Exam 6

Question 1

Question 1:
BC Keiger is assigned to oversee an engine company at the third alarm 10-76. This engine is tasked with operating the building’s fire pump. Which choice below contains correct information regarding fire pumps and the bypass valve?
A: The bypass valve should be in the open position (stem out).
B: If found to be open, the valve should be closed by turning in a clockwise direction.
C: Some systems are quite complex and the bypass valve is not readily discernible. If such a situation is present, it is never permissible to start the pump as ordered until finding and operating the bypass valve.
D: The efficiency of the pump will be affected if the bypass is open. A loss of 45% can be expected in a 8” riser and a loss of 25% can be expected in a 6” riser with the bypass open.

Answer 1

B
Explanation:
A) The bypass valve should be in the closed position (stem in).
C) Some systems are quite complex and the bypass valve is not readily discernible. If such a situation is present, it is permissible to start pump as ordered without checking bypass valve.
D) The efficiency of the pump will be affected if the bypass is open. A loss of 25% can be expected in an 8” riser and a loss of 45% can be expected in a 6” riser with the bypass open.
HROB 4.1.2 D, E

Question 2

Question 2:
According to ABC 3-85, a listing of all Board of Education Schools scheduled to be made “Barrier Free” and accessible to handicapped students has been forwarded to division commands. Which of the following is incorrect regarding ABC 3-85?
A: CIDS information for these schools shall include the need for a Tower Ladder on the 1st alarm.
B: The Dispatcher shall provide a Tower Ladder to respond on the first alarm for the subject schools.
C: When Tower Ladders are at a premium, the Dispatcher has the authority to substitute one of the first two Ladders, if not so equipped, with a Tower Ladder.
D: The Dispatcher would not substitute, but would add a 3rd Ladder (TL) if the 1st and 2nd Ladders which would be assigned are not so equipped.

Answer 2

C
Explanation:
ABC 3-85

Question 3

Question 3:
You are special called as the foam coordinator to a fire in a crawl space  of a commercial building 100x100 that is 5' high. If the generators we use to deliver hi-ex foam are 7500 CFM, then how many would you require to deliver enough foam to extinguish an advanced fire in the crawl space?  
A: 2
B: 3
C: 5
D: 7

Answer 3

A
Explanation:
FOAM 13.18 pg 27
I hate math questions, but all of the information is in the bulletin…
LxWxH divided by 5 minutes is the formula
The correct answer is A – 100x100x5 = 50000 cubic feet. You have to divide that number by 5 minutes to get 10000 cubic feet. That would require 2 generators. If you forget to divide by 5, you get choice D. You won’t have the formula in front of you on game day…

Question 4

Question 4:
You are the IC at a top floor row frame fire that has extended into the cockloft. You would be most correct to?

A: Call for an additional engine and ladder.

B: Consider the need for a 2nd alarm.

C: Transmit a 2nd alarm.

D: Consider transmitting a 3rd alarm.

Answer 4

B
Explanation:
Row Frames sect 7.6
A. When a floor is fully involved in fire from the front to the rear a full first alarm assignment is required. It is also advisable to call for an additional engine and ladder.
B. When two or more floors are fully involved, or a top floor fire has extended into the cockloft, the need for a second alarm must be considered.
C. When two buildings are involved, we have a 2nd alarm situation
D. Prompt consideration must be given to transmitting a 3rd alarm when it extends beyond two buildings.

Question 5

Question 5:
Which of the following chemical agents gives off a fishy, musty odor?
A: Nitrogen mustard
B: Sulfur mustard
C: Phosgene
D: VX

Answer 5

A
Explanation:
ERP, Addendum 2, Chemical Attack Underground
A. Chart on page 18
B. Garlic, mustard odor
C. Musky hay
D. No odor

Question 6

Question 6:
All fire officers should be aware of methods to identify and locate missing members. BF-4s, Electronic BF-4s (EBF-4) and the Electronic Fireground Accountability System (EFAS) may be useful in identifying and locating missing members. Of the following choices, which is NOT listed as a factor that may provide a clue as to a member’s location?
A: The member’s response assignment (e.g., second arriving OV)
B: The time of day
C: The type of occupancy
D: The fire location

Answer 6

B
Explanation:
Be aware units may have arrived out of response sequence.
MMID ch5 5.2

Question 7

Question 7:
For public, private and charter schools,  units will conduct their first familiarization drill once the school is automatically scheduled by RBIS. Units will subsequently continue to conduct familiarization drills every \_\_\_\_\_\_ from the last inspection or familiarization drill date.
A: one year
B: two years
C: three years
D: five years

Answer 7

B
Explanation:
BISP Ch 2 2.8.1

Question 8

Question 8:
Prior to implementing interior operations at a vacant building fire, the Incident Commander must perform a risk assessment keeping in mind that the life hazard and safety of the members involved in the operation is of paramount concern. The IC may implement an interior attack after a risk assessment has been performed based on several factors. These factors include all of the following except?
A: Current structural stability of the building
B: Any known life hazard
C: Location of the fire escape
D: Verification of safe access to the fire area

Answer 8

C
Explanation:
Vacants 1.1.3
C. Size and location of the fire

Question 9

Question 9:
You are the IC at a fire in a parking garage and have opted to place a foam line in operation to contain the extension. How much foam and operating time will you get from your standard 3 engine and 2 ladder assignment supplying one foam hand line?
A: 15 cans with an operation time of approximately 15 mins
B: 13 cans with an operation time of approximately 17 mins
C: 10 cans with an operation time of approximately 15 mins
D: 12 cans with an operation time of approximately 17 mins

Answer 9

B
Explanation:
Training Bulletin – Foam
B is correct – Engine companies carry three 5-gallon cans and trucks 2 5-gallon cans for a total of 13 cans on a first alarm assignment. Operational time for a single foam line at 3% will be approximately 17 minutes…. 7.2

Question 10

Question 10:
For fires and emergencies at transmission and distribution substations, when raising aerial ladders and tower ladder buckets, maintain a/n \_\_\_ safe clearance horizontally from the substation’s exterior fence line and do not place portable ladders, aerial ladders or tower ladder booms or buckets against or over the wall or fence.
A: 10-foot
B: 18-foot
C: 25-foot
D: 38-foot

Answer 10

B
Explanation:
Please be advised that in the same bulletin it states the following safe distances for “exposed overhead electrical bus bars”.
345,000V - 18 feet
15,000V to 38,000V - 10 feet
In TB Emergencies 3 section 8.2 B it states for fallen electrical wires to “keep at least 25 feet away from any downed wire when operating a line with a fog nozzle.
In AUC 207 Add. 9 states members with lines with fog nozzles shall observe a minimum approach distance of 10 feet to catenary wires.
AUC 338 Add 2 6

Question 11

Question 11:
E-257 received a residential phone alarm for a fire in the rear of a 2-family dwelling.  Upon arrival, the officer discovered it was just a BBQ being used for cooking.  The officer transmits a 10-33-1. As the officer is walking from the rear yard, he discovers there are four 20-pound LPG cylinders being stored for the BBQ and he asks the chief to come back and check it out.   As far as the LPG cylinders are concerned, you, as the chief, should know what is the maximum amount of LPG cylinders that are allowed to be stored at this type of dwelling?
A: 1
B: 2
C: 3
D: 4

Answer 11

B
Explanation:
BISP ch 3 add 2 IG 11 Pg 168
Not more than 2 LPG containers may be stored and/or used. (20 pound cylinders)…. 1 and 2 family dwellings are considered R-3 occupancies under the 2008 Building Code

Question 12

Question 12:
The MSA Altair Digital Gas Meter is carried by all Ladder Companies. It is an important tool that all members need to be proficient with during operations. Which needs to be corrected?
A: The action level for indoor operations is 10% LEL and 20% for outdoor operations
B: An atmosphere above 100% LEL is an extremely dangerous atmosphere as it is indicative of a potentially explosive environment that members should not operate in under any circumstances
C: A series of XXX’s under the COMB/EX icon indicates the atmosphere is above 100% LEL
D: If indoor levels continue to climb and ventilation procedures fail to lower the LEL readings, evacuation procedures should be initiated

Answer 12

B
Explanation:
EP Natural Gas Add 2-MSA Altair Gas Detector
A. sec 4.1
B. sec 4.1 - This is an extremely dangerous atmosphere as it is indicative of a potentially explosive environment that members should not operate in except for life saving purposes.
C. UPDATED…NEW MATERIAL sec 4.1
D. UPDATED…NEW MATERIAL…In addition to the ventilation procedures, the Incident Commander should initiate a Haz Mat response (i.e. the response of the Haz Mat Battalion, Haz Mat 1 and nearest Squad or HMTU) for their advanced metering capabilities and technical expertise.
sec 4.2

Question 13

Question 13:
The IC (Chief or Company Officer) at a private dwelling fire should consider ordering an exterior hoseline operated into a cellar window to allow for a quick knockdown when there will be a delay in applying water from the interior or whenever fire conditions dictate. Which would be an incorrect example of when this should be done?
A: Unable to locate any cellar entrance.
B: Unable to quickly access or locate a secondary cellar entrance and unable to advance down the interior cellar stair.
C: At any cellar fire.
D: At a cellar fire involving lightweight construction.

Answer 13

C
Explanation:
PDs sect 2.6
C. At a serious or advanced cellar fire.

Question 14

Question 14:
As a newly promoted Battalion Chief, it is vital to know when to call for additional resources, especially during fires in Rowframe type buildings. Upon arrival at a 5 story 30x60 Rowframe type building with the 3rd floor fully involved in fire (front to rear) it is advisable to call for  what additional resources above the 1st alarm assignment?
A: additional Engine and Ladder
B: 2nd alarm
C: 2nd alarm with 1 additional Ladder
D: 2nd alarm with 2 additional Ladders

Answer 14

A
Explanation:
Fire Fighting Procedures BS and RF 7.6.A
When a floor is fully involved in fire from front to rear a full assignment is required. It is also advisable to call for an additional engine and ladder

Question 15

Question 15:
Roof operations can be as challenging as ever with cell sites, roof top gardens and other impediments.  Color coded conduit also presents a hazard.  If the roof firefighter relays a message to command about natural gas piping running along the roof of the fire building, an astute chief officer would know the correct color of the piping would be?
A: Yellow
B: Green
C: Red
D: Black

Answer 15

A
Explanation:
This could very well be an in-basket type question, but framed in the context of a fire scenario, the answer might not be provided. One of the things from the fire code to know.
FIRE CODE CHAPTER 5 PG 4 A is Correct – Yellow represents Natural Gas Piping.
B - Green is not listed as a color
C - Red = High voltage wiring
D - Black is not listed as a color

Question 16

Question 16:
The probable presence of asbestos at a major steam emergency makes this a haz-mat incident until proven otherwise by sampling and testing. Which of the following actions is incorrect regarding asbestos at steam emergencies?
A: Transmit radio signal 10-80 with appropriate code, specifying asbestos release.
B: Expose as few members as possible and strictly enforce the FDNY SCBA policy.
C: Isolate exposed members and civilians in the Safe Refuge Area to prevent cross contamination.
D: Prepare for decontamination as outlined in the Hazardous Materials Emergency Response Plan. In no case should decontamination be performed prior to the completion of sampling and testing.

Answer 16

D
Explanation:
D) Consider performing decon PRIOR to the completion of sampling and testing.
The IC may consider the use of AirPurifying Respirators (APR) after consulting the Haz-Mat Group Supervisor and all risks have been properly evaluated.
EP Steam 5

Question 17

Question 17:
Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding Photovoltaic (PV) Electrical Systems which may be encountered by members of the Department?
A: PV Systems do not produce electricity at night. However, lightning flashes occurring at night can energize the PV System.
B: Auxiliary lighting equipment and apparatus headlights are not powerful enough to generate dangerous voltage from a PV array.
C: On buildings with sloped roofs, PV arrays will generally be installed on the South and West facing sides.
D: When electrical power from the utility grid is disconnected at the main distribution panel, electrical energy throughout a connected PV array will not be present.

Answer 17

D
Explanation:
D. Even though the electrical power from the utility grid can be disconnected at the main distribution panel, electrical energy is still present as long as the PV array is connected.
AUC 351 7

Question 18

Question 18:
As the BC in charge of an “All Hands” fire where the 1st arriving OV heard a victim’s cries for help and entered the IDLH atmosphere alone to rescue the victim, you correctly performed which action following the incident?
A: Took no action
B: Forwarded a report to the Chief of Operations
C: Forwarded a report to the Fire Commissioner
D: Forwarded a report to the Chief of Safety

Answer 18

B
Explanation:
In all incidents of such individual action, the Incident Commander shall forward a report to the Chief of Operations. A thorough review of each of these incidents will be conducted.
Ladders 3 5.7.3 Note

Question 19

Question 19:
You are the incident commander arriving at the location an overt biological incident. Which of the following considerations made upon your arrival needs correcting?
A: Biological agents released at dawn, dusk, or during the night will have a greater impact
B: For a release indoors, avoid entry into the area for 15 to 30 minutes to allow the biological to settle to reduce exposure to the inhalation hazard
C: Protection from a secondary device is a top priority before establishing a command post and staging areas.
D: Establish an initial exclusion zone of at least 300 feet in all directions from the source or point of release

Answer 19

A
Explanation:
ERP ADDENDUM 1 - CHAPTER 1 BIOLOGICAL AGENTS
B is incorrect – 30 minutes to 1 hour 5.2.3

Question 20

Question 20:
Please read the explanation before going to the next question. Members of Communications Units are trained in the deployment, monitoring, and use of specialized communications equipment and operations. Choose the correct statement regarding Communications Units using the choices below.
A: To operate as a Communications Unit, the company shall be staffed with a minimum of three trained members. Trained officers count towards this total.
B: The Communications Unit requires a trained officer to be in service.
C: A Communications Unit will be assigned to all 4th alarms.
D: There are currently eight units consisting of engine and ladder companies that have been designated as Communication Units.

Answer 20

A
Explanation:
ICS Manual Ch 2, Addendum 3
A. 2.2
B. The Communications Unit does not require a trained officer to be in service. 2.2
C. A Communications Unit will be assigned to all 3rd alarms, 10-60, 10-66, 10-75 for below grade incidents in facilities OTHER than buildings, 10-76, 10-77 2nd alarms, and when in the opinion of the IC they would be required. 3.1
***Communications Ch 7 page 10 shows it as 2nd alarm. (Comm 7 was updated in September 2015) We see it as a clear conflict.
D. The eight designated units are all engine companies. 2.1

Question 21

Question 21:
An officer, upon finding the assigned firefighter away from the housewatch desk, would be most correct to take which action?
A: The officer may prefer charges without any questions; however, the officer must warn the member of his/her rights to representation if the officer wishes to question the firefighter concerning his/her absence from the post.
B: The officer shall not prefer charges without first questioning the member.
C: The officer shall not prefer charges; discipline shall be limited to a supervisory conference in this case.
D: The officer may prefer charges without any questions; however, the officer may question the firefighter concerning his/her absence with or without warning of his/her right to representation.

Answer 21

A
Explanation:
The officer may prefer charges without any questions since an OVERT ACT has been committed. The officer must warn the member of his/her rights to representation if the officer wishes to question the firefighter concerning his/her absence from the post.
PAID 2-73 2c

Question 22

Question 22:
In certain areas of the city, it has become popular to convert brownstones to duplex apartments. Which statement below would be most correct regarding this construction feature?
A: When the high stoop remains in place, access to the upper apartment will usually be the entrance under the stoop.

B: Open, unprotected stairs between floors within each apartment.

C: Partial areas of the floors may be cut out to create three-story high ceilings and balconies.

D: In all cases, ventilation of the roof will only provide ventilation for the apartments on the upper floors.

Answer 22

B
Explanation:
Brownstones sect 2.2.13
A. Where the high stoop remains in place, access to the lower apartment will usually be the entrance under the stoop.
B. sect 2.2.13.C
C. Partial areas of the floors may be cut out to create TWO story-high ceilings and balconies.
D. In SOME cases, ventilation of the roof will only provide ventilation for the apartments on the upper floors.

Question 23

Question 23:
While discussing Extraction Task Forces at a recent division conference, the following points were made by the chief officers in attendance regarding radiation emergencies. Which of the following is incorrect?
A: The general population of surrounding buildings should be evacuated when the dose inside reaches 10 rem.
B: Decontamination efforts are considered successful when radiation levels do not exceed twice background levels.
C: The cumulative dose during a catastrophic event that triggers a decision to remove members from the hot zone is 50 rem.
D: Whenever manpower is sufficient during operations, members receiving absorbed doses should be rotated at dose levels of 5 rem or when once SCBA bottle is expended.

Answer 23

A
Explanation:
ERP ADDENDUM 4 – RADIOLOGICAL OPERATIONS
A is incorrect – Evacuate civilians from buildings in the surrounding area if the projected dose inside will reach 5 rem for the gen pop or 10 rem for special groups 3.2.1C
B is Correct – 6.2
C is Correct – 3.1.4C
D is Correct – 3.2.2 A

Question 24

Question 24:
If a radiological incident occurs, emergency management officials will determine which radioactive substances are present before recommending that people take Potassium Iodide (KI).  Members shall only take Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets when directed by the \_\_\_\_\_\_.
A: Chief of Operations
B: Chief of Department
C: Fire Commissioner
D: Chief Medical Officer

Answer 24

B
Explanation:
ERP Addendum 4C, Potassium Iodide Tablets
B. 5.4 Note
Engines, Ladders, Squads, Rescues, Battalions, Divisions, Borough Commanders and Command Chiefs shall all carry 130 mg Potassium Iodide (KI) tablets in the GLOVEBOX of their apparatus/vehicle. 5.2 Changed 12/04/13

Question 25

Question 25:
A knowledgeable BC should know when and where to transition from SCBA use to Air Purifying Respirator (APR) use. Which statement contains incorrect information?
A: The APR is intended to be used in very limited and specific situations. The Incident Commander should only make this decision after consultation with the Haz-Mat Group Supervisor and all the risks have been properly evaluated.
B: If any uncertainty exists, than the use of the SCBA should be continued until such time as all the hazards can be properly evaluated.
C: An anticipated use of the APR would be overhauling at an asbestos incident, after a minor fire.
D: An anticipated use of the APR would be a suspected biological incident with continuous atmospheric monitoring.

Answer 25

C
Explanation:
C) Anticipated uses include: Asbestos incidents, non-fire related.
TB SCBA Add 2 4

Question 26

Question 26:
The hot topic at the annual education day for chief officers was the policies and procedures for manhole fires. The following policies and procedures were mention: 1) Only a chief officer can order the application of FireIce.....2) Chief officers can order the use of FireIce while operating at 10-25-1, 10-25-2, and 10-25-4.......3) At initial operations using FireIce, the nozzleman should be at a safe standoff distance of 50 feet.......4) During any type of manhole fire, members shall not attempt to move vehicles located in the danger area........5) Units should not operate into the manholes unless requested by a Con Edison employee at the scene......6) When operations are within the capability of a single unit, the Officer in Command may leave one unit to await the arrival of the emergency crew if the expected time of arrival is more than 20 minutes......Which policies and procedures are correct    
A: 1,2,3,4,5,6
B: 1,2,3,4,5
C: 2,3,4,5
D: 1,2,4,5
E: 1,3,4,5

Answer 26

E
Explanation:
2) 10-25-1 and 10-25-2
3) this is correct, however, After establishing an adequate gel solution, and as conditions allow, the nozzle team may advance toward the manhole while maintaining a minimum safe distance of 25' from the manhole opening 6) more than 30 minutes
AUC 180 and AUC 180 add 2
Know this AUC for sure

Question 27

Question 27:
The BC study group that you are attending are discussing the relocation and relief services for victims of fire. the following comments were made on this subject: 1) Red Cross referral slips are distributed to all battalions.......2) The Red Cross referral slip may be given to anyone who wants one even if the person had no fire damage to their occupancy......3) Box number, date, time of Box, and the Division that responded to incident  will be inserted on slip when it is given to victims......4) Battalions will no longer use radio communications for relocations of victims of fire.......5) The person or persons requiring assistance will make necessary telephone call to the Red Cross per instructions on Referral Slip. An exception to procedure will be made if victim has no access to a telephone or when a severe language problem exists.......6) Referral slips need not be given if Red Cross personnel are on the scene......Choose the correct comments?
A: 1,2,3,4,5,6
B: 1,2,3,4,5
C: 1,3,4,5
D: 1,2,4,5,6
E: 1,3,4,5,6

Answer 27

D
Explanation:
3) Box number, date, time of Box, and the Battalion responsible for the fire report will be inserted on slip by responsible Battalion at scene when it is given to victims AUC 253

Question 28

Question 28:
A BC reviewing strategy at an electrical substation emergency was incorrect in which thought?
A: Sulfur Hexafluoride Gas (SF6), a colorless, odorless gas used to insulate and extinguish arcs in electrical equipment, is twice as heavy than air.
B: Capacitor Banks found in locked, caged-in areas pose an electrocution hazard. Even after power has been removed, capacitors retain a potentially deadly electrical charge.
C: Thermal decomposition of SF6 gas produces Hydrogen Fluoride, which has a strong, irritating odor similar to rotten eggs, and Metal Fluoride powder, a white powder that is extremely corrosive to bare skin.
D: Led/acid batteries found in the substation’s battery room contain 5 to 10 gallons of 30% to 40% sulfuric acid which is corrosive, and can vaporize, resulting in a deadly mist if inhaled.

Answer 28

A
Explanation:
A) Sulfur Hexafluoride Gas (SF6), a colorless, odorless gas used to insulate and extinguish arcs in electrical equipment is five times heavier than air.
AUC 338 Add 2 2.3, 3.4, 3.5

Question 29

Question 29:
An officer who was notified by a member of an alleged incident of harassment would be correct in all actions below except?
A: Complete a Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report and submit it directly to the EEO Officer.
B: The Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report should be in a sealed envelope.
C: The Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report should have intermediate endorsements.
D: No copies of the Harassment, Discrimination Incident Report shall be retained by the Officer on Duty.

Answer 29

C
Explanation:
C) should be submitted WITHOUT intermediate endorsements.
TB EEO 7.2 F

Question 30

Question 30:
BC Underground arrives at a box in a subway station and observes an 8x8 black pictorial on a yellow background of a person walking on stairs. What does this sticker tell you about this subway station?
A: This station has no elevators leading to the mezzanine or down to the platform area.
B: This station is undergoing a construction project and staircases are subject to closure during work hours.
C: This station has only one means of egress through which passengers can exit from the station platform to the street.
D: This station has multiple levels down to station platforms and egress will be difficult during emergency operations.

Answer 30

C
Explanation:
AUC 207 ADDENDUM 17
C is correct 1.1 – Note… There may be multiple stairway entrances leading to the street from the end of the platform that provides egress. The stickers are provided for any station where the egress from the platform area is restricted to only one end of the station platform.

Question 31

Question 31:
According to the Loft Bulletin, at \_\_\_\_\_\_ degrees Fahrenheit, cast-iron loses \_\_\_\_\_ % of its original strength.
A: 800, 42
B: 800, 58
C: 1100, 42
D: 1100, 58

Answer 31

D
Explanation:
Loft Building Fires
D. 5.1.10 F
The strength lost is cumulative and never regained

Question 32

Question 32:
Stubborn cellar fires in taxpayer structures can be a challenge for even the most experienced BC. All of the following options are correct except in which choice?
A: Cellars of large area or heavy fire conditions may require two lines advancing in unison.
B: Stretch lines into adjoining cellars and operate through holes made in partitions.
C: As a last resort, use hi-expansion foam to control the cellar fire.
D: When conditions indicate, use cellar pipes and distributors through holes in the floor.

Answer 32

C
Explanation:
C) As a last resort, flood the first floor with a Stang nozzle or tower ladder pipe.
Taxpayer 7.2.2 M-Q

Question 33

Question 33:
A “fire watch” required for an out-of-service standpipe system, sprinkler system or fire alarm system shall be maintained by one or more fireguards with one exception: An impairment coordinator or other building staff trained and knowledgeable in conducting a fire watch may conduct a fire watch in lieu of a fire guard during the initial \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ of a planned removal from service, or after discovery of an unplanned out-of-service condition, provided that the floor or area in which the fire protection system is out of service does not exceed 50,000 square feet.
A: 4 hours
B: 6 hours
C: 12 hours
D: 24 hours

Answer 33

A
Explanation:
BISP Ch 5 Ref 1.1 4.5.4

Question 34

Question 34:
You are responding to an accident on the Cross Bronx Expressway involving a UPS truck and you receive HT transmissions from the first arriving truck about elevated radiation levels. Regarding the Transport Index, which transmissions received are an indication of a possible breached package at the accident scene? **1 - Package A has a transport index reading of 10 mR/hr at 1 meter from the package ***2 - Company meters are detecting Alpha, Beta, & Gamma Radiation. ***3 - The entire truck’s shipment has a transport index reading of 100 mr/hr. **4 - Package B has a transport index of 5 R/hr at 1 meter from the package
A: 1 only Indicates a breached package
B: 1 & 3 only indicate breached packages
C: 2, 3, & 4 only indicate breached packages
D: 2 only indicates breached packages

Answer 34

C
Explanation:
ERP Addendum 4 - Radiation pg 33
2.5.3 - If levels of radiation exceed the Transport Index, the integrity of the package may have been compromised or breached.
2.5.4 - The TI applies to levels of Gamma Radiation only. Readings of Alpha or Beta particles indicate the package may have been breached or the shielding compromised. (#2)
2.5.5 - The Transport Index of a package should not exceed 10 mr/hr (#1 is 10 indicating no breach, #4 is 5 R indicating breach)
2.5.6 - The Transport index of a shipment should not exceed 50 mr/hr
(#3 states 100)

Question 35

Question 35:
Battalion Chiefs are familiar with the benefits provided by Positive Pressure Ventilation (PPV). Which choice below contains incorrect information regarding PPV operations?
A: One fan can provide the proper pressure in a stairwell up to 10 stories, depending on conditions.
B: Two fans will pressurize a 40 story building when properly positioned.
C: If the fire floor is above the 10th floor, or additional pressures are required to maintain the stairwell free of smoke, a second fan must be brought to three floors below the fire floor and set up.
D: Proper positioning when pressurizing the stairwell in a high-rise building has the fan set up 6 to 8 feet back, at an 80 degree angle.

Answer 35

D
Explanation:
D. Proper positioning when pressurizing the stairwell in a high-rise building has the fan set up 4 to 6 feet back, at an 80 degree angle.
C) Note: The concept of placing a fan on the ground floor and a second fan three floors below the fire, can also be applied to buildings GREATER than 40 stories.
AUC 349 7.3

Question 36

Question 36:
Please download BISP Ch 3 add 2 IG 10 BISP Ch 3 add 2_IG 6 BISP Ch 4 Add 2 BISP Ch 4 Add 4 BISP Ch 5_ref_8_3 for your in-basket. While starting an inspection of a CDA building, you discover that a DOB Permit is not present at the site. You would be most correct to take which action?
A: Issue an immediate Criminal Summons
B: forward a DOB Referral Report (Normal Priority)
C: issue an FDNY Summons
D: forward a DOB Referral Report (High Priority)

Answer 36

B
Explanation:
BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 10 p3

Question 37

Please download BISP Ch 3 add 2 IG 10 BISP Ch 3 add 2_IG 6 BISP Ch 4 Add 2 BISP Ch 4 Add 4 BISP Ch 5_ref_8_3 for your in-basket.

Question 37:
All of the following actions are correct whenever a violation order (VO) is issued to a City Agency or a Non Jurisdictional Agency, with the exception of which choice?
A: Leave the pink copy at the premises.
B: A re-inspection should be conducted by the issuing unit.
C: Upon discovery of non-compliance during re-inspection, a memo stating the conditions found and a copy of the VO should be forwarded to the Division Chief for appropriate action.
D: The Public Buildings Unit will initiate corrective action.

Answer 37

C
Explanation:
C) should be forwarded to the PUBLIC BUILDINGS UNIT for appropriate action
BISP Ch 4 Add 2 p4

Question 38

Please download BISP Ch 3 add 2 IG 10 BISP Ch 3 add 2_IG 6 BISP Ch 4 Add 2 BISP Ch 4 Add 4 BISP Ch 5_ref_8_3 for your in-basket.

Question 38:
During a vacate surveillance inspection of a multiple dwelling where your unit was able to gain access to the common areas of the building but not the vacated space, you would be correct to?
A: document “unable to gain access” or “denied access” under the “Notes” tab “Building Notes” in RBIS.
B: immediately special call the Battalion Chief and DOB to the scene.
C: consider the Vacate Order complied with when the Vacate Order and warning posters are posted on the vacated space, and there are no signs indicating re-occupancy.
D: consider the Vacate Order complied with regardless of whether the Vacate Order and warning posters are posted on the vacated space or not.

Answer 38

C
Explanation:
BISP Ch 4 Add 4 p15

Question 39

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Question 39:
At an assisted living facility which was constructed in 2018, one exit for the entire building is permissible in which case?
A: One story – Maximum occupancy load of 10 and maximum travel distance of 75 feet.
B: Two stories – Maximum occupancy load of 12 and maximum travel distance of 75 feet.
C: Two stories – Maximum occupancy load of 8 and maximum travel distance of 100 feet.
D: One story – Maximum occupancy load of 12 and maximum travel distance of 75 feet.

Answer 39

A
Explanation:
BISP Ch 3 Add 2 IG 6 p17

Question 40

Question 40:
While working in Manhattan for the 9X6 tour over the summer, you were requested to inspect a local theater. In order to familiarize yourself with common features of theaters, you reference Department literature. After your research you know which description is correct?
A: Fly Gallery: A space above the stage in some theaters used to store scenery, backdrops and curtains which are hung by rope or cable and lowered into position when needed.
B: Fly Loft: A raised floor area above a stage from one which the movement of scenery and operation of other stage effects are controlled.
C: Proscenium: A large space under the stage in some large theaters. It may contain scenery, hydraulic lifts, electrical equipment, and trap doors used by actors to access the stage.
D: Thrust Stage: Any arrangement where the performance area protrudes beyond the proscenium into the audience seating area, or where the performance area is located so that it is surrounded by the audience.

Answer 40

D
Explanation:
A) Fly Lofts: A space above the stage in some theaters used to store scenery, backdrops and curtains which are hung by rope or cable and lowered into position when needed (also known as a rigging loft).
B) Fly Gallery: A raised floor area above a stage from which the movement of scenery and operation of other stage effects are controlled.
C) Trap Room: A large space under the stage in some large theaters. It may contain scenery, hydraulic lifts, electrical equipment, and trap doors used by actors to access the stage.
Proscenium: An open arched wall that separates a stage from the auditorium.
BISP Ch 5 Ref 8.3 sec 3