Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

BIOL 213 > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

A bacterial cell gives rise to two genetically identical daughter cells by a process known as

a) nondisjunction
b) mitosis
c) meiosis
d) binary fission
e) fertilization

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

In order for a living cell to undergo cell division, which of the following must occur?

a) DNA replication
b) DNA segregation
c) Division of cytosol
d) Answers A and B must occur
e) All of the above must occur

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

How does a nucleus in G2 differ from a nucleus in G1?

a) The G2 nucleus has double the amount of DNA as the G1 nucleus
b) DNA Synthesis occurs only in the G1 phase
c) Inactive cells are arrested only in the G2 phase
d) During G2, the cell prepares for S phase
e) all of the above

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Mature nerve cells, which are incapable of cell division are most likely in

a) G0
b) the S phase
c) G2
d) mitosis
e) meiosis

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

A set of cells in the intestinal epithelium divide continually to replace dead cells lost from the surface of the intestinal lining. If you examined this continually dividing population of intestinal epithelial cells under the microscope, which of the following would you observe?

a) cells in mitosis
b) cells in interphase
c) cells in meiosis
d) both A and B
e) all of the above

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Which of the following phases of the cell cycle is not part of interphase?

a) M
b) S
c) G1
d) G2
e) G0

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. in which stage(s) of the cell cycle was the nucleus with 6 picograms of DNA?

a) G0
b) G1
c) G2
d) answers A and B are correct
e) all of the above are correct

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Once active, a cyclin dependent kinase does which of the following?

a) phosphorylates protein substrates
b) produces cAMP
c) cleaves phospholipid into inositol triphosphate
d) triggers release of intracellular Ca++
e) produces nitric oxide (NO)

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What regulates cyclin dependent kinase (cdk) activity?

a) the level of cellular ATP
b) interaction with an appropriate cyclin
c) phosphodiesterase
d) biorhythms
e) the reduction potential (NADH levels)

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Progression of the cell cycle is dependent on the status of checkpoint proteins. An example of a checkpoint protein (aka tumor supressor protein) is?

a) adenylyl cyclase
b) phospholipase
c) pRB (retinoblastoma protein
d) tubulin
e) all of the above

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Which of the following can be accomplished by mitosis

a) tissue regeneration
b) tissue and organism growth
c) sexual reproduction
d) Answers A and B are correct
e) all of the above are correct

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Chromosomes contain large amounts of organizing proteins known as

a) pentanes
b) hexosamines
c) histones
d) protein hormones
e) histamines

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What is a karyotype?

a) the set of unique physical characteristics that define an individual
b) the collection of all the mutations present within the genome of an individual
c) the combination of chromosomes found in a gamete
d) A system of classifying cell nuclei
e) A display of every pair of homologous chromosomes within a cell, organized according to size and shape

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Which of the following statements about mitosis is true?

a) the chromosome number in the resulting cells is halved
b) DNA replication is complete in prophase
c) crossing over occurs during anaphase
d) Two genetically identical daughter cells are formed
e) it consists of two nuclear divisions

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Most cell sin a n organism may undergo mitosis but not meiosis and are referred to as

a) stem cells
b) germ cells
c) somatic cells
d) clonal cells
e) tissue cells

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Cells capable of replication that can still differentiate or mature into more than one cell type are called?

a) stem cells
b) germ cells
c) somatic cells
d) clonal cells
e) tissue cells

A

A

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Chromatin condenses to form discrete, visible chromosomes when?

a) early in G1
b) during S
c) during telophase
d) during prophase
e) at the end of cytokinesis

A

D

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

In animal cells, microtubules that form the centrosome (spindle apparatus) originate from?

a) centromeres
b) euchromatin
c) centrioles
d) telomeres
e) kinetochores

A

C

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Centrosome microtubules associate with the chromosomes at a protein complex called?

a) centromeres
b) euchromatin
c) centrioles
d) telomeres
e) kinetochores

A

E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

During mitotic anaphase, chromosomes migrate

a) from the poles (ends) of the cell toward the center (equatorial plate)
b) from the equatorial plate toward the poles
c) toward the nuclear envelope
d) along with their sister chromatids toward one pole
e) along with the other member of the homologous pair toward the equatorial plate

A

B

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

During mitotic metaphase, the chromosomes

a) separate
b) come together
c) are at opposite poles (ends)
d) line up at the center (equatorial plate)
e) cross over

A

D

22
Q

Which of the following does NOT occur during mitotic telophase

a) synapsis and crossing over
b) nuclear envelope reassembles
c) centrosome disappears
d) endomembrane system reforms
e) chromosomes return to norma chromatin state (de-condense)

A

A

23
Q

Which of the following is not involved in the separation of paired chromatids and their movement to opposite poles?

a) sister chromatids attach to microtubules in opposite spindles or centrosomes
b) separase hydrolyzes cohesion, allowing chromatid separation
c) tubulin fibers move the chromatids away from the equatorial plate
d) polar microtubules push the chromatids to the poles
e) ATP is hydrolyzed to provide energy

A

D

24
Q

In plant cells, cytokinesis is accomplished by the formation of a(n)

a) aster
b) membrane furrow
c) equatorial line
d) cell plate
e) spindle

A

D

25
Q

The major drawback of asexual reproduction is that it

a) takes a great deal of time
b) generates too much genetic variation
c) prevents DNA mutations
d) requires cytokinesis
e) produces less variation among offspring than does sexual reproduction

A

E

26
Q

Down syndrome occurs in individuals with?

a) diploid gametes
b) Trisomy 21
c) Trisomy
d) Monosomy 21
e) Monosomy 1

A

B

27
Q

Diploid cells of the fruit fly Drosophila have ten chromosomes. How many chromosomes does a drosophila haploid gamete have?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 5
d) 10
e) 20

A

C

28
Q

The second meiotic division of meiosis is important because

a) it returns the chromosome number to diploid before fertilization
b) it allows for crossing over and random distribution of chromosomes
c) it reduces cell size by dividing the cytoplasm in half
d) it reduces the chromosome copies to one per gamete
e) fertilization requires this step

A

D

29
Q

meiosis can occur

a) in all sexually reproducing organisms
b) only when an organism is diploid
c) only in multicelluar organisms
d) only in haploid organisms
e) only in single-celled organisms

A

A

30
Q

One difference between mitosis and meiosis I is that

a) homologous chromosome pairs synapse during mitosis
b) chromosomes do not replicate in the interphase preceding meiosis
c) homologous chromosome pairs synapse during meiosis but not during mitosis
d) spindles composed of microtubules are not required during meiosis
e) sister chromatids separate during meiosis but not during mitosis

A

C

31
Q

The number of chromosomes is reduced to half (diploid to haploid) during

a) anaphase of mitosis and meiosis
b) meiosis I
c) meiosis II
d) fertilization
e) interphase

A

B

32
Q

A potato has a diploid number of 48. If a gamete of this plant has 23 chromosomes, the most likely explanation is that

a) normal meiosis has occurred
b) nondisjunction occurred during meiosis I
c) normal mitosis has occurred
d) nondisjunction occurred during mitosis
e) crossing over occurred during meiosis I

A

B

33
Q

The process of programmed cell death is called

a) necrosis
b) lysis
c) apoptosis
d) cell displacement
e) cellular suicide

A

C

34
Q

Which of the following is true of malignant tumors?

a) The cells do not resemble the cells of the parent tissue
b) The cells of the tumor are often irregular, with various sizes and shapes
c) the cells grow more rapidly than the cells surrounding it
d) they often metastasize
e) all of the above are correct

A

E

35
Q

Genes code for

a) enzymes
b) polypeptides
c) RNA
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

A

D

36
Q

How does RNA differ from DNA?

a) RNA contains uracil instead of thymine and it is usually single stranded
b) RNA contains uracil instead of thymine and it is usually double stranded
c) RNA contains thymine instead of uracil and it is usually single-stranded
d) RNA contains uracil instead of cytosine
e) none of the above

A

A

37
Q

The “central dogma” of molecular biology states that

a) information flow between DNA, RNA, and protein is reversible
b) information flow in the cell is unidirectional from DNA to RNA to protein
c) information flow in the cell is unidirectional, from protein to RNA to DNA
d) The DNA sequence of a gene can be predicted if we know the amino acid sequence of the protein it encodes
e) the genetic code is ambiguous but not degenerate

A

B

38
Q

The process of transcription synthesizes

a) transfer RNA
b) messenger RNA
c) ribosomal RNA
d) answers A and B are correct
e) all of the above are correct

A

E

39
Q

RNA polymerase uses the _______ DNA template to synthesize a _______ pre-mRNA.

a) 5´ to 3´; 5´ to 3´
b) 3´ to 5´; 3´ to 5´
c) 5´ to 3´; 3´ to 5´
d) 3´ to 5´; 5´ to 3´
e) Answers A and B are both possible

A

D

40
Q

The region of DNA to which RNA polymerase first associates is the

a) promoter
b) poly C center
c) enhancer
d) operator site
e) minor groove

A

A

41
Q

A template DNA strand has the following base sequence: 3´-GTC, CCA-5´. What would be the
corresponding mRNA sequence?

a) 3´-GUC, CCA-5´
b) 5´-GUC, CCA-5´
c) 3´-CAG, GGU-5´
d) 5´-CAG, GGU-3´
e) 5´-CAG, GGT-3´

A

D

42
Q

Exons are

a) spliced out of the original transcript
b) spliced together from the original transcript
c) spliced to introns to form the final transcript
d) much larger than introns
e) larger than the original coding region

A

B

43
Q

The tail added to pre-mRNA is

a) coded for by DNA
b) composed of poly T
c) important for mRNA stability
d) attached to its 5’ end
e) all of the above

A

C

44
Q

snRNPs are

a) exon-intron boundary regions
b) small nuclear ribonucleoprotein particles
c) protein fragments removed from snRNA molecules
d) singla ribosomal nuclear proteins
e) glucose-conjugated trapezoids

A

B

45
Q

A signal peptide(s) or localization sequence(s) is/are necessary for which of the following?

a) translocation of the newly translated peptide into the endoplasmic reticulum
b) interaction with a signal recognition protein
c) targeting of the translated protein to an organelle within the cell
d) answers A and B are correct
e) all of the above are correct

A

E

46
Q

What is the enzymatic function of restriction enzymes

a) to add new nucleotides to the growing strand of DNA
b) to join nucleotides during replication
c) to join nucleotides during transcription
d) to cleave nucleic acids at sites
e) to repair breaks in the sugar-phosphate backbones

A

D

47
Q

Which of the following seals the stick ends of restriction fragments to make recombinant DNA?

a) restriction enzymes
b) DNA ligase
c) thermostable polymerase (Taq)
d) gel electrophoresis
e) reverse transcriptase

A

B

48
Q

Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are often identified by which process?

a) examining the cells with an electron microscope
b) using radioactive tracers to locate the plasmids
c) exposing the bacteria to an antibiotic that kills cells lacking the resistant plasmid
d) removing the DNA of all cells in a culture to see which cells have plasmids
e) producing antibodies specific for each bacterium containing a recombinant plasmid

A

C

49
Q

Genetically engineered plants (GMOs)?

a) are more difficult to engineer than animals
b) include a transgenic rice plant that can help prevent vitamin A deficiency
c) are being rapidly developed, but traditional plant breeding programs are still the only method used to develop new plants
d) are able to fix carbon without sunlight
e) are banned throughout the world for health reasons

A

B

50
Q

Use figure 1 to determine which of the following possible sequence of nucleotides in the template strand
of DNA that would code for the polypeptide sequence phe-leu-ile-val.

a) 5’ TTG-CTA-CAG-TAG 3’.
b) 3’ AAC-GAC-GUC-AUA 5’.
c) 5’ AUG-CTG-CAG-TAT 3’.
d) 3’ AAA-AAT-ATA-ACA 5’.
e) 3’ AAA-GAA-TAA-CAA 5’.

A

E

BIOL 213 (13 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions