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Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q
  1. The protein that transports endogenous antigens from the cytosol to the endoplasmic reticulum is known as
    a. Transporter-associated antigen processing (TAP)
    b. CLIP
    c. DM
    d. Invariant chain
A

A

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2
Q
  1. Which of the following is an opsonin?
    a. C5a
    b. C1
    c. C3b
    d. C3a
A

C

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3
Q
  1. Match each term in Column A with the one in Column B to which it is the most closely associated
    a. Follicle B-cell rich zone of lymph node
    b. Periarteriolar lymphoid sheath (PALS) T-cell rich zone of the splenic white pulp
    c. Langerhans cellsMacrohpages of the skin
    d. Parafollicular cellsT-cell rich zone of lymph node
A

A

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4
Q
  1. Arrange the phases of an adaptive immune response in the correct order
  2. Memory
  3. Contraction
  4. Antigen Elimination
  5. Lymphocyte activation
  6. Antigen Recognition
    a. 5,4,3,2,1
    b. 1,4,5,3,2
    c. 4,5,2,3,1
    d. 2,4,5,3,1
A

A

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5
Q
  1. Which of these statements about the Fab portion of the antibodies is true?
    a. It binds to antigens
    b. Its amino acid sequences are variable
    c. It consists of both heavy and light chains
    d. All of these are true
A

D

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6
Q
  1. Rearrange the following regarding the development of heavy chain in the correct order
  2. Transcription of VDJ
  3. Recombination of VDJ
  4. Mu-mRNA
  5. Splicing of VDJ onto C region RNA
  6. Mu heavy chain
    a. 5,4,3,2,1
    b. 5,1,2,3,4
    c. 2,1,4,3,5
    d. 2,3,1,4,5
A

C

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7
Q
  1. The following are components of innate immunity except
    a. Plasma proteins
    b. Cytotoxic T cells
    c. Epithelial barriers
    d. Phagocytes
    e. Natural killer cells
A

B

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8
Q
  1. Below is a list of properties of adaptive immune responses. Match each term to its definition
    a. Memoryleads to enhanced responses to repeated exposures to the same antigen
    b. Specialization Generates responses that are optimal for defense against different types of microbes
    c. Contraction and homeostasisallows immune system to respond to newly encountered antigens
    d. Diversityenables immune system to respond to a large variety of antigens
A

A

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9
Q
  1. The germline organization of antigen receptor gene loci on chromosome 14 shows V1 through V, d, j, C-mu, C-delta, C-gamma, C-epsilon and C-alpha. Select the correct chain locus belongs to
    a. H chain locus
    b. TCR- alpha chain locus
    c. Lambda chain locus
    d. Kappa chain locus
    e. TCR-beta chain locus
A

A

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10
Q
  1. In positive selection in the thymus, immature thymocytes
    a. Recognize peptides in the bone marrow
    b. Exhibit strong recognition of MHC molecules
    c. Exhibit weak recognition of MHC molecules
    d. Do not recognize MHC molecules
A

C

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11
Q
  1. What is the process of coating microbes to facilitate recognition by phagocytes?
    a. Activation
    b. Adhesion
    c. Opsonization
    d. Migration
A

C

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12
Q
  1. The following are true of toll-like receptors except
    a. Found on the cell membrane and endosomes
    b. Respond to double-stranded RNA, flagellin and unmethylated CPG oligonucleotides
    c. Activate two transcripting factors, NF-Kappa B and Interferon regulatory factor 3
    d. Recognize PAMPs in the cytoplasm
A

D

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13
Q
  1. Impaired by not abolished NK-Kappa B could cause
    a. Autoinflammatory syndrome
    b. Severe immunodeficiency
    c. Ectodermal dysplasia
    d. Chronic granulomatous disease
    e. Thrombosis
A

C

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14
Q 
14.	Which of the following at functions of complement?
I. Opsonization
II. Cell Lysis
III. B cell activation
a.	III
b.	I and II
c.	II and III
d.	I
e.	I, II, and III
A

E

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15
Q
  1. B cell receptor
    a. Can recognize peptides onle
    b. Antigen recognition is mediated by the variable regions of alpha and beta chains
    c. Associated with CD3 and zeta proteins
    d. Responds to both three dimensional and linear epitopes
A

D

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16
Q
  1. Defective lysosomal granules of phagocytes and natural killer cells could cause
    a. Septic shock
    b. Thrombosis
    c. Chediak-Higashi syndrome
    d. Chronic granulomatous disease
A

C

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17
Q 
17.	Which of the following is a characteristic of the T cell receptor (TCR)?
I. is present on all T cells
II. Has dual chain structure
III. Recognizes antigen bound to class I and class II molecules
a.	I and II
b.	I and III
c.	II and III
d.	I
e.	I, II, and III
f.	III
g.	II
A

E

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18
Q
  1. Blood monocytes differentiate into ___________ when they enter extracellular tissues
    a. Macrophages
    b. Polymorphonuclea leukocytes
    c. Natural killer cells
    d. Effector cells
    e. Naïve cells
A

A

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19
Q
  1. Rearrange the following regarding the development of T lymphocytes in the correct order
  2. Double positive cell
  3. Double-negative cells
  4. Appearance of TCR-beta + invariant protein (pre T-alpha)
  5. Stem cells
  6. MHC I or MHC II molecules
    a. 4,5,1,2,3
    b. 4,2,3,1,5
    c. 4,1,2,3,5
    d. 4,5,3,2,1
20
Q 
20.	A class II MHC molecule consists of
I. a single glycoprotein chain
II. A single glycoprotein chain plus a Beta2-microglobulin molecule
III. Two glycoprotein chains
a.	I and II
b.	II and III
c.	I, II, and III
d.	III
e.	I
21
Q
  1. HLA class I molecules present antigens to
    a. CD4 cells
    b. Dendritic cells
    c. B cells
    d. CD8 cells
22
Q
  1. Foreign antigens phagocytosed by macrophages are presented by
    a. Class II MHC molecules to help T cells
    b. Class II MHC molecules to cytotoxic T cells
    c. Class I MHC molecules to helper T cells
    d. Class II MHC molecules to CD8-bearing cells
23
Q
  1. VDJ gene recombination would be best describes as
    a. P-nucleotide deletions
    b. P-nucleotide additions
    c. Somatic mutation
    d. Combinational diversity
    e. Junctional diversity
24
Q
  1. Lysosomal content used during Phagocytosis include all of these except
    a. Endotoxin
    b. Proteases
    c. Oxidase
    d. Reactive oxygen intermediates
    e. Nitric oxide
25
Q
  1. Cells responsible for innate immunity are activated most commonly by
    a. Glucocorticoids
    b. Pollen
    c. Neutrophils
    d. Eosinophils
    e. Carbohydrate sequences in bacterial cell walls
26
Q
  1. The following are examples of PAMPS EXCEPT
    a. Unmethylated CpG dinucleotides
    b. IRF-3
    c. Viral envelope proteins
    d. Fungal mannans
    e. Bacterial flagellin
27
Q
  1. Which of the following is NOT involved in signal transduction of T cells?
    a. MHC
    b. Zeta chain
    c. CD4/CD8
    d. CD3
28
Q 
28.	 Antibody isotypes are differentiated on the basis of
I. Heavy chain structure
II. Light chain structure
III. Variable region of light chains
a.	I and Ii
b.	I, II, and III
c.	II and III
d.	III
e.	I
29
Q
  1. Double positive immature T cells that express weak recognition of class I MHC and peptides would most likely:
    a. Fail positive selection
    b. Undergo maturation as CD4+ T cells
    c. Undergo maturation as CD8+ T cells
    d. Undergo negative selection
30
Q
  1. Which of the following is a role of the invariant chain (li) in antigen processing
    I. Directing the class II molecule to the endosome
    II. Preventing peptide loading of the class II molecule
    III. Preventing class I molecules from competing for peptides
    a. III
    b. I, II, and III
    c. I and II
    d. I
    e. II and III
31
Q
  1. These are all true of innate immunity except
    a. Immediate response
    b. Prior exposure is not required
    c. Recognizes and responds to microbes and host cells damaged by microbes
    d. Always present
    e. Reacts against nonmicrobial
32
Q
  1. Which of the following is not associated with a cell-mediated response?
    a. Macrophages
    b. T cells
    c. Nature Killer cells
    d. B cells
A

C and/or D

33
Q
  1. Choose the correct order in the process of activation of T cells:
    a. Differentiation, clonal expansion, activation, antigen recognition
    b. Differentiation, clonal expansion, antigen recognition, activation
    c. Clonal expansion, antigen recognition, activation, differentiation
    d. Activation, clonal expansion, differentiation, antigen recognition
    e. Antigen recognition, activation, clonal expansion, differentiation
34
Q
  1. ________________ cells allow the immune system to respond more quickly if the same antigen is encountered a second time?
    a. Memory Cells
    b. Naïve cells
    c. Natural killer cells
    d. Immature T cells
35
Q
  1. Four to 96 hours after infection would be considered
    a. Immediate response
    b. Early induced response
    c. Adaptive immune response
    d. Late induced response
36
Q
  1. Surrogate light chain along with heavy chain and Igα and Igβ signaling molecules make up:
    a. Mature B cell
    b. Immature B cell
    c. Pro-B cell
    d. Pre-B cell
37
Q
  1. Class I MHC genes include all of these except
    a. HLA-A
    b. HLA-D
    c. HLA-C
    d. HLA-B
38
Q
  1. Natural killer (NK) cells are a type of
    a. Effector cells
    b. Granulocytes
    c. Antigenpresenting cells
    d. Lymphocytes
39
Q
  1. Match the cytokines below with their appropriate functions
    a. Interferon-gamma (IFN-γ) activates macrophages to become more effective at phagocytozed microbes
    b. Interleukin-7 (IL-7)stimulates survival and expansion of immature precursors of B and T lymphocytes
    c. Interleukin-12 (IL-12) – activates natural killer cells
    d. Interleukin-1 (IL-1) – stimulares the production of chemokines by the endothelial cells
40
Q
  1. CD4 is a marker of
    a. B cells
    b. An activated macrophage
    c. Cytotoxic T cells
    d. Helper T cell
41
Q
  1. Which of the following antibodies is the first antibody produced during an immune response?
    a. IgD
    b. IgG
    c. IgA
    d. IgE
    e. IgM
42
Q
  1. Which of the following is important in nonspecific immune defense?
    a. Activation of lymphocytes
    b. Interferons
    c. Secretion of antibodies
    d. Class I MHC proteins
43
Q
  1. Rearrange the following steps in the capture and presentation of protein antigens by dendritic cells
  2. Lymph node
  3. Afferent lymphatic vessel
  4. Dendritic cells in the epidermis
  5. Loss of adhesiveness
  6. Antigen presentation
  7. Antigen capture
    a. 3,6,4,2,1,5
    b. 6,5,4,3,2,1
    c. 3,4,2,6,5,1
    d. 4,2,6,1,3,5
44
Q
  1. _______________ is also called acquired immunity
    a. Adaptive
    b. Native
    c. Natural
    d. Innate
45
Q
  1. Active immunity may be produced by
    a. Contracting a disease
    b. Receiving a vaccine
    c. Receiving antibody injections
    d. Both a and b
    e. Both b and c
46
Q
  1. Which of the following cells is considered a “professional” antigen presenting cell?
    a. Helper T cell
    b. Macrophage
    c. Neutrophil
    d. Endothelial cell
47
Q
  1. All of the following are true of innate immunity EXCEPT
    a. Identical receptors on all cells are of the same lineage
    b. Clones with distinct specificities express different receptors
    c. Receptors are excited in germline
    d. Receptors are of limited diversity

A & P 2 (19 decks)

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