) AUC 159 4.4.3
B) June 1st is when hurricane season starts

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15
Q

Question 15:
There are many notifications/procedures that are made or implemented when an IC decides to use auxiliary radio communications systems (ARCS) during a fire/emergency. Choose the incorrect notification/procedure
A: IC must notify the Dispatcher for relay to responding units any time an ARCS is activated
B: IC must notify the FAST Unit when additional communication channels are used. The FAST Unit will need to obtain an additional HT for each channel in use
C: IC must notify the Dispatcher/FDOC to request a Building/Facility representative report to the Command Post if one is not on the scene
D: IC should insure from the Dispatcher the response of a Field Communication Satellite Unit to work in conjunction with the Field Communications Unit, if possible, when an ARCS is utilized
E: IC should consider conducting a Roll Call on the Command channel of all Chiefs at the scene of an incident to insure they are operating on the correct communications channel, once a Command channel is established

A

E
Explanation:
IC MUST conduct a Roll Call on the Command channel of all Chiefs at the scene of an incident to insure they are operating on the correct communications channel, once a Command channel is established
Comm ch 13 sec 4

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16
Q

Question 16:
Which of the following private dwelling construction characteristics is correctly stated?
A: Balloon frame construction has fire stopping between floors on exterior walls, preventing rapid fire extension.
B: Open joist construction will lead to early collapse.
C: Secondary entrances can be located on the front, side and/or rear.
D: The main entrance is always located in the front of a PD.

A

C
Explanation:
PD Ch 2-Size Up sect 2.6
A. Balloon frame construction LACKS fire stopping between floors on EXTERIOR walls, allowing for rapid fire extension.
B. Open lightweight construction (absence of a sheetrock ceiling) will lead to early collapse.
C. sect 2.6
D. The main entrance is USUALLY located in the front of a PD.

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17
Q
Question 17:
A High Energy Line Break (HELB) in the street is a true steam emergency. Of the following, which choice contains the most correct statements? 1. Underground steam pipes are most commonly wrapped in asbestos insulation and a HELB will likely result in an asbestos release that spreads over a large area. 2. Asbestos remains in most Con Edison steam manholes. 3. Asbestos has been removed from most underground piping. 4. Escaping high pressure steam can hurl debris at a maximum of 150 mph. Anyone in the vicinity of the break is in danger of being struck by flying, high velocity debris. 5. The noise of escaping steam will make radio and verbal communication ineffective in the immediate vicinity of the release.
A: 1, 3, 5
B: 1, 4, 5
C: 1, 5
D: 1, 2, 5
A

C
Explanation:
2. Asbestos has been removed from Con Edison steam manholes.
3. Asbestos remains on most of the underground piping.
4. Escaping high pressure steam can hurl debris at 200 mph.
EP Steam 4.2

18
Q
Question 18:
In general, Department of Transportation regulations require placards to be posted only on trucks that are transporting \_\_\_\_\_\_\_ pounds of the particular material. Choose the most correct answer.
A: 500 or more
B: more than 500
C: 1,000 or more
D: more than 1,000
A
D
Explanation:
It is possible to have vehicles transporting up to 1000 pounds of a hazardous substance without placards visible on the outside of the vehicle
Haz Mat 2 Precautions 7. 1st bullet
***Code-Placard 1,001
19
Q
Question 19:
You are at a 4th alarm for a fire on several floors of a "H" type multiple dwelling on January 11, 2018, during a cold and windy night. The incident is winding down and companies are being relieved or released to the Rehabilitation Group. From the list below, which chief is in charge of sending companies to the Rehabilitation Group?
A: IC
B: Operations Section Chief
C: Safety Chief
D: Resource Unit Leader
E: Sector Chief
A

D
Explanation:
AUC 230 sec 7.4
Know all the responsibilities of the RUL
Also check out sec 6.1.1 and 7.1
The RAC unit FF and EMS Officer should aim to set up the Forward RAC area within 50 feet of the Command Post and within eyesight of the fire building whenever possible
Remember, the Rehabilitation Group shall be established by the IC at every 10-75 or greater alarms, and at long duration and/or physically demanding incidents especially during times of extreme temperatures

20
Q

Question 20:
It is 0300 hrs, and you are working in B-100 in south Brooklyn on July 4, 2018. A third alarm has just been transmitted in the North Bronx for a top floor fire in a “H” type multiple dwelling. The teleprinter in your office activates giving you a ticket to respond to Floyd Bennet Field to meet NYPD aviation and become the Air Reconnaissance Chief (ARC). In route to Floyd Bennet Field, you remember that the duties/responsibilities can be found in all of the choices except?
A: If possible, the Battalion FF will accompany the ARC on the helicopter
B: The ARC and Battalion FF shall approach and board the helicopter from admid-ship with no personal protective equipment on when directed by the pilot
C: The ARC shall always sit in the right rear seat
D: The ARC shall bring with him the ARC instruction card, binoculars, NYC map, flashlight, UHF HT, and VHF HT
E: Once 10-84, provide a preliminary report to the IC within 10 minutes of arriva

A

E
Explanation:
within 5 minutes
Provide progress reports to the IC at least
every 10 minutes
AUC 269 page 5
Also, if ordered by the IC, the ARC shall transmit a Mayday message to evacuate the building over the primary command, tactical and secondary tactical channels using the helicopters 25 watt radio

21
Q
Question 21:
Following a string of preventable accidents, BC Crash must forward a recommendation for the temporary reassignment of one of his Lt's. Which of the following recommendations is to the correct individual and states the correct amount of time?
A: Borough Commander -- 90 days
B: Chief of Department -- 60 Days
C: Division Commander -- 90 days
D: Chief of Operations -- 60 days
A

D
Explanation:
D. Chief of Operations for a period of 60 days.
SB56 Add 4 3.3 pg 2

22
Q

Question 22:
A BC reviewing procedures for handling possible arson cases was incorrect in which choice?
A: Overhauling operations should be terminated immediately when the fire is suspicious.
B: If the officer in charge of a commercial fire establishes that it may be of an incendiary origin, there is likelihood a Fire Marshal will arrive before overhauling is completed.
C: Request the Photo Unit to respond to take pictures of the evidence if a marshal is not responding.
D: If after arrival at a commercial fire, the Fire Marshal classifies it as being incendiary, the police can thereafter maintain security.

A

A
Explanation:
A) Overhauling operations should be minimized, if possible, when the fire is suspicious.
TB Arson 5.4.1, 7, 8.1, 8.4

23
Q
Question 23:
A BC should know that for a detail exceeding two (2) tours that will extend more than thirty (30) days, an OSA - 2 shall be forwarded through the chain of command to the \_\_\_\_\_ for approval.
A: Chief of Operations
B: Chief of Department
C: Chief of Personnel
D: Borough Commander
A

A
Explanation:
AUC 304 2.1, 2.2

24
Q
Question 24:
There are several subways in NYC that are equipped with a duplex UHF radio repeater system (FDNY programmed). Which channel on the H/T and/or the post radio is used as the secondary channel for this type of repeater system?
A: 15
B: 14
C: 12
D: 11
A

A
Explanation:
Comm 13 sec 3.2.1
11 and 12 are used with ARCS
14 is the primary subway repeater channel
15 is the secondary subway repeater channel

25
Q

Question 25:
A knowledgeable company officer should know which one statement to be incorrect regarding enforcement action using the Violation Order (VO)?

A: The first (pink) copy of a VO is issued to the owner, agent or person in charge.

B: It is recommended to use separate orders when compliance times are not consistent or multiple violations are cited and additional space is needed on the VO.

C: Utilize VO supplement sheets when violation information cannot fit on a single VO.

D: Once all items on the violation order are complied with or a summons is issued for failure to comply with a VO, the officer on duty shall fax a copy of the VO to the BISP unit.

A

C - Explanation:
Write as many orders as required to enforce all of the items in violation. Supplement sheets are not provided for the VO like the FDNY Summons.
BISP Ch 4 Add 2

26
Q

Question 26:
You are working in B-100 for the 9X6 tour on August 12, 2018. A ticket comes in for a derailed Airtrain in the Borough of Queens. Enroute to the scene, you remember all of the following procedures to be correct for this type of incident except?

A: After power is requested to be turned off via FDNY dispatcher, Airtrain personnel will place grounding straps forward and aft of the operation to insure that the power is grounded and cannot be restored between the two grounding straps

B: Two TLs will be assigned to all Airtrain derailments

C: Airtrain Operations Center will provide the Fire Department Borough Communications Office with the column number to guide them to the reported location

D: The primary method for evacuating passengers from an Airtrain that is located between stations is to have Airtrain personnel bring a rescue from either the front or the rear of the disabled train, or to the adjoining track, and safely evacuate and transport the passengers to the next station

E: If using a TL to evacuate passengers from the guideway, the TL must be followed closely by another unit FD apparatus, whose purpose shall to block traffic, shut down roadway, and provide protection from oncoming traffic

A

B - Explanation:
At least ONE TL must be assigned to all Airtrain incidents/emergencies
If they give you a response ticket for this type of question, make sure there is a TL on the ticket
AUC 207 add 12

27
Q

Question 27:
Which of the following is not in accordance with FDNY protocol at an active shooter incident?
A: Hot Zones are areas of a known hazard, where the perpetrator(s) are shooting, roaming free, or are engaged by law enforcement. IEDs may be present. No FDNY personnel are to operate in designated Hot Zones.
B: FDNY members shall not operate inside the Warm Zone unless requested by the NYPD for life safety. This operation must be approved by the on scene Battalion Chief and a FDNY Staff Chief must be immediately notified of active shooter incidents.
C: Firefighters should only operate in the Warm Zone for life safety operations and shall be escorted by NYPD, operating under their security. More than one Warm Zone may be designated by the NYPD.
D: In a NYPD “challenge situation” FDNY members shall remain motionless and do not turn your body unless instructed to do so by the challenging NYPD officer. Verbally identify yourself as a member of the FDNY by rank and name.

A

B
Explanation:
ERP Addendum 3A Interagency Response Protocol To Active Shooter Incidents
A. 5.1
B. FDNY members shall only operate inside the Warm Zone when requested by the NYPD. This operation must be approved by a FDNY Deputy Chief. unless the NYPD Incident Commander requests entry for immediate life-saving intervention. Note: In any instance wherein units are operating under NYPD protection, the on duty Citywide Command Chief must be notified via dispatcher (Fire, EMS) Sec 7.5
C. 5.1
D. 2.2

28
Q

Question 28:
Buildings supplied with steam will have a steam control room filled with pipes. There will be a number of valves to control the supply of steam. Which of the following would be correct regarding these buildings and the control valves?
A: Con Edison is the only entity generating high pressure steam in New York City.
B: Members may never shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed.
C: At a HELB in a building, it is mandatory that units immediately enter the affected area for search and rescue.
D: Monitor for the presence of radiological contaminants at a ruptured steam incident.

A

D
Explanation:
Steam
A. sect 1.2 - Con Edison is NOT the only entity generating high pressure steam in New York City.
B. sect 4.4 - In an emergency, members may shut the Inside Service Valve. It will be labeled and sealed.
C. sect 4.4 - The high heat may make it impossible to enter the affected area for search and rescue until the steam is shut and the area vented.
D. sect 5

29
Q

Question 29:
BC Brown is the IC for a top floor brownstone fire and hears the following transmission: L-115 roof to command, we have fire in the cockloft. Which of the following best describes the height of the cockloft in a brownstone?
A: This cockloft may vary in height from one foot to a height tall enough for a man to stand in.
B: Can vary in height from four inches to more than six feet.
C: Approximately 2’ to 3’ in height.
D: Some cocklofts are as much as four feet deep.

A
C
Explanation:
A. Rowframe cocklofts
B. Taxpayer cocklofts- sect 3.2.1
C.  Brownstone
D. MD cocklofts - sect 5.9.9.I
30
Q
Question 30:
Which of the following colored tags on a patient at the scene of a chemical attack would indicate that patient care will be delayed?
A: Black tag
B: Red tag
C: Yellow tag
D: Green tag
A
C
Explanation:
ERP, Addendum 2, Chemical Attack Underground
A. Black tag - Deceased
B. Red tag - Immediate
C. Yellow tag - Delayed
D. Green tag - Minor
8.1.6
31
Q

Question 31:
A chief officer, when in command of a structural fire, must always be monitoring for signs of a potential collapse. According to Brannigan, there are several signs to look for, especially when it comes to braced walls. Choose the incorrect sign for braced walls.
A: Braced walls are a basic sign that a wall is in distress
B: Braces of protected structural steel, or worse, of steel cable, will fail at fire temperatures
C: Bracing is signaled by stars, plates channel sections, or other spreaders or straps tying the front wall to the side wall
D: The walls may be tied together across the building, or tied to floor beams
E: Braces are not always an indication of instability

A
B
Explanation:
Ch 4
Unprotected structural steel
Choice E is followed by "Some buildings have walls that are tied to the floors to make the structure more rigid" and "Generally, these can be identified by spreaders, usually stars, in a REGULAR PATTERN"  - Braces of UNPROTECTED structural steel, or worse, of steel cable, will fail at fire temperatures.
32
Q
Question 32:
Accidents are classified as preventable and those that may or may not be considered preventable depending upon the circumstances.  Which of the accidents listed below shall be considered preventable? *****1- Ladder 1's apparatus strikes a parked car while proceeding without an operator in the tiller. *****2- Ladder 1's apparatus strikes a double parked car while responding  in 10-20 mode to a fire. *****3- Ladder 1's apparatus rolls into a parked car while operating at a fire (no chocks). *****4- Ladder 1's apparatus strikes several parked cars making a turn responding to a reported gas leak in 10-20 mode.
A: 1, 2 & 3 only
B: 1, 2, & 4 only
C: 2, 3, & 4 only
D: 1, 3, & 4 only
A

A
Explanation:
1,2, & 3 are listed as collisions that are considered preventable.
4 is listed as a collision that may or may not be considered preventable depending upon circumstances. 10-20 mode is only listed in reference to striking a vehicle while passing a double parked car.
Sections 2.1 & 2.2 Addendum 4 SB56…

33
Q
Question 33:
While operating at a collapse site you hear three short blasts (1 second each) from an apparatus air horn. The three short blasts are a signal to do what?
A: Continue operations
B: Evacuate the area
C: Cease operations
D: Report to the command post
A

B
Explanation:
Collapse Operations 9.2
1 Long Blast (3 seconds)….. Cease Operations/All Quiet
1 long and 1 short blast…… Resume Operations

34
Q

Question 34:
The Chief in charge at a 4th alarm factory fire orders the exposure 4 sector, B-28, to use a large caliber stream. A large caliber stream is any fire stream with a flow of _____ gallons per minute or more

A: 250

B: 251

C: 300

D: 301

A
Explanation:
Engine Company Operations Chapter 11
C. 300 gpm or more
D.Flows up to 1200 gpm are possible through the 2 inch tip when supplying the Akron ladder pipe nozzle with two 3 1/2 inch lines
11.1
35
Q

Question 35:
The NFPA Diamond is a labeling system that incorporates the use of four diamonds combined in one central diamond and uses numbers and colors to define the hazards of a material. Choose the correct area of the diamond where “Shock and Heat May Detonate” would be found.
A: Flammability Hazard/Red section number 3
B: Health Hazard/Blue section number 3
C: Reactivity Hazard/ Yellow section number 2
D: Reactivity Hazard/Yellow section number 3

A
D
Explanation:
ERP/Haz-Mat  p. 39
A- Flash Point Below 100 degrees
B- Extreme Danger
C- Violent Chemical Change
36
Q

Question 36:
Please download the following for your in basket AUC 350 BISP CH 05_ref_9_9 BISP Ch05_ref_6_1 PAID 72-1 PAID 96-1 over the next 5 questions.
After receiving a complaint from the Bureau of Fire Prevention, you conduct an inspection of the cellar of a multiple dwelling. Upon finding an enclosed boiler room you issue a violation for which condition?
A: There was a fireproof self-closing door present.
B: The room was segregated, vertically and horizontally, from surrounding spaces by a fire-resistive rating and maintained in good order.
C: A 2-A:40-B:C dry chemical extinguisher was provided within the heating room.
D: Combustible material was not stored within the boiler room but was found outside the boiler room, approximately 25 feet away.

A

C
Explanation:
Extinguisher should be provided outside the heating room.
BISP Ch 5 Ref 9.9 1.1

37
Q

Please download the following for your in basket AUC 350 BISP CH 05_ref_9_9 BISP Ch05_ref_6_1 PAID 72-1 PAID 96-1 over the next 5 questions.

Question 37:
One of your members, FF Jones, is scheduled for “jury duty service” beginning Monday, May 1st. All of the following are correct regarding her schedule with the exception of which choice?
A: FF Jones shall not participate in any mutual beginning Sunday, 4/30 at 1800 hours, until released from jury duty service.
B: FF Jones shall be on jury duty leave when her group is scheduled to work on Monday, 5/1 9X6.
C: FF Jones shall report to work at the firehouse when her group is scheduled to work on Saturday, 5/6 6X9 if she continues on jury duty leave into Monday, 5/8.
D: FF Jones’ vacation leave is scheduled to begin on Monday, 5/8 at 0900 hours. FF Jones’ vacation leave will begin on that date even if she remains on jury duty leave until 5/12.

A

D
Explanation:
When Jury Duty Leave commences prior to start of scheduled Vacation Leave the Vacation Leave will be postponed. Vacation Leave interrupted or postponed as a result of Jury Duty Leave will resume or commence at 0900 hours on the date following the completion of Jury Duty Leave.
PAID 1-96 6.2-7.2, 8.3, 8.4

38
Q

Please download the following for your in basket AUC 350 BISP CH 05_ref_9_9 BISP Ch05_ref_6_1 PAID 72-1 PAID 96-1 over the next 5 questions.
Question 38:
In addition to an Informal After Action Review, a Formal After Action Review shall be conducted for each of the following incidents or events except in which choice?
A: When the Chief of Operations deems necessary due to significant incidents and/or injuries.
B: MCIs involving numerous patients and/or complex operations as determined by recommendation of the Medical Branch Director and approval of the Borough Commander or EMS Division Chief.
C: Fourth alarms or greater (including those for relief purposes)
D: When directed - planned, complex events that require an Incident Action Plan from the FDNY Planning Section.

A

C
Explanation:
Fourth alarms or greater (other than those for relief purposes)
AUC 350 3.1

39
Q

Please download the following for your in basket AUC 350 BISP CH 05_ref_9_9 BISP Ch05_ref_6_1 PAID 72-1 PAID 96-1 over the next 5 questions.
Question 39:
While inspecting a high-rise mixed occupancy-use building, you discover that the Department of Buildings has recently issued a Temporary Certificate of Occupancy (TCO). Which of the following contains incorrect information regarding the TCO?
A: A “core TCO” mandates that the elevator lobby area is sprinklered and stairway doors are in place. There are no sprinklers or life safety systems in tenant areas.
B: A typical “communication shaft” is approximately two feet by ten feet or more, and is enclosed in a small room with two hour walls.
C: The TCO is issued for a period of 90 days.
D: A “mail shaft,” which can be up to 20 square feet in area, is always required to be sprinklered.

A

D
Explanation:
Sprinklers or smoke detectors may be installed in the shaft, however sprinklers are not required except if in approved plans.
BISP Ch 5 Ref 6.1 2.2

40
Q

Please download the following for your in basket AUC 350 BISP CH 05_ref_9_9 BISP Ch05_ref_6_1 PAID 72-1 PAID 96-1 over the next 5 questions.
Question 40:
Which of the following choices is not in accordance with the FDNY’s policy on school attendance variances?
A: Mutual exchange of tours may only be made between members assigned to the same battalion.
B: Partial tour mutuals shall be not less than one (1) hour.
C: Partial tour mutuals shall be not more than six (6) hours.
D: If the cooperator desires, the reimbursement of several part tour mutuals may be accumulated to be reimbursed as a complete tour. Not more than one 15 hour tour may be accumulated.

A

A
Explanation:
Mutual exchange of tours may be made between members assigned to the same division.
PAID 1-72 3.1.1