Exam 3 full lecture review Flashcards

1
Q

how many phosphate bonds are needed to form one peptide linkage

A

4

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2
Q

what steps of the ornithine cycle occur in the mitochondria

A

formation of carbamoyl phosphate and formation of citrulline

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3
Q

what steps of the ornithine cycle occur in the cytoplasm

A

formation of argininosuccinate, arginine+fumarate, urea+ ornithine

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4
Q

what product of the ornithine cycle can enter the citric acid cycle

A

fumarate

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5
Q

what is the major rate-limiting factor for almost all energy metabolism in the body

A

ADP

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6
Q

what is one of the best known stimuli for increasing rate of thyroid stimulating hormone

A

cold

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7
Q

how is most glucose absorbed after a meal stored

A

as glycogen in the liver

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8
Q

what does insulin inactivate

A

liver phosphorlyase

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9
Q

what happens to insulin level when fat is used for energy

A

it decreases

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10
Q

what happens to insulin level when carbs are used as energy

A

it increases

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11
Q

describe the blood flow and vascular resistance of the liver

A

high blood flow and low vascular resistance

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12
Q

what is the portal pressure into the liver

A

9 mm Hg

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13
Q

what is the pressure from then liver to vena cava

A

0 mm Hg

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14
Q

how does cirrhosis effect blood flow

A

increases resistance to blood flow

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15
Q

what are hepatic sinusoids highly permeable to

A

proteins

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16
Q

define ascites

A

large amount of fluid in abdominal cavity

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17
Q

what synthesizes cholic and chenodeoxycholic acids

A

hepatocytes

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18
Q

what converts deoxycholic acid and lithocholic acid

A

bacteria

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19
Q

what is the major pigment of bile

A

bilirubin

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20
Q

how is heme transported in the blood

A

by transferrin

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21
Q

what is heme converted by heme oxygenate into

A

biliverdin

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22
Q

what is free bilirubin attached to as it is transported in the blood to liver hepatocytes

A

plasma albumin

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23
Q

what are some intracellular receptor for lipid soluble hormones

A

adrenal and steroidal hormones, thyroid hormones, retinoid hormones, vitamin D

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24
Q

define hormone response element

A

activate hormone-receptor complex binds to promoter sequence of DNA

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25
Q

what is an example of a somatotrope (acidophils)

A

human growth factor

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26
Q

what is an example of a corticotrope

A

ACTH

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27
Q

what is an example of a thyrotrope

A

TSH

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28
Q

what is an example of a gonadotrope

A

LH and FSH

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29
Q

what is an example of a lactotrope

A

prolactin

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30
Q

where is the sodium-iodide symporter located

A

basal membrane of thyroid cell

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31
Q

what is the transporter involved in transporting iodide across apical membrane of cell into follicle

A

pendrin (chloride-iodide counter-transporter_

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32
Q

what catalyzes the conversion of iodide into iodine

A

peroxidase

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33
Q

where are thyroglobulin molecules stored until they are needed

A

colloid

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34
Q

what is the major iodine metabolism hormonal product

A

thyroxine

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35
Q

what are the major causes of hyperthyroidism

A

grave’s disease and adenoma

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36
Q

what is the major mineralocorticoid

A

aldosterone

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37
Q

what do intercalated cells increase

A

hydrogen ion secretion by kidneys

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38
Q

what is aldosterone mainly controlled by

A

angiotensin II and K+

39
Q

what is aldosterone secreted by

A

zona glomerulosa

40
Q

what is the major glucocorticoid

A

cortisol

41
Q

what is cortisol secretion mainly controlled by

A

ACTH

42
Q

what is the second messenger for CRH and ACTH

A

cAMP

43
Q

what secretes cortisol

A

zona fasciculata

44
Q

what can lead to adrenal diabetes

A

cortisol (glucocorticoid)

45
Q

what are some major characteristics of cushing’s disease

A

buffalo torso, moon face, muscle wasting

46
Q

what is the primary cause of addison’s disease

A

due to injury to adrenal cortex

47
Q

what is the secondary cause of addison’s disease

A

impaired function of pituitary gland

48
Q

how does hypocalcemia effect the nervous system

A

causes it to become excited and have tetany

49
Q

where does the first sign of tetany due to hypocalcemia occur

A

hands, resulting in carpopedal spasm

50
Q

when does hypocalcemia become lethal

A

4 mg/dl

51
Q

what is the active form of vitamin D

A

1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol

52
Q

what type of domains does vitamin D receptor have

A

hormone-binding and DNA-binding

53
Q

describe calbindin

A

calcium-binding protein that functions in the brush border of epithelial cells to transport calcium into the cell cytoplasm

54
Q

where does the cell body of each sympathetic preganglionic neuron lie

A

in the intermediolateral horn of the spinal cord (T1-L2)

55
Q

what type of fibers are postganglionic sympathetic fibers

A

type C

56
Q

where are greater splanchnic nerves located and where do they synapse

A

T5-T9 and synapse in celiac ganglion

57
Q

where are lesser splanchnic nerves located and where do they synapse

A

T10-T11 and synapse in superior mesenteric ganglion

58
Q

where are least splanchnic nerves located and where do they synapse

A

T12 and synapse in aorticorenal ganglion

59
Q

what is the neurotransmitter for postganglionic parasympathetic fibers

A

Ach

60
Q

where do preganglionics of the oculomotor nerve go

A

from edinger-westphal nucleus to ciliary ganglion

61
Q

where do postganglionics of the oculomotor nerve go

A

from ciliary ganglion to sphincter pupillage muscle

62
Q

where do preganglionics of the facial nerve go

A

from superior salivatory and lacrimal nuclei to submandibular/sublingual ganglia

63
Q

where do postganglionics of the facial nerve go

A

to lacrimal gland, submandibular gland, sublingual gland and mucous glands of mouth and nose

64
Q

where do preganglionics of the glossopharyngeal nerve go

A

from inferior salivatory nucleus to otic ganglion

65
Q

where do postganglionics of the glossopharyngeal nerve go

A

to parotid gland

66
Q

where do preganglionics of the vagus nerve from

A

dorsal motor nucleus

67
Q

where do postganglionics of the vagus nerve go

A

myenteric plexus of wall of gut tube all the way to left colic flexure

68
Q

what is the major parasympathetic supply to thoracic and abdominal organs

A

vagus nerve

69
Q

what amino acid is the precursor for norepinephrine

A

tyrosine

70
Q

where are monoamine oxidases found

A

in nerve endings

71
Q

where is COMT found

A

present in all tissues

72
Q

where are muscarinic receptors found

A

all effector cells stimulated by postganglionic cholinergic neurons

73
Q

where are nicotinic receptors found

A

neuromuscular junctions in skeletal muscles

74
Q

what is the role of beta3

A

thermogenesis

75
Q

what are roles of beta1

A

cardioacceleration, increased myocardial strength, lipolysis

76
Q

what drugs cause release of norepinephrine

A

ephedrine, tyramine, amphetamine

77
Q

what does reserpine do

A

blocks synthesis and storage of norepinephrine

78
Q

what does guanethidine do

A

blocks release of norepinephrine

79
Q

what does phenoxybenzamine/phentolamine do

A

block sympathetic alpha receptors

80
Q

what does propranolol do

A

blocks sympathetic beta1 and beta2 receptors

81
Q

what does hexamethonium do

A

blocks transmission through autonomic ganglia

82
Q

what drugs inhibit acetylcholinesterase

A

neostigmine, pyridostigmine, ambenonium

83
Q

what drugs block cholinergic activity

A

atropine, homatropine, scopolamine

84
Q

where are sperm cells stored until ejaculation

A

epididymis

85
Q

what forms testosterone

A

cells of leydig

86
Q

what is testosterone converted into once in liver

A

androsterone and dehydroepiandrosterone

87
Q

where are sertoli cells located

A

seminiferous tubules

88
Q

what acts as nurse cells

A

sertoli cells

89
Q

where are cells of leydig found

A

interstitial spaces in testes

90
Q

what provides energy for sperm during ejaculation

A

fructose

91
Q

what does testosterone have a negative effect on

A

hypothalamus

92
Q

what secretes inhibin

A

sertoli cells

93
Q

what does inhibin do

A

inhibits secretion of FSH by anterior pituitary and secretion of GnRH to a lesser extent

94
Q

what are some anterior pituitary sex hormones

A

FSH, LH