Exam 6 Radiology/fractures/ultrasound Flashcards

1
Q

What is radiopaque?

A

relative impenetrability to x-rays

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2
Q

What is radiolucent

A

relative penetrability to X-rays

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3
Q

What should be done prior to ordering an x-ray?

A

an excellent history and physical

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4
Q

What is the metaphysis? Diaphysis?

A

Metaphysis is the end of a bone proximal to the growth plate, diaphysis is the shaft of a bone

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5
Q

What is an epiphysis? Epiphyseal plate?

A

The part of the bone distal to the growth plate; its the growth plate

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6
Q

What is an apophysis? Apophyseal plate?

A

A growth plate that has a tendon attached to it (tibial tuberosity); A growth plate under an apophysis

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7
Q

What should always be done with fractures?

A

Obtain at least 2 views of the involved bone, ideally in perpendicular planes; look for indirect signs of fracture

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8
Q

What are indirect signs of a fracture?

A

soft tissue swelling, obliteration or displacement of fat stripes, periosteal and endosteal reaction/thickening, buckling of cortex, double cortical line

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9
Q

What is a supracondylar fracture; intraarticular?

A

Supra is just above, intraarticular in a break of half of the articular surface

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10
Q

What is a comminuted fracture?

A

a break off of the bone with a complete transverse fracture

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11
Q

What is the differential diagnosis of arthridities?

A

Osteoarthritis, Inflammatory arthritis, Seronegative spondyloarthropathies, crystal depositiona arthropathy, metabolic/endocrine, infectious

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12
Q

What is an important clinical presentation that can tell you which arthritis a patient has?

A

the distribution of the involved joints

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13
Q

What does osteoarthritis look like in an x-ray?

A

marginal osteophytes, cortical irregularity, subchondral sclerosis, subchondral cysts, joint space narrowing

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14
Q

What does an xray of rheumatoid arthritis look like?

A

Periarticular osteoporosis, joint effusion, joint space narrowing, articular erosions/destruction, synovial cysts, deformities

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15
Q

What is the composition of bone?

A

Organic-30% (cells, matrix/collagen), Mineral-70%(hydroxyapatitie, MG, Na, K, Fl, Cl)

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16
Q

What is intramembranous ossification?

A

Mesenchymal progenitor cells differentiate into osteoblasts which then directly form bone

17
Q

What is endochondral ossification?

A

Mesenchymal progenitor cells differentiate into chondrocytes, initially forming a cartilage intermediate that is replaced as bone is regenerated

18
Q

Where is most cortical/compact bone?

A

Long bones

19
Q

Where are trabecular/cancellous bone

A

mostly flat bones

20
Q

What is the structure of cortical bone?

A

Haversian systems, nutrient arteries, periosteum, endosteium

21
Q

What is the structure of trabecular bone?

A

mostly a lattice system instead of a Haversian system

22
Q

What are the two types of bone?

A

Woven and lamellar

23
Q

What is the difference between woven and lamellar?

A

Woven is laid down pretty quickly, but is transient and replaced by lamellar bone for long term structure

24
Q

What happens in the initial fracture?

A

Trauma > injury to cells, blood vessels, bone and soft tissue > hematomas form and damage to blood vessels leads to osteocyte death and necrotic tissue

25
Q

What happens in the inflammatory phase of a fracture?

A

Release of cytokines leads to vasodilation (edema) and migration of inflammatory cells (initially neutrophils, then macrophages and lymphocytes)

26
Q

What does migration of inflammatory cells to the site of the fracture lead to?

A

release of cytokines to increase angiogenesis leading to increases in fibroblasts and osteoblasts for new matrix, and osteoclasts to resorb necrotic tissue

27
Q

T/F: Osteocytes are involved in fracture repair?

A

FALSE- they aren’t!!!

28
Q

What decreases pain of a fracture initially?

A

the formation of a soft callus to lessen movement

29
Q

What do pluripotent mesenchymal cells differentiate into?

A

osteoblasts, chondrocytes, fibroblasts

30
Q

What do monocytes differentiate into?

A

osteoclasts

31
Q

What does fracture healing depend on?

A

recruitment, proliferation, accumulation and differentiation of pluripotent mesenchymal cells at the site of the fracture

32
Q

What does the transition from a soft callus to a hard callus look like?

A

Intramembranous bone formation at the periphery (proximal and distal to the injury site, endochondral bone formation overlying the site

33
Q

What is a clinical union?

A

when the fracture site becomes stable and pain free

34
Q

What is a radiographic union?

A

plain radiographs show bone trabeculae or cortical bone crossing the fracture site

35
Q

What happens in the remodeling phase of fracture healing? How long does it last?

A

Replacement of woven bone with lamellar bone, resorption of unneeded callus; May continue for years

36
Q

What are some variables that influence fracture healing?

A

Injury (soft tissue damage, bone comminution and displacement, location of bone injury), Patient’s age, Treatment variables (fracture stabilization)

37
Q

T/F: an internal plate repair affects healing process? How?

A

True, fracture skips over woven bone formation and directly moves to lamellar bone, leading to not as good of a fracture healing

38
Q

T/F: a Salter-Harris class III fracture is something to worry about in children? Why?

A

True; affects the proliferating zone of cells at the distal half of the growth plate?

39
Q

Where is the proliferative, hypertrophic and metaphysis section of a growth plate?

A

Proliferative is at the distal part, hypertrophic is where cells continue to mature until they are added onto the metaphysis. DON’T HURT THE PROLIFERATIVE ZONE