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A & P 2 > Exam > Flashcards

Exam Flashcards

1
Q

Question 1
All of the following are true of innate immunity EXCEPT this one:
Choose one answer.
a. Receptors are of limited diversity.

b. Receptors are encoded in germline.
c. Clones with distinct specificities express different receptors.
d. Identical receptors on all cells are of the same lineage.

A

C

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2
Q 
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 2 
Which one of the following is NOT a function of the helper T lymphocyte?
Choose one answer. 
a. Activation of macrophages.

b. Inflammation.
c. Complement activation.
d. Activation of T and B lymphocytes.

A

C

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3
Q

Question 3
Which of the following types of cells express FcγRIIIA (CD16)?
Choose one answer.
a. NK cells.

b. Eosinophils.
c. Macrophages.
d. Neutrophils.

A

A

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4
Q

Question 4
If preformed antibodies react with alloantigens on the vascular endothelium of the graft to activate complement, trigger intravascular thrombosis and necrosis of the vessel wall, it is referred to as:
Choose one answer.
a. chronic rejection.

b. none of these.
c. all of these.
d. hyperacute rejection.
e. acute rejection.

A

D

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5
Q

Question 5
Natural killer (NK) cells are a type of:
Choose one answer.
a. granulocytes.

b. antigen presenting cells.
c. lymphocytes.
d. effector cells.

A

C

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6
Q

Question 6
Rearrange the following:
Choose one answer.
a. Cytosolic microbe → microbial protein → unfolded protein → peptides in cytosol → Class I MHC.

b. Peptides in cytosol → class I MHC → unfolded protein → cytosolic microbe → microbial protein.
c. Unfolded protein → cytosolic microbe → microbial protein → class I MHC → peptides in cytosol.
d. Class I MHC → peptides in cytosol → unfolded protein → microbial protein → cytosolic microbe.
e. Cytosolic microbe → Class I MHC → microbial protein → unfolded protein → peptides in cytosol.

A

A

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7
Q 
Marks for this submission: 0/1.
Question 7 
Which treatment type for cancer helps activate phagocytes or complement system?
Choose one answer. 
a. Chemotherapy.

b. Plasmid containing cDNA encoding a tumor antigen.
c. Monoclonal antibody treatment.
d. Adoptive cellular immunotherapy.

A

C

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8
Q

Question 8
Double positive immature T cells that express weak recognition of class I MHC and peptide would most likely undergo:
Choose one answer.
a. maturation as CD8+ T cells.

b. maturation as CD4+ T cells.
c. failure of positive selection.
d. negative selection.

see page 85

A

A

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9
Q

The success of an organ or tissue transplant depends on:
Choose one answer.
a. histocompatibility.

b. haptens.
c. genetic recombination.
d. cytokines.

A

A

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10
Q

Question 10
When mature B lymphocytes recognize self antigen, they express a new Ig light chain.
Answer:
True

False

A

False

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11
Q

If a microbial antigen cross-reacts with self antigen and activate T cells, it is called:
Choose one answer.
a. Anergy.

b. Deletion.
c. self-tolerance.
d. molecular mimicry.

A

D

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12
Q

Question 12
Which receptor type is involved in the protection of IgG from intracellular catabolism?
Choose one answer.
a. FcRn.

b. FcγRIII.
c. FcεRI.
d. FcγRI.

A

A

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13
Q

Question 13
Release of this cytokine is associated with macrophage activation and production of reactive oxygen intermediates.
Choose one answer.
a. IL-12.

b. IL-4.

c. IFN-γ.
page 32 and 34
d. TGF-β.

A

C

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14
Q

Question 14
Each MHC molecule can present only one peptide at a time but each MHC molecule is capable of presenting many different peptides.
Answer:
True

False

A

True

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15
Q

Question 15
Activation of CTLs results in the secretion of all of these EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. granzymes.

b. perforins.
c. caspases.
d. secretion of IFN-γ.

A

C

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16
Q

Question 16
In the helper T cell-mediated activation of B cell, helper T cell expresses the following ligand in addition to secreting cytokines.
Choose one answer.
a. B7-2.

b. ICAM-1.
c. B7-1.
d. CD40.

A

D

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17
Q

Question 17
If graft alloantigens are presented by the allogeneic graft’s dendritic cells to activate T cells, it results in delayed hypersensitivity reaction.
Answer:
True

False

A

False

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18
Q

Eosinophils are activated by these cytokines:
Choose one answer.
a. IL-10.

b. IL-5.
c. IL-13.
d. IL-4.
e. IL-12.

A

B

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19
Q

Question 19
CLIP binds tightly to the peptide-binding cleft of the class I molecule.
Answer:
True

False

A

False

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20
Q

Question 20
The lectin pathway for the activation of complement begins with:
Choose one answer.
a. IgG antibody covering the surface of a microbe in such a way that the Fc portion of the antibody molecules can interact with complement factor 1 (C1).

b. C3b forming a stable attachment to proteins or polysaccharides on the surface of the microbe.
c. mannose binding protein finding a cell whose outer membrane or wall has terminal mannose residues on it and binding to them.

A

C

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21
Q

Question 21
Tumor cells where class I MHC molecules are not expressed are typically removed by:
Choose one answer.
a. CD8+ T cells.

b. CTLs.
c. NK cells.
d. CD4+ T cells.

A

C

22
Q

Question 22
Which type of hypersensitivity is not systemic and is limited to a few organs?
Choose one answer.
a. Type I.

b. Type IV.
c. Type II.
d. Type III.

A

B

23
Q

Failure of self tolerance could be due to:
Choose at least one answer.
a. genetic susceptibility.

b. environmental stimuli.
c. negative selection.
d. receptor editing.

A

A & B

24
Q

Macrophage-derived TNF and IL-1 produce cytokines called:
Choose one answer.
a. P-selectin.

b. chemokines.
c. L-selectin.
d. integrins.

A

B

25
Q

Question 25
A light chain in an antibody could be made of either:
Choose one answer.
a. Alpha or Epselon.

b. Kappa or Lambda.
c. Lambda or Gamma.
d. Kappa or Gamma.
e. Mu or Delta.

A

B

26
Q

Question 26
Find the correct sequence for allergic response:
Choose one answer.
a. Antibodies bind to receptors on the surface of mast cells → mast cells degranulate → release chemical mediators → antigen exposure → antibodies produced.

b. Antigen exposure → antibodies produced → antibodies bind to receptors on the surface of mast cells → mast cells degranulate → release chemical mediators.
c. Release chemical mediators → antigen exposure → antibodies produced → antibodies bind to receptors on the surface of mast cells → mast cells degranulate.
d. Antibodies produced → antigen exposure → antibodies bind to receptors on the surface of mast cells → release chemical mediators → mast cells degranulate.
e. Antibodies produced → antibodies bind to receptors on the surface of mast cells → antigen exposure → mast cells degranulate → release chemical mediators.

A

B

27
Q

Question 27
Which one of the following is NOT a transcription factor?
Choose one answer.
a. NFAT.

b. ITAM.
c. AP-1
d. Myc.
e. NF-κB

A

B

28
Q

Question 28
Anaphylaxis is a clinical manifestation of:
Choose one answer.
a. type I hypersensitivity.

b. type IV hypersensitivity.
c. type III hypersensitivity.
d. type II hypersensitivity.

A

A

29
Q

Question 29
Which of the following cytokines is needed for the isotype switching of IgG?
Choose one answer.
a. IL-13.

b. IL-4.
c. None.
d. IFN-γ.
e. TGF-β.

A

D

30
Q

Which of the following types of leukocytes are important in host defense against helminthic parasites?
Choose one answer.
a. Eosinophils.

b. Neutrophils.
c. Macrophages.
d. Monocytes.

A

A

31
Q

Question 31
Immature CD4+ T cells that recognize self antigens in the thymus differentiate to become:
Choose one answer.
a. regulatory T cells.

b. TH2 cells.
c. Memory T cells.
d. TH1 cells.
e. CTLs.

A

A

32
Q

Question 32
LFA-1 is produced by:
Choose one answer.
a. Naive T cells.

b. Endothelial cells.

c. Effector T cells.
a type of integrin needed to attach to APC to become activated.
d. Macrophages.

A

A & C

33
Q

Question 33
Which one of the following is also called as the late phase reaction?
Choose one answer.
a. Secretion of leukotrienes.

b. Secretion of prostaglandins.
c. Secretion of cytokines.
d. Degranulation.

A

C

34
Q

Question 34
IFN-γ released by the NK cell:
Choose one answer.
a. stimulates the macrophage to kill the phagocytosed microbes

b. stimulates the macrophage to release IL-12
c. stimulates the release of IL-1 and TNF
d. inhibits the release of IL-12 from macrophage

A

A

35
Q

Question 35
Surrogate light chain along with a heavy chain and Igα and Igβ signaling molecules make up:
Choose one answer.
a. Pre-B cell.

b. Pro-B cell.
c. Mature B cell.
d. Immature B cell.

A

A

36
Q

Question 36
Which of the following pathways is used by some tumors in order to survive?
Choose one answer.
a. Activation of CD20 pathway.

b. Secretion of IL-2.
c. Activation of B7 costimulator pathway.

d. Activation of CTLA4 receptor pathway.
Inhibits T cell activation.

A

D

37
Q

Question 37
If recognition of antigen presented on MHC molecule is considered a first signal, which of the following would be considered a second signal for T cell activation?
Choose one answer.
a. IFN-α production.

b. CD40-CD40L
c. B7/CD28 interaction.
d. Production of C3d.

A

C

38
Q

Question 38
Which of the following is a stimulus for IgA class switching?
Choose one answer.
a. IL-4.

b. IFN-γ.
c. TGF-β.
d. IL-5.

A

C

39
Q

Question 39
The following are the isotypes of Ig in effector cells EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. IgM.

b. IgA.
c. IgG.
d. IgE.
e. IgD.

A

E

40
Q

Question 40
Which one of the following complement proteins serve as an opsonin?
Choose one answer.
a. C5a.

b. C3a.
c. MAC.
d. C3b.
e. C3d.

A

C3b

41
Q

Question 41
Fas ligand is expressed by:
Choose one answer.
a. infected cells with class I MHC protein.

b. infected cells with class II MHC protein.
c. TH1 cells.
d. CTLs
e. TH2 cells.

A

D

42
Q

Question 42
TH1 cells activate macrophages by which of the following pathways?
Choose one answer.
a. CD40/CD40L pathway.

b. TCR pathway.
c. B7/CD28 pathway.
d. BCR pathway.

A

A

43
Q

Question 43
Deficiency of which of these complement proteins results in profound susceptibility to infections and usually is fatal in early life?
Choose one answer.
a. C2.

b. C3.
see page 163
c. C4.

d. C1.
e. C5.

A

B

44
Q

Question 44
Effector mechanisms of antibody-mediated diseases include the following EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. inflammation and tissue injury.

b. opsonization and phagocytosis.
c. interference with normal cellular functions such as hormone receptor signaling.
d. cell lysis.

A

D

45
Q

Question 45
When mature T cells recognize antigens in peripheral tissues without adequate levels of costimulators, it results in:
Choose one answer.
a. apoptosis.

b. anergy.

c. deletion.
apoptosis
d. negative selection.

e. the production of Foxp3.

A

B

46
Q 
Question 46 
Rearrange the following in the correct order:
1. Receptor cleavage.
2. Release of IgA into the lumen.
3. transport within the cell.
4. Endocytosis.
5. Binding of IgA with poly-Ig receptor.
Choose one answer. 
a. 3→2→1→5→4.

b. 4→3→5→1→2.
c. 5→4→3→2→1.
d. 5→4→3→1→2.
e. 4→5→2→1→3.

A

D

47
Q

Question 47
The Ig type of an antibody molecule is determined by the:
Choose one answer.
a. structure of its light chains.

b. structure of the constant region of the heavy chains.
c. structure of its variable regions.
d. its function.

A

B

48
Q

Question 48
The following are examples of PAMPs EXCEPT:
Choose one answer.
a. unmethylated CpG dinucleotides.

b. viral envelope proteins.
c. endosomal TLRs.
d. fungal mannans.
e. bacterial flagellin.

A

C

49
Q

Question 49
B cells are capable of activating effector T cells but are inefficient at initiating the response of naive T cells.
Answer:
True

False

A

False

50
Q

Question 50
Which part of class I MHC molecule is invariant and contains a binding site for the T cell co-receptor?
Choose one answer.
a. α3.

b. α1.
c. α2.
d. β1.

A

A

A & P 2 (19 decks)

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