EXAM 2- CH 6, 7, 9 Flashcards

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1
Q

What question was answered in the Meselson and Stahl experiment

A

that DNA was semi-conservative

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2
Q

materials used in Meselson and Stahl experiment

A
  • bacteria
  • 15N (heavy)
  • 14N (light)
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3
Q

procedure of Meselson and Stahl experiment

A
  1. grew bacteria in 15N medium and then put bacteria in 14N medium
  2. centrifuged bacteria
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4
Q

results of Meselson and Stahl experiment

A
  • found that more 14N was found in the DNA of the bacteria with each generation
  • DNA replication is semi-conservative
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5
Q

true or false: DNA Replication is fundamentally similar in eucaryotes and bacteria

A

true

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6
Q

what are the 3 phases of replication

A
  1. initation
  2. elongation
  3. termination
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7
Q

what occurs in the initation phase of replication

A
  • DNA synthesis begins at ori’s

- formation of replication bubble

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8
Q

what occurs in the elongation phase of replication

A

polymerization of leading and lagging strand

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9
Q

what occurs in the termination phase of replication

A

eukaryotes: ends of chromosomes are replicated

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10
Q

function of initiator proteins

A
  • bind to ori to initiate DNA replication

- brings DNA helicase to the region

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11
Q

function of DNA polymerase

A
  • polymerize DNA 5’ —> 3’ direction
  • removes RNA primer (exonuclease activity)
  • proofread
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12
Q

function of DNA ligase

A
  • forms covalent bonds between nucleotides in the lagging strand
  • glue
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13
Q

function of DNA primase

A
  • synthesizes RNA primers
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14
Q

function of DNA helicase

A
  • breaks h bonds between the parent strands

- sizers

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15
Q

function of SSBP

A
  • keeps the single lagging strand separated

- avoids internal hybridization

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16
Q

function of sliding clamp

A
  • protein that keeps DNA polymerase from falling off

- seatbelt

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17
Q

function of clamp loader

A
  • loads the sliding clamp onto DNA
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18
Q

function of topoisomerase/gyrase

A
  • unwinds DNA supercoiling
  • cuts phosphodiester bond in backbone
  • conditioner
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19
Q

how many forks are there in a replication bubble

A

2

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20
Q

what nucleotides are by the ori

A

lots of A and T

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21
Q

why is the ori rich in A and T

A

less h bonds to break

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22
Q

how many primers are required on the leading strand

A

1

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23
Q

how many primers are required on the lagging strand

A

a lot

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24
Q

what is the template in DNA replication

A

parent strand

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25
Q

what is DNA replication bases on

A

complimentary basepairs

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26
Q

the leading strand starts replication at what

A

from primer

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27
Q

how long is a primer

A

10 nucleotides

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28
Q

function of primer

A

provides OH end for DNA polymerase on the lagging strand

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29
Q

true or false: DNA helicase does not use ATP

A

False

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30
Q

true or false: clamp loader uses ATP

A

true

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31
Q

how many polymerases are needed in prokaryote replication

A

3

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32
Q

how many polymerases are needed in eukaryote replication

A

5

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33
Q

how many types of SSB proteins are needed in prokaryote replication

A

1

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34
Q

how many types of SSB proteins are needed in eukaryote replication

A

3

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35
Q

how many ori in prokaryotes

A

1

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36
Q

how many ori in Eukaryotes

A

many and replicate at different times

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37
Q

findings of the radioactive signals on Chromosomes

A
  • some sequences allowed replication of plasmid —> grew histidine lacking medium
  • Most did not
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38
Q

effects in the integrity of cells can lead to what

A

cancer

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39
Q

what enzyme solves the problem of chromosome shortening

A

telomerase

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40
Q

how does telomerase solve chromosome shortening

A
  • has an RNA template built into it

- adds more simple sequence repeats to ends of chromosome

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41
Q

DNA replication labeling picture

A

google slide

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42
Q

the average number of nucleotides added each time enzyme binds to primer–template junction.

A

Processivity

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43
Q

true or false: the older a cell is the shorter the telomers will be

A

true

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44
Q

true or false: DNA replication results in the copying of a DNA molecule.

A

true

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45
Q

true or false: The replication fork in DNA replication is the junction between the newly separated template strands and the unreplicated duplex DNA.

A

true

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46
Q

true or false: Proofreading exonuclease degrades DNA starting at 5’ ends?

A

false

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47
Q

what caused the lamb with cyclopia to be deformed

A

mom ate corn Lilly early in pregnancy

48
Q

why does corn Lilly cause birth defects in lambs

A

it shuts down the expression of certain genes

49
Q

what chemical did moms take to help with morning sickness caused birth defects in babies in the 1960s

A

thalidomide

50
Q

mistakes during DNA replication can cause what

A

mutations

51
Q

alter the DNA during replication and affect proteins

A

mutations

52
Q

substances or energy source that can cause mutations, appear to be linked to cancer

A

mutagens

53
Q

what effect do mutations have in germ line cells

A
  • they will be passed on to generations

- they are important for evolutionary change

54
Q

what effect do mutations have in somatic cells

A
  • passed down to all other somatic cells
55
Q

true or false: DNA damage delays progression of the cell cycle

A

true

56
Q

what are the defects of someone with Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP)

A
  • skin cancer
  • UV sensitivity
  • neurological abnormalities
57
Q

what causes Xeroderma pigmentosum (XP)

A

Nucleotide excision - repair

58
Q

what are the defects of someone with BRCA2

A
  • breast, ovarian, and prostate cancer
59
Q

what causes BRCA2

A

repair by homologous recombination

60
Q

what are the 3 types of repair mechanisms in a single strand break

A
  • mismatch repair
  • base excision repair
  • nucleotide excision repair
61
Q

what are the 2 types of repair mechanisms in a double strand break

A
  • non homologous end-joining

- homologous recombination

62
Q
  1. removes errors that escapes proofreading
  2. scans for distortions in DNA shape
  3. cuts backbone far away from mutation
  4. removes nucleotide fragment
  5. insert correct nucleotide
  6. ligation
A

steps of mismatch repair

63
Q
  1. Scans double helix for wrong base
  2. clips out base
  3. cuts backbone
  4. remove sugar-phosphate
  5. inserts correct nucleotide
  6. ligation
A

steps of base excision repair

64
Q
  1. cuts phosphodiester bonds in single strand
  2. breaks h bonds
  3. removal of nucleotides
  4. synthesizes nucleotides
  5. ligation
A

steps of nucleotide excision repair

65
Q

what is the most dangerous form of DNA damage

A

breaks in chromosomes with loss of genetic material

66
Q

specific DNA sequences that have the ability to move within and out of chromosomes are called

A

transposons

67
Q

which nuclease cuts in the middle of the DNA strand

A

endonuclease

68
Q

uv light primary damages DNA by

A

forming pyrimidine dimers

69
Q

which is an easier process non homologous end joining or homologous recombination

A

NHEJ

70
Q

true or false: in homologous recombination no DNA is lost

A

true

71
Q

what enzyme is used in mismatch repair

A

mut

72
Q

what enzymes are uses in base excision repair

A
  • glycosylase

- endonuclease

73
Q

what enzyme is used in nucleotide excision repair

A
  • UvrABCD
74
Q

transposons

A
  • mobile genetic elements that can insert into any DNA sequence
  • unique and defined sequence
75
Q

where are transposons found

A

heterochromatin

76
Q

how did Barbara McClintock discover transposable elements

A
  • using yellow and purple corn
77
Q

what is the major difference between class I and II transposons

A
  • class I uses DNA and class II uses DNA and RNA
78
Q

what transposon uses reverse transcription

A

class II

79
Q

what RNA structure is linear

A

primary

80
Q

what RNA structure is folds into itself

A

secondary

81
Q

what RNA structure has phosphodiester bonds

A

primary

82
Q

what RNA structure has h bonds

A

secondary

83
Q

what is an example of a secondary RNA structure

A

tRNA

84
Q

function of snRNAs

A

splicing of pre-mRNA

85
Q

function of snoRNAs

A

modify rRNAs

86
Q

where are snRNAs found

A

nucleus

87
Q

where are snoRNAs found

A

nucleolus

88
Q

where are miRNAs and siRNAs found

A
  • cytosal
89
Q

function miRNAs

A

block translation

90
Q

function of siRNAs

A
  • turn off gene expression

- direct degradation of selective mRNAs

91
Q

what does transcription generally produce

A

RNA

92
Q

in prokaryotes what does transcription produced

A
  • RNA

- mRNA

93
Q

in eukaryotes what does transcription produced

A
  • primary transcript RNA
  • pre-mRNA
  • nuclear RNA
94
Q

true or false: only some portions of DNA sequence are transcribed into RNA

A

true

95
Q

what tells DNA to tell RNA polymerase where to start and stop

A

signals

96
Q

promoter region

A

DNA not transcribed

97
Q

Rna transcripts are _______ and ______ to the template strand of DNA

A
  • complementary

- antiparallel

98
Q

where does transcription take place in eukaryotes

A

nucleus

99
Q

where does transcription take place in prokaryotes

A

cytosol

100
Q

what is the transcriptional unit in prokaryotes

A

polycistronic

101
Q

what is the transcriptional unit in eukaryotes

A

monocistronic

102
Q

several genes are transcribed from a single promoter

A

polycistronnic

103
Q

one gene is transcribed from a promoter

A

monocistronic

104
Q

function of RNA polymerase I

A

transcribes large rRNA genes

105
Q

function of RNA polymerase II

A

transcribes protein-encoding genes

106
Q

function of RNA polymerase III

A

transcribes small RNAs

107
Q

How does the RNA polymerase know where a gene starts

A

promoter region

108
Q

how does the RNA polymerase know which strand is the template

A

only the template strand has the promoter sequence

109
Q

which kind of promoters are close to the start of transcription

A

core promoters

110
Q

prokaryotes core promoter

A

TATA box

111
Q

eukaryotes core promoters

A

BRE, TATA box, DPE

112
Q

what type of promoter is usually further from initiation

A

regulatory promoter

113
Q

what type of regulatory promoter has an activator bind to up regulate transcription

A

enhancer regulator promoter

114
Q

operator or silencer regulatory promoter

A

DNA that binds a repressor to down regulate transcription

115
Q

what are 3 characteristics of RNA

A
  • single stranded
  • supar- ribose
  • Base U
116
Q

requirements for transcription (Eukaryote )

A
  • activator
  • mediator
  • chromatin-modifying proteins