Exam 3: Lecture 25 - Principles of Orthopedic Surgery Flashcards

1
Q

What was the first case group that Orthopedics was first practiced in?

A

First practiced to treat childhood spinal deformities such as polio or scoliosis

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2
Q

What are resons to perform orthopedic surgery

A
  • Stabilize fractures bones
  • Explore, debride, and stabilize injured joints
  • Replace damaged joints
  • Stabilize spinal column injuries
  • Decompress the spinal cord
  • Resect musculoskeletal tumors
  • Repair tendon and ligament injuries
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3
Q

As a veternarian it is important to understand your limitations and when to _________

A

refer complicated cases when necessary

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4
Q

In the clinic what is the first way to identify lameness

A

orthopedic exam

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5
Q

What challenges arise in regards to Orthpedic surgery

A
  • Assess patient
  • Classify Fracture
  • Develop plans for fixation to produce predictable and consistent results
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6
Q

Define Allograft

A

Bone transplant from one animal to another of same species

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7
Q

Define Apophyseal Osteotomies

A

Procedures to enhance surgical exposure of a joint

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8
Q

Define Autograft

A

Bone transplant for one site to another in the same animal

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9
Q

Define Avulsion Fracture

A

Insertion point of a tendon or ligament is fractured and distracted frm rest of the bone

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10
Q

Define Bridging Plates

A

Span cominuted fracture

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11
Q

Define Cerclage Wire

A

Orthopedic wire placed around circumference of bone to compress an oblique fracture

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12
Q

Define CLosed Reduction

A

Fractured bone alignment performed without surgical exposures

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13
Q

Defire Compression Plates

A

Plates that act to compress the fracture

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14
Q

Define Corrective Osteotomies

A

Diaphysis or Metaphysis of a bone is cut, realigned and stabilized until union occurs
- Elective procedure

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15
Q

Define Cranial Drawer

A

Abnormal movement of stifle joint elicited during physical examination

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16
Q

What test can be done to test to see if there was a cranial cruciate ligament deficient stifle (Most common in dogs)

A

Cranial Drawer Test

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17
Q

What test is used to check if the tibia sliding cranially in relationship to femur

A

Cranial Drawer

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18
Q

Define Crepitation

A

“Grating feeling” or sound with manipulating a fractured bone or arthritic joint

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19
Q

Define Delayed unions

A

Fractures that heal more slowely than anticipated

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20
Q

Define Direct Bone Union

A

Bone formed without evidence of callus

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21
Q

Define Endochondral bone formation

A

Bone formed on cartilage precursor

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22
Q

Define External Coaptation

A

Fracture fixation with casts or splints

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23
Q

Define External Fixation

A

Fracture fixation in which pins penetrate bone and skin and connected tissue

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24
Q

Define Greenstick fracture

A

Incomplete fracture where portion of cortex is intact

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25
Q

Define Hemicerclage Wire or Interfragmentary wire

A

Wire placed through predrilled holes in bone

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26
Q

Define Indirect Reduction

A

Process of restoring fragment and limb alignment by distracting major bone segments

  • usually animals weight
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27
Q

Define Internal Fixation

A

Fracture fixation using internal implants to secure bone

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28
Q

Define Intramedullary Pins

A

Implants positioned in the medullary canal of long bones

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29
Q

Define Intramembranous bone formation

A

Direct differentation of mesenchymal stem cells into osteoblasts

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30
Q

What type of bone formation is done without a cartilaginous precursor

A

Intramembranous bone formation

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31
Q

Define Luxation

A

Complete dislocation of a joint

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32
Q

Define Malunions

A

Healed fractures where anatomic bone aligment not achieved or maintained during healing

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33
Q

Define Neutralization plate

A

Support a reconstructed fracture

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34
Q

Define nonunion

A

Fracture with an arrested repair process

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35
Q

What fracture healing method requires surgical intervention to create environment conductive to bone healing

A

Nonunion

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36
Q

Define Normograde placement

A

Pin started at one end of bone, driven to fracture area, then seated at other end of fractured bone

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37
Q

Define Open Fracture

A

Fracture is exposed to external atmosphere

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38
Q

Define open (direct) reduction

A

Fracture repair performed after surgical approach to bone

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39
Q

Define Ortolani Maneuver

A

Manipulation used to sublaxate a dysplastic hip

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40
Q

Define Ostectomies

A

Removal of a segment of bone

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41
Q

Define Osteomyelitis

A

Inflammatory condition of bone and medullary canal

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42
Q

Define Osteotomies

A

Procedures where bone is cut into two segments

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43
Q

Define Procurvatum

A

Cranial Bowing of bone

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44
Q

Define Subluxation

A

Partial dislocation of a joint

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45
Q

Define Valgus deformity

A

Angulation of distal portion of limb LATERALLY

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46
Q

DefineVarus deformitiy

A

Angulation of distal portion of limb MEDIALLY

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47
Q

What is this orthopedic exam testing

A

testing the lateral collateral ligaments

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48
Q

What are the goals when treating fractures, nonunions and bone deformities

A
  • Bone union (bone healing)
  • Patients return to normal function
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49
Q

What are the 3 main desioin making goals you should have during surgery

A
  1. Choose implants and plant
  2. Evaluate fracture, patient and client
  3. Ensure selected fixation able to counteract forces applied to stabilize bone
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50
Q

What assessment score can be done for fratures during the decision making process of evaluating the fracture, patient and client

A

FAS Score
- Fracture assessment score

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51
Q

Throughout your surgical planning you need to make a detailed plan for the entire surgical operation which includes?

A
  • Method of fracture reduction
  • Sequence of implant application
  • Possibilities for bone grafting
52
Q

Failure to plan procedures results in?

A
  • Prolonged operating time
  • Excessive soft tissue damage
  • Technical errors
53
Q

Ultimate outcomes of improper planning results in?

A
  • Implant failure
  • Delayed healing
  • Infection
  • Nonunion

PLANNING IS IMPORTANT

54
Q

Why is fracture classification important

A

It allows accurate communication with owners and colegues to aid appropiate treatment planning

  • to do this limb and radiographs evaluated to accuratley classify fracture
55
Q

T/F this fracture classification can be used to describe fracture

  • Open, complete, displaced, severly comminuted, nonreducible fracture of the diaphysis of the femur
56
Q

Give the 5 Basis of Fracture classification

A
  1. If the fracture is open to the enviornment (fracture closed or open to external environment)
  2. Degree of damage and displacement of fragments
  3. Type of fracture
  4. If fracture fragmetns can be reconstructed to provide load bearing (reducible or non reducible)
  5. Location of fracture
57
Q

What twp types of fractures may be complete or incomplete

A

Greenstick fracture
Avulsion fracture

58
Q

What type of fracture is described as:

  • Occurs in immature animals
  • incomplete fracture where portion of cortex is intact
  • partially stabilizes bone
A

Greenstick fracture

59
Q

What type of fracture is described as:

  • Occurs when insertion point of tendon or ligament is fractured and distracted from the rest of the bone
  • May be nondisplaced or displaced
A

Avuslion Fracture

60
Q

What type of fracture is described as:

  • Fracture line perpendicaulr to long axis of the bone
A

Transverse fracture

61
Q

What type of fracture is described as:

  • Lines run at an angle to line perpendicular to long axis of bone
A

Oblique fracture

62
Q

Define Short Oblique fractures

A

fractures 45 degrees of less

63
Q

Define Long Oblique fractures

A

fractures 45 degrees or more perpendicular to long axis of bone

64
Q

What type of fracture is described as:

  • Similar to long oblique fracture, but wraps around long axis of bone
A

Spiral fractures

65
Q

What type of fracture is described as:

  • Have one fracture line
A

single fracture

66
Q

What type of fracture is described as:

  • Have multiple fracture line ranging from
    3 piece fractures with butterfly fragments (fragment with 2 oblique fracture lines resemling butterflies)

to highly comminuted fractures with 5 or more pieces

A

Comminuted fractures

67
Q

What type of fracture is number 1

A

transverse

68
Q

What type of fracture is number 2

69
Q

What type of fracture is number 3

70
Q

What type of fracture is number 4

A

Comminuted / reducible

71
Q

What type of fracture is number 5

A

Comminuted / nonreducible

72
Q

What type of fracture is described as:

  • Single fracture line or fractures with no more than 2 large fragments
73
Q

What type of fracture is described as:

  • Fractures with multiple fragments
A

nonreducible

74
Q

Classification of fractures by location can be seen as?

A

Diaphysis
Metaphysis
Physical
Articular

75
Q

Velocity of forces dictates?

A
  • Number of fragments
  • Damage to surrounding soft tissue
76
Q

What type of force creates single fractures with little energy dissipated into soft tissue

A

Low velocity forces

77
Q

What type of forces create comminuted fractures with high energy dissipated through fracture propagation and surrounding soft tissue injury

A

High velocity forces

78
Q

Open fractures are classified according to?

A
  • Mechanism of puncture
  • Severity of soft tissue injury
79
Q

What are the three classification of open fractures

A

Grade I, II, and III

80
Q

What Grade of open fracture is described as

  • Small puncture hole located in skin proximity of fracture cause by bone penetrating to outside
  • typically around 1 cm
  • Bone may or may not be present
81
Q

What Grade of open fracture is described as

A

Grade 1 open fracture

82
Q

What Grade of open fracture is described as

-Variable sized skin would associated fracture that resulted from external trauma
- More damage to soft tissue
- While extent of soft tissue damage varies fracture is mininally (or not) comminuted

83
Q

What Grade of open fracture is described as

84
Q

What Grade of open fracture is described as

  • Severe bone fragmentation with extensive soft tissue injury (with or without skin loss)
85
Q

What Grade of open fracture is described as

  • Usually high-velocity comminuted fractures
    Ex: Gunshot injuries or searing type of injuries of distal extremities
86
Q

What Grade of open fracture is described as

87
Q

What Grade of open fracture is described as

88
Q

What Grade of open fracture is described as

89
Q

What type of Harris Classification of physeal Fractures is number 1

90
Q

What type of Harris Classification of physeal Fractures is number 2

91
Q

What type of Harris Classification of physeal Fractures is number 3

92
Q

What type of Harris Classification of physeal Fractures is number 4

93
Q

What type of Harris Classification of physeal Fractures is number 5

94
Q

What type of Salter - Harris Classification of physeal Fractures is described as

  • Fractures run through physis
95
Q

What type of Salter - Harris Classification of physeal Fractures is described as

  • Fractures run physis and portion of metaphysis
96
Q

What type of Salter - Harris Classification of physeal Fractures is described as

  • Fractures run through physis and epiphysis and are generally articular
97
Q

What type of Salter - Harris Classification of physeal Fractures is described as

  • Fractures are also articular running through epiphysis, across physis and through metaphysis
98
Q

What type of Salter - Harris Classification of physeal Fractures is described as

  • Fractures are crushing injuries of physis
  • Not visible radiographically become evident several weeks later when physeal function ceases
99
Q

What type of Salter - Harris Classification of physeal Fractures is described as

  • Classification used to describe physeal closure from damage to a portion of a physis
  • causing asymmetric physeal closure
  • Angular limb deformities
100
Q

What type of forces are acting on the fractured bone 1

A

Bending forces

101
Q

What type of forces are acting on the fractured bone 2

A

Torsional forces

102
Q

What type of forces are acting on the fractured bone

A

Axial loading

103
Q

What type of forces are acting on the fractured bone A

104
Q

What type of forces are acting on the fractured bone B

A

bending and Axial compression

105
Q

What type of forces are acting on the fractured bone C

A

Axial compression

106
Q

What type of forces are acting on the fractured bone D

107
Q

What type of forces are acting on the fractured bone E

A

High energy

108
Q

What is the FAS - Fracture assessment score

A

Preoperative data analyzed to start decision making proces

109
Q

Data included in the FAS score is?

A

Patient information
- age
- weight
- general helath
- Activity level
- Presence of other orthopeic pathology

Radiographs
- fractured and other corresponding contralateral intact bones (including proximal and distal joints)

Client information
- Expectations
- Ability to perfrom postoperative care

110
Q

Data summarized as FAS score reflects what 3 factors

A
  1. Mechanical factors
  2. Biological factors
  3. Clinical factors (clinical enviornment where implants must function)

GUIDES THE TYPES IMPLANTS CHOSEN

111
Q

Is the left or right nonreducible and multiple limb injury
- Maxamize stress on implant system
- Requires careful implant choice and application

112
Q

Is the left or right less stress to implant system
- Reduced risk of complications because not severe

113
Q

What type of fracture is number 1

A

Nonreducible Fragment

114
Q

What type of fracture is number 2

A

Reducible Fragments

115
Q

What type of fracture is number

A

Compression

116
Q

Does the following condition favor rapid healing or not favor rapid healing??

  • Old patient
  • Poor health
  • Poor Soft tisse envelope
  • Cortical bone
  • High velocity injury
  • Extensive approach
A

Poor - does not favor rapid healing

implant system must function for prolonged period

117
Q

Does the following condition favor rapid healing or not favor rapid healing??

  • Juvenile
  • Excellant health
  • Good soft tissue envelope
  • Cancellous bone
  • Low velocity injury
  • Closed
A

Favors rapid healing

Implant only needs to function for a short time

118
Q

Give examples clinical facotrs that require comfortable implant system

A
  • Poor client compliance
  • Poor patient Compliance
  • Wimp
  • High comfort level required
  • Requires little postoperative maintenance
119
Q

Give examples of Clinical Factors that can use any implant system

A
  • Good client compliance
  • Good patient compliance
  • Stoic
  • Comfort level not a consideration
  • Regardless of postoperative maintenance
120
Q

FAS assigned on a scale of ?

121
Q

FAS score of high is?

122
Q

FAS score of Moderate is?

123
Q

FAS score of low is?

124
Q

What FAS score would you give an animal that is young and easily healed

A

high: 8 to 10

125
Q

What FAS score would you give an older and not easily healed animal

A

Low: 1 to 3

126
Q

Do fractures with low or high scores generally heal successfully with few complications

127
Q

Do fractures with high or low score potentially less successfully with more complications