Exam 3 full lecture review Flashcards
how many phosphate bonds are needed to form one peptide linkage
4
what steps of the ornithine cycle occur in the mitochondria
formation of carbamoyl phosphate and formation of citrulline
what steps of the ornithine cycle occur in the cytoplasm
formation of argininosuccinate, arginine+fumarate, urea+ ornithine
what product of the ornithine cycle can enter the citric acid cycle
fumarate
what is the major rate-limiting factor for almost all energy metabolism in the body
ADP
what is one of the best known stimuli for increasing rate of thyroid stimulating hormone
cold
how is most glucose absorbed after a meal stored
as glycogen in the liver
what does insulin inactivate
liver phosphorlyase
what happens to insulin level when fat is used for energy
it decreases
what happens to insulin level when carbs are used as energy
it increases
describe the blood flow and vascular resistance of the liver
high blood flow and low vascular resistance
what is the portal pressure into the liver
9 mm Hg
what is the pressure from then liver to vena cava
0 mm Hg
how does cirrhosis effect blood flow
increases resistance to blood flow
what are hepatic sinusoids highly permeable to
proteins
define ascites
large amount of fluid in abdominal cavity
what synthesizes cholic and chenodeoxycholic acids
hepatocytes
what converts deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid
bacteria
what is the major pigment of bile
bilirubin
how is heme transported in the blood
by transferrin
what is heme converted by heme oxygenate into
biliverdin
what is free bilirubin attached to as it is transported in the blood to liver hepatocytes
plasma albumin
what are some intracellular receptor for lipid soluble hormones
adrenal and steroidal hormones, thyroid hormones, retinoid hormones, vitamin D
define hormone response element
activate hormone-receptor complex binds to promoter sequence of DNA
what is an example of a somatotrope (acidophils)
human growth factor
what is an example of a corticotrope
ACTH
what is an example of a thyrotrope
TSH
what is an example of a gonadotrope
LH and FSH
what is an example of a lactotrope
prolactin
where is the sodium-iodide symporter located
basal membrane of thyroid cell
what is the transporter involved in transporting iodide across apical membrane of cell into follicle
pendrin (chloride-iodide counter-transporter_
what catalyzes the conversion of iodide into iodine
peroxidase
where are thyroglobulin molecules stored until they are needed
colloid
what is the major iodine metabolism hormonal product
thyroxine
what are the major causes of hyperthyroidism
grave’s disease and adenoma
what is the major mineralocorticoid
aldosterone
what do intercalated cells increase
hydrogen ion secretion by kidneys
what is aldosterone mainly controlled by
angiotensin II and K+
what is aldosterone secreted by
zona glomerulosa
what is the major glucocorticoid
cortisol
what is cortisol secretion mainly controlled by
ACTH
what is the second messenger for CRH and ACTH
cAMP
what secretes cortisol
zona fasciculata
what can lead to adrenal diabetes
cortisol (glucocorticoid)
what are some major characteristics of cushing’s disease
buffalo torso, moon face, muscle wasting
what is the primary cause of addison’s disease
due to injury to adrenal cortex
what is the secondary cause of addison’s disease
impaired function of pituitary gland
how does hypocalcemia effect the nervous system
causes it to become excited and have tetany
where does the first sign of tetany due to hypocalcemia occur
hands, resulting in carpopedal spasm
when does hypocalcemia become lethal
4 mg/dl
what is the active form of vitamin D
1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol
what type of domains does vitamin D receptor have
hormone-binding and DNA-binding
describe calbindin
calcium-binding protein that functions in the brush border of epithelial cells to transport calcium into the cell cytoplasm
where does the cell body of each sympathetic preganglionic neuron lie
in the intermediolateral horn of the spinal cord (T1-L2)
what type of fibers are postganglionic sympathetic fibers
type C
where are greater splanchnic nerves located and where do they synapse
T5-T9 and synapse in celiac ganglion
where are lesser splanchnic nerves located and where do they synapse
T10-T11 and synapse in superior mesenteric ganglion
where are least splanchnic nerves located and where do they synapse
T12 and synapse in aorticorenal ganglion
what is the neurotransmitter for postganglionic parasympathetic fibers
Ach
where do preganglionics of the oculomotor nerve go
from edinger-westphal nucleus to ciliary ganglion
where do postganglionics of the oculomotor nerve go
from ciliary ganglion to sphincter pupillage muscle
where do preganglionics of the facial nerve go
from superior salivatory and lacrimal nuclei to submandibular/sublingual ganglia
where do postganglionics of the facial nerve go
to lacrimal gland, submandibular gland, sublingual gland and mucous glands of mouth and nose
where do preganglionics of the glossopharyngeal nerve go
from inferior salivatory nucleus to otic ganglion
where do postganglionics of the glossopharyngeal nerve go
to parotid gland
where do preganglionics of the vagus nerve from
dorsal motor nucleus
where do postganglionics of the vagus nerve go
myenteric plexus of wall of gut tube all the way to left colic flexure
what is the major parasympathetic supply to thoracic and abdominal organs
vagus nerve
what amino acid is the precursor for norepinephrine
tyrosine
where are monoamine oxidases found
in nerve endings
where is COMT found
present in all tissues
where are muscarinic receptors found
all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic neurons
where are nicotinic receptors found
neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscles
what is the role of beta3
thermogenesis
what are roles of beta1
cardioacceleration, increased myocardial strength, lipolysis
what drugs cause release of norepinephrine
ephedrine, tyramine, amphetamine
what does reserpine do
blocks synthesis and storage of norepinephrine
what does guanethidine do
blocks release of norepinephrine
what does phenoxybenzamine/phentolamine do
block sympathetic alpha receptors
what does propranolol do
blocks sympathetic beta1 and beta2 receptors
what does hexamethonium do
blocks transmission through autonomic ganglia
what drugs inhibit acetylcholinesterase
neostigmine, pyridostigmine, ambenonium
what drugs block cholinergic activity
atropine, homatropine, scopolamine
where are sperm cells stored until ejaculation
epididymis
what forms testosterone
cells of leydig
what is testosterone converted into once in liver
androsterone and dehydroepiandrosterone
where are sertoli cells located
seminiferous tubules
what acts as nurse cells
sertoli cells
where are cells of leydig found
interstitial spaces in testes
what provides energy for sperm during ejaculation
fructose
what does testosterone have a negative effect on
hypothalamus
what secretes inhibin
sertoli cells
what does inhibin do
inhibits secretion of FSH by anterior pituitary and secretion of GnRH to a lesser extent
what are some anterior pituitary sex hormones
FSH, LH
