Exam 2 (ch 5,6) Flashcards

1
Q

deep inside brain; important for horone function and behavior

A

hypothalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

once outside the spinal cord, the anterior (motor) and posterior (sensory) roots joint together to form the spinal nerve which passes through the (x)

A

intervertebral foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

symptoms: severe headache, sudden hypertension, facial flush, sweating, gooseflesh

A

autonomic dysreflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

size of muscles: pectoralis major and minor

A

large v small

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

muscle innervation: pronators, wrist and finger flexors on radial side; most thumb muscles; 1st and 2nd lumbricals

A

median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

controls mostly visceral structures

A

autonomic nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Where does the transition from medulla to spinal cord occur?

A

foramen magnum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is this called when there is loss of median nerve?

A

Pope’s blessing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

T1 exits (x) T1 and so on down the vertebral column

A

under

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

subscapularis; oblique, multipennate muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

bony defect through which the meninges protrude; little or no nerve damage

A

meningocele

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

caused by injury to the common peroneal nerve; commonly caused by pressure to the head of fibula due to a tight cast or bed positioning during periods of prolonged immobility

A

foot drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

begins at anterior horn of spinal cord; sends motor impulses out of the muscles and receiving sensory impulses from the skin; all nervous tissue outside of the vertebral canal and brainstem

A

peripheral nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

hyperreflexia; serious and potentially life-threatning complication associated with spinal cord injuries at or above T10; usually triggered by noxious stimulus below level of injury

A

autonomic dysreflexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

unmyelinated fibers; includes the cerebral cortex and central portion of spinal cord

A

gray matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

fundamental unit of nervous tissue

A

neuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

point where tendon meets bone

A

tenoperiosteal junction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

clinical motor features of paralysis: loss of elbow flexion, weakened supination

A

musculocutaneous nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

each hemisphere is divided into four lobes

A

lobes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

transmit impulses away from the body

A

axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

purpose of ascending (sensoru) and descending (motor) pathways

A

carries a particular type of impulse such as touch from and to a specific area

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

divides into superficial and deep fibular (peroneal) nerves

A

common fibular nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

of heads/divisions: sternocleidomastoid

A

attaches on sternum, mastoid, and clavicle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

Rectus femoris; oblique, bipennate muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

“little brain”

A

cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Where is the subarachnoid space located where cerebrospinal fluid circulates?

A

between the layers of arachnoid and pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what nerve is shown?

A

musculocutaneous nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

flexor pollicis longus; oblique, unipennate muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

wrist extensors receive innervation from??

A

C6-C8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what nerve is shown?

A

common peroneal nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

fatty sheath surrounding the axon

A

myelin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

muscles with a more equal horizontal and vertical line or pull will (x)

A

have a role in both motions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

pros of stretching

A

done to increase the resting length of muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

hip flexors and knee extensors are innervated?

A

L2 and L4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

results from injury to one side of the spinal cord causing weakness and loss of proprioception on the side of injury, loss of pain, and thermal sensation on opposite side

A

brown-sequard syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

high radial nerve injury which causes a loss of write and finger extension; often caused by a midhumeral fracture

A

wrist drop

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

fibers tend to be shorter but are more numerous per given area, so have greater strength potential but smaller ROM

A

oblique muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

a peripheral nerve usually accompanied by neurological deficits along nerve pathways; classified according to cause or anatomical location

A

neuropathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

how many spinal nerves are there?

A

31 spinal nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

how many thoracic nerves are there?

A

12 nerves (eat lunch at 12)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

bony protection of CNS?

A

skull and vertebrae

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

mixed cranial nerves that deal with heart, lungs, and GI tract

A

nerve X; vagus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

hip extensors and knee flexors are innervated???

A

L5-S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

provide muscle with innervation at more than one level

A

function of plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

agonist usually becomes actively insufficient (cannot contract any further) before the antagonist becomes passively insufficient (cannot be stretched further)

A

stretching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

Tibialis posterior, Semimembranous, flexor pollicis longus muscles are

A

oblique, unipennate muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

area of skin supplied with the sensory fibers of a spinal nerve

A

dermatome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

found in CNS; function is to transmit or integrate signals from one or more sensory neurons and relay impulses to motor neurons

A

interneuron

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

takes many forms depending on spinal level and area of damage; result in loss of sensation and muscle function

A

spinal cord injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what is this calls when it occurs because of loss of ulnar nerve

A

claw hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

spinal cord segment of musculocutaneous nerve?

A

C5. C6. C7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

important in coordination of motor movement

A

basal ganglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

free weights, resistance training machines found in gym that allows hand and feet to move through space, manual muscle testing, non-weight bearing are examples of

A

open kinetic chain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

intrinsics of hand are innervated?

A

C8 and T1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

spinal nerve, nerve root, plexus, peripheral nerve are

A

groups of fibers (tract) within the PNS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

3 layers of membranes within the skull; covers the brain & provide support and protection

A

meninges

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

common line of pull for most muscles?

A

diagonal line of pull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

a joint(s) that allow muscles to have sufficient excursion to allow joint to move through entire range

A

one joint muscles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

occurs when a multi joint muscle cannot be lengthened any further without damage to its fibers; occurs to antagonist

A

passive insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

deals with conserving energy

A

Parasympathetic Nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what muscle contractions occurs when resistance remains constant and speed varies

A

isotonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

located below the cerebrum

A

brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

What happens when muscles are shortened too far?

A

some actin filaments are overlapping thus reducing the available binding sites from myosin heads

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

spinal segment of common fibular nerve

A

L4, L5, S1, S2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

nerve that is formed by branches of C3-5 and innervated diaphragm

A

phrenic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

direction of fibers: external and internal oblique muscles

A

direction of fibers and their depth to one another

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

muscle innervation: hip flexors and knee extensors; iliopsoas (iliacus and psoas major), sartorrus, pectineus, quadriceps, femoris

A

femoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

trapezius; parallel, triangular muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

midbrain, pons, medulla

A

parts of brainstem

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

anterior and superior areas of cranium above the brain stem and cerebellum

A

cerebrum location

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

when will complete anesthesia occur to spinal nerves?

A

only will occur unless more than two spinal nerves have lost function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Common sites for tendonitis

A

musculotendinous junction, tenoperiosteal junction, or within body of tendon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

which plexus is shown?

A

lumbosacral plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

“water on brain”; congenital or acquired defect involving cerebrospinal fluid production, absorption, and flow through the ventricles and subarachnoid space; can result in abnormal widening of the ventricles, which creates potentially harmful pressure on brain tissues

A

hydrocephalus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What happens when a muscle is shortened or lengthened beyond optimal length?

A

the contractile force of a muscle is reduced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

triceps (elbow extensors) receive innervation?

A

C7-8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

deep within the cerebral hemispheres beneath cortex; mass of nerve cells serves as a relay station for body sensations; where pain is perceived

A

thalamus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What type of joint where the excursion of the muscle will be greater than ROM allowed by joint

A

one joint muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Deals with stress and stimulation

A

Sympathetic Nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

medial nerve injury resulting in loss of thumb opposition

A

ape hand

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

involves the non-contractile units of a muscle when stretching much like a rubber band

A

passive tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

functions of myelin

A

increase speed of impulse conduction in the myelinated fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

group of disorders that occur when the nerves of brachial plexus and/or the subclavian artery and vein become compressed in throacic outlet

A

throacic outlet syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

clinical motor: weakened hip flexion, loss of knee extension

A

femoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

top portion of H; receives and transmits sensory impulses

A

posterior horn of gray matter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

muscle innervation:elbow flexors, coracobrachialis, biceps, brachialis

A

musculocutaneous nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

muscle innervation: hip adductors and some hip ER, Obturator externus

A

obturator nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

middle, thinner layer

A

arachnoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Deltoids and subscapularis are

A

oblique, multipennate muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

passive + active tension=

A

total tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

functional divisions when myofibrils are partitioned longitudinally

A

sarcomeres

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

slight tension that is present in muscle at all times; state of readiness

A

tone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

what nerve is shown?

A

axillary nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

small, bony defect is present but the spinal cord and nerves are usually normal

A

spina bifida occulta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

degenerative motor disease involving both upper and lower motor neurons; also called Lou genrig’s disease

A

amyotrophic lateral sclerosis (ALS)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

label the midsagittal section of the brain

A
  1. frontal lobe; 2. corpus callosum; 3. parietal lobe; 4. occipital lobe; 5. midbrain; 6. cerebellum; 7. spinal cord; 8. medulla; 9. pons; 10. temporal lobe; 11. pituitary gland; 12. hypothalamus; 13. thalamus
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

muscle fibers that look like one side of a feather; series of short fibers attaching diagonally along length of central tendon

A

unipennate oblique muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

spinal segment of sciatic nerve

A

L4, L5, S1, S2, S3

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what nerve is shown?

A

sciatic nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

hip abductors are innervated???

A

L4 and L5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

L4-5; innervates most muscles of leg and foot

A

sacral plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

sarcomere comprimes a network of contractile proteins: thin (x) filaments and thicker (y) filaments

A

x- actin y- filaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What happens to the muscle during adaptive lengthening?

A

muscle cannot generate as much force during contraction

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what nerves supply middle scalene?

A

C3-4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

clinical motor: loss of ankle plantar flexion, weakened ankle inversion, loss of toe flexion

A

tibial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what are the 5 peripheral nerves?

A

musculocutaneous, axillary, radial, median, ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

hand of benediction; inability to flex the thumb, index, and middle finger due to medial nerve injury

A

pope’s blessing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

motor cranial nerve for muscle of eye

A

Cranial III; oculomotor

Cranial IV; trochlear

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

located on the sides of the vertebral column through which spinal nerve roots pass; opening formed by superior vertebral notch of the vertebra below and inferior vertebral notch of vertebra above

A

intervertebral foramen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

penneum and pelvic floor innervated by?

A

S3-S5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What happens to the muscle during adaptive shortening?

A

resting length and amount of extensibility decrease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

muscle innervation: wrist and finger flexors on ulnar side; most hand intrinsics (flexor carpi ulnaris, flexor digitorum profundus (medial half)); interossei, 3rd and 4th lumbricals, muscles of 5th finger

A

ulnar nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

muscle’s ability to contract and generate force when it receives adequate stimulation; may result in muscle shortening, lengthening, or staying the same

A

contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

what nerves supply anterior scalene??

A

C4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

disease that involves a defect at the neuromuscular junction where the terminal axon synapse with receptor sites of muscles; results in weakness and fatigue of skeletal muscles

A

myasthesniagravis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

mixed cranial nerve with sensory of taste, pharynx, middle ear and motor of muscles of pharynx

A

Nerve IX; glossopharyngeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

muscles with greater horizontal pull will be more effective in (x and y)

A

protracting and retracting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

formed by the anterior rami of C5-T1; innervates muscle of upple limb

A

Brachial plexus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what nerve is shown?

A

median nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

when a muscle is on a slight stretch but not overstretched

A

optimal length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

muscle or muscle groups causing motion; prime mover

A

agonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

muscle innervation: ankle dorsiflexors, ankle evertors, toe extensors

A

common fibular (peroneal) nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

point at which a muscle cannot shorten any further; occurs to agonist; myosin filaments are contracting the z-lines and sarcomere cannot get any shorter while the muscle has run out of ability to shorter; joint has not run out of ROM

A

active insufficiency

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

components of brain

A

cerebrum, brainstem. cerebellum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

inner, delicate layer which carries blood vessels to the brain

A

pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

resultant force of a vertical force and horizontal force (elevating and depressing)

A

diagonal line of pull

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

the interaction between the action and myosin and explains how force is produced during a muscle contraction and how the sarcomere is shortened; myocin heads will reach out and bind to actin filaments so all sarcomeres shorten

A

sliding filament theory

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

sensory distribution: posterior arm, posterior forearm, and radial side of posterior hand

A

radial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

four sided muscle fibers and usually flat with broad attachments

A

rhomboidal parallel muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

what can happen to a muscle when an injury occurs at one spinal level?

A

muscle weakens but some function will remain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

ability to respond to a stimulus; natural or artificial stimulus; muscle will contract when stimulated

A

irritability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

anterior divison of the inferior trunk

A

medial cord

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

left and right common carotid arteries and the vertebral arteries

A

brain blood supply

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

occupies posterior portion of the skull; responsible for vision and recognition of size, shape, and color

A

occipital lobe

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

comes from contractile units and force generated can be compared with releasing one end of rubber band

A

active tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

How can we classify muscle names?

A

shape, location, action, #of head/divisions, attachment points, fiber orientations, and size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

how many roots make up the lumbosacral plexus?

A

8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

sensory distribution: anterior and medial thigh, medial leg and foot

A

femoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

largest and main portion of brain; responsible for highest mental functions

A

cerebrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

bowel and bladder are innervated??

A

S4 and S5

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

how many thoracic nerves are there?

A

12 thoracic nerves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

where roots are joined together are called?

A

trunks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

highly complex mechanisms in our bodies that controls, stimulates, and other coordinates all other body systems

A

nervous system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

in event of trauma or disease, perhaps not at all levels of innervation will be involved. Therefore a muscle may be…..

A

weakened but not completely paralyzed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

a muscle that works with one or more muscles to enhance a motion

A

synergist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

length of a muscle when its not shortened or lengthened; no forces or stress places upon it

A

normal resting length

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

component of a neuron

A

cell body, axon, dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

joins the right and left cerebral hemispheres

A

corpus callosum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

muscle fibers with shape similar to that of a spindle with wider middle and tapers at both ends where it attaches to tendon

A

fusiform parallel muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What can happens in the variables of muscle roles change?

A

muscle roles may change

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

line of pull between origin and insertion of a muscle will dictate (x)

A

its action

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

properties of functional characteristics of muscle tissue

A

irritability, contractility, extensibility, elasticity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

what nerve is shown?

A

femoral nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

group of myelinated nerve fibers within the CNS that carries a specific type of information from one area to another

A

tract

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

a nerve that divides into the medial and lateral plantar nerves

A

tibial nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

What are the two major nerve fibers in the PNS

A

motor (efferent) and sensory (afferent)

157
Q

3; named accordingly to their relationship to axillary artery; formed by the joining of trunk divisions

A

cords

158
Q

muscle innervation: shoulder abductors, ER, deltoid, teres minor

A

axillary nerve

159
Q

contigous dermatomes often (x)

A

overlap

160
Q

in order to stretch a one joint muscle, you must put any two joint muscles on (x)

A

slack

161
Q

a group of nonprogressive disorders of the brain that result from damage in utero at birth or soon after birth; not always congenital; signs and symptoms vary depend on the area of brain that is damaged

A

cerebral palsy

162
Q

inflammation of tendon

A

tendonitis

163
Q

Sensory cranial nerve for smell

A

Cranial Nerve 1; olfactory

164
Q

located in the posterior portion of cranium behind pons & medulla and covered superiorly by posterior portion of cerebrum

A

cerebellum

165
Q

Why do multi joint muscles have greater contractile force and wider ROM?

A

they can maintain optimal length by shortening over one joint while lengthening over another

166
Q

fasiculus, peduncle, brachium, column, and lemniscus are

A

group of fibers (tract) names in the CNS

167
Q

what nerve is shown?

A

ulnar nerve

168
Q

motor cranial nerve VI for muscle of eye

A

Abducers

169
Q

flaccidity, marked muscle atrophy, hyporeflexia, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis, and peripheral nerve injuries

A

lower motor neuron lesion

170
Q

fibrous connective tissue which connects bone to bone

A

ligament

171
Q

has a dendrite which arises from sensory receptors located in skin, muscles, and joints and run all the way to its cell body in posterior root ganglion located in intervertebral foramen; axon travels through posterior root of spinal nerve and into spinal cord through posterior horn; axon may end at this point or may enter white matter and ascend to a different level of spinal cord or brainstem

A

sensory (afferent) neuron

172
Q

fibers tend to be longer and have a greater potential for shortening

A

parallel muscle fibers

173
Q

how to determine assisting v prime mover?

A

size, angle of pull, leverage, and contractile potential

174
Q

sensory distribution: posterior lateral leg, lateral foot

A

tibial nerve

175
Q

shortening position for a prolonged period of time without moving through full excursion; “tight muscle”

A

adaptive shortening

176
Q

motor endplate is also known as

A

axon terminal

177
Q

mixed cranial nerve with sensory of tongue area and motor of muscle of facial expressions

A

Nerve VII; facial

178
Q

motor neurons whose cell bodies are located in the cerebral cortex, brainstem, and cerebellum

A

upper motor neurons

179
Q

Sartorius, Rectus abdominus, and sternocleidomastoid muscles are

A

parallel, strap muscle

180
Q

in thoracic region, spinal nerves form the (x)

A

intercostal nerves

181
Q

Clinical motor features of paralysis: loss of elbow, wrist, finger, and thumb extension; wrist drop

A

radial nerve

182
Q

body (anterior weight-bearing portion); neural arch (posterior)

A

components of vertebra

183
Q

what spinal nerves keep a man alive?

A

C3, C4, C5

184
Q

prevents unwanted motion by contracting when a muscle can do two or more actions; allows a muscle to perform more than one role

A

neutralizer

185
Q

what nerves supply trapezius?

A

C3 and C4

186
Q

bundle of elastic tissue that has the ability to contract, producing movement, or maintaining the position of a body part

A

muscle

187
Q

network arrangement provide muscles with innervation from more than one level; 5; branches of the cords

A

peripheral nerves

188
Q

distal segment (moves); proximal segment (fixed)

A

open kinetic chain

189
Q

What are muscle groups called?

A

muscle fibers

190
Q

congenital defects in which the posterior segments of some of the verterbral fail to close during embryo development

A

spina bifida

191
Q

parallel muscle fibers:

A

strap, fusiform, triangular, rhomboidal

192
Q

a contraction that produces a change in muscle length and joint angle

A

isotonic

193
Q

bench press, row machine, stationary bike, stair stepper, weight bearing are examples of

A

closed kinetic chain

194
Q

force built up within a muscle

A

Tension

195
Q

Sensory distribution: anterior lateral surface of forearm

A

musculocutaneous nerve

196
Q

how many cranial nerves are there?

A

12 cranial nerves

197
Q

located in the posterior medial portions of spinal cord and are white matter; transmit the sensations of proprioception, pressure, and vibrations

A

posterior (dorsal) columns

198
Q

fiber branches that receive impules from other parts of the nervous system and bring those towards the cell body

A

dendrites

199
Q

muscle innervation: knee flexion and some hip extension; hamstring muscles, adductor magnus

A

sciatic nerve

200
Q

innervates the deep muscles of the back and skin covering these muscles; smaller than anterior ramus

A

posterior (dorsal) ramus

201
Q

middle of spinal cord; H shaped; contans neuronal cell bodies and synapse

A

gray matter

202
Q

muscle fibers that have many tendons with oblique fibers in between

A

multipennate oblique muscle fibers

203
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

brachioradialis; parallel, fusiform muscle

204
Q

collection of nerve roots running down from spinal cord (L2-S5)

A

cauda equina

205
Q

spinal cord segement of ulnar nerve

A

C8. T1

206
Q

sensory distribution: middle part of medial thigh

A

obturator nerve

207
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

doral interossei; oblique, bipennate muscle

208
Q

what nerve is shown?

A

radial nerve

209
Q

clinical motor features; loss of thumb opposition, flexion and abduction; “ape hand”; weakened wrist flexors (radial side) and weakened wrist radial deviation; weakened 2nd and 3rd finger flexion; pope’s blessing or hand of benediction

A

median nerve

210
Q

functional use of passive insufficiency of finger flexors and extensors; allow quadriplegics to functionally grasp objects

A

tenodesis

211
Q

motor cranial nerve dealing with muscle of tongue

A

Nerve XII; hypoglossal

212
Q

clinical motor: loss of hip adduction, weakened hip lateral rotation

A

obturator nerve

213
Q

C1-C4; innervates muscles of neck

A

Cervical Plexus

214
Q

Biceps brachii, Brachialis, and Brachioradialis are

A

parallel, fusiform muscle

215
Q

“tip position” traction injury to a baby’s upper brachial plexus; most common during childbirth; affected arm hangs in shoulder extension and IR with the elbow extended, forearm pronated, and wrist flexed

A

erb’s palsy

216
Q

Components of central nervous system

A

brain and spinal cord

217
Q

large cell body with multibranched dendrites with a long axon; cell body and dendrites are located within the anterior horn of the spinal cord

A

motor (efferent) neuron

218
Q

name the three major plexus?

A

cervical, brachial, and lumbosacral plexus

219
Q

antagonist contracts at same time as agonist; occurs when need for accuracy; common when learning new tasks

A

cocontraction

220
Q

passes through the foramen magnum of the cranium and into the vertebral foramen and ends at the conus medullarius at approximately the 2nd lumbar vertebra

A

location of spinal cord

221
Q

spasticity, minimum muscle atrophy, hyperreflexia, multiple sclerosis, and spinal cord injuries

A

upper motor neuron lesion

222
Q

requires special machine to reproduce contraction; speed remains constant but resistance varies

A

isokinetic

223
Q

myosin heads located on myosin filaments are called?

A

projections

224
Q

what are the three trunks called and what nerves are located?

A

superior trunk (C5-6); middle trunk (C7); inferior trunk (C8, T1)

225
Q
A
226
Q

clinical motor features: loss of ulnar deviation, weakened wrist and finger flexion, loss of thumb adduction, loss of most intrinsics “claw hand”

A

ulnar nerve

227
Q

caused by irritation on the sciatic nerve roots; pain radiates down the back of the leg; often caused by a herniated lumbar disc

A

sciatica

228
Q

C1-C7 nerves exit the vertebral column (x) the corresponding vertebra

A

above

229
Q

each individual muscle fibers composed of smaller bundles

A

myofibrils

230
Q

occurs when the radial nerve becomes compressed as it spirals around the mid-humerus. “when arms falls asleep”

A

saturday night palsy

231
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

Sternocleidomastoid; parallel, strap muscle

232
Q

What is the usual role with insertion and origin?

A

insertion moves towards origin

233
Q

associated with greater loss of upper limb function compared to lower limb function

A

central cord syndrome

234
Q

spinal cord segment of median nerve

A

C6. C7. C8. T1

235
Q

To increase the muscle’s force- generating capacity by:

A
  1. optimal length there is max interface between actin and myosin filaments 2. some passive tension present in the muscle
236
Q

sensory cranial nerve for hearing equilibrum

A

Nerve VIII; vestibulocochlear (auditory)

237
Q

what nerve is shown?

A

tibial nerve

238
Q

clinical motor features of paralysis: loss of shoulder abduction and weakened shoulder lateral rotation

A

axillary nerve

239
Q

how many lumbar nerves are there?

A

5 lumbar nerves (eat dinner at 5)

240
Q

consists of a series of rigid links connected in such a ways as to allow motion

A

kinetic chain

241
Q

mixed cranial nerve with sensory for face area and motor for chewing muscles

A

V; trigeminal

242
Q

stretch a muscle and it will lengthen is called?

A

extensibility

243
Q

clinical motor: loss of ankle dorsiflexion “foot drop”, loss of toe extension, loss of ankle eversion

A

common fibular (peroneal) nerve

244
Q

have origins on inferior surface of the brain; sensory, mixed, and motor neurons; 12 pairs of nerves

A

cranial nerves

245
Q

remove a stretch and it will return to normal is called?

A

elasticity

246
Q

subdivisions of autonomic nervous system

A

parasympathetic and sympathetic nervous system

247
Q

how many coccygeal nerves are there?

A

1 coccygeal nerve

248
Q

peripheral white matter and central gray matter

A

cross section of spinal cord

249
Q

sensory distribution: anterior lateral aspect of leg and foot

A

common fibular (peroneal) nerve

250
Q

What doesn’t the myelin sheath cover?

A

cell bodies and certain nerve fibers

251
Q

Spinal cord segment of axillary nerve

A

C5, C6

252
Q

anterior rami becomes this in thoracic region; innervating the anterior trunk and intercostal muscles (motor) and skin of anterior and lateral trunk (sensory)

A

intercostal nerves

253
Q

loss of intrinsic muscle of the hand due to ulnar nerve damage; the proximal phalanges are hyperextended and the middle and distal phalanges are in extreme flexion

A

claw hand

254
Q

What muscle is highlighted

A

Rectus abdominis; parallel, strap muscle

255
Q

lies between the frontal and occipital lobes; controls gross sensation such as touch and pressure; controls fine sensation such as texture, weight, size, and shape; brain activity associated with reading skills

A

parietal lobe

256
Q

a joint(s) that do not have sufficient excursion to allow it to move through combined range of all joint(s) it crosses

A

2 or more joint muscles

257
Q

what are the lobe names?

A

blue- frontal; green-temporal; yellow- parietal; red- occipital

258
Q

variables of muscle roles

A

motion being performed; direction of motion; amount of resistance the muscle must overcome

259
Q

most severe form of spina bifida; the meninges and spinal nerves come through bony defect; cause nerve damage and severe disability

A

mylemeningocele

260
Q

sensory distribution: medial 4th finger and all of 5th finger

A

ulnar nerve

261
Q

surrounds brain and made up of several bones with joints fused together for greater strength

A

skull

262
Q

spinal cord segment of radial nerve

A

C5. C6. C7. C8. T1

263
Q

What separates sarcomeres?

A

Z-lines

264
Q

what innervates the muscles of back (motor) and overlying skin (sensory)

A

posterior rami of thoracic nerves

265
Q

sensory distribution: lateral arm over lower portion of deltoid

A

axillary nerve

266
Q

involves the facial nerve (cranial nerve VII) which controls movement of facial muslces; condition usually temporary and typically affects only one side of face

A

Bell’s Palsy

267
Q

occupies anterior portion of skull; responsible for personality, motor movement, expressive speech

A

frontal lobe

268
Q

muscle innervation: elbow, wrist, finger, and thumb extensors and abductors; triceps, anconeus, brachioradialis, supinator

A

radial nerve

269
Q

clinical motor: weakened hip extension and loss of knee flexion

A

sciatic nerve

270
Q

sternocleidomastoid innervates at?

A

C2

271
Q

lies under frontal and parietal lobes just above the ear; center for behavior, hearing, language reception, and understanding

A

temporal lobe

272
Q

occurs when a muscle contracts producing fore without changing the length of muscle

A

isometric

273
Q

lower portion of H; transmits motor impulses

A

anterior horn of gray matter

274
Q

shape: rectus abdominus

A

vertical muscle in abdomen

275
Q

What are bundles of muscle groups called?

A

fascicles

276
Q

overstretching of muscle fibers and can happen with different degrees of severity

A

strain

277
Q

Rectors femoris and dorsal interossel are

A

oblique, bipennate muscle

278
Q

oblique muscle fibers:

A

unipennate, bipennate, multipennate

279
Q

where muscle meets tendon

A

musculotendinous

280
Q

iliohypogastric and ilioinguinal nerve fibers make up

A

upper branch of L1

281
Q

made up of tibial and common fibular (peroneal) nerves

A

sciatic nerve

282
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

deltoids; oblique, multipennate muscle

283
Q

more stable bone

A

origin

284
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

pectoralis major; parallel, triangular muscle

285
Q

What are the muscle fiber arrangements and name?

A
  1. parallel; fusiform
  2. parallel; strap
  3. parallel; triangular
  4. oblique; unipennate
  5. oblique; bipennate
  6. oblique; multipennate
  7. circular
286
Q

genitofemoral nerve makes up

A

lower branch of L1 and upper branch of L2

287
Q

with the exception of T1, all thoracic nerves maintain their???

A

segmental relationship and do not join with the other nerves

288
Q

sensory cranial nerve for vision

A

Cranial nerve II; optic

289
Q

most caudal/inferior portion of brainstem; continous with spinal cord; center for autonomic control for respiration and heart rate

A

medulla oblongata

290
Q

L1-L4; innervates most of muscles of thigh

A

lumbar plexus

291
Q

what are the functions of cerebellum?

A

muscle coordination, tone, and posture

292
Q

located just outside the sponal cord in area of the intervertebral foramen

A

anterior root

293
Q

location: tibialis anterior

A

anterior surface to tibia

294
Q

characterized by breaking down of the myelin sheath around axons; interfere with normal nerve transmission; lesions or scars of brain and spinal cord

A

multiple sclerosis

295
Q

wrist, mcp, pip, dip are

A

joints finger flexors and extensors cross

296
Q

motor cranial nerve dealing with sternocleidomastoid and trapezius muscle

A

Nerve XI; spinal acessory

297
Q

formed by anterior rami of L1-S3

A

lumbosacral plexus

298
Q

muscle that performs the opposite motion of agonist

A

antagonist

299
Q

origin and insertion move apart; movement occurs in direction of force; occurs during a deceleration activity with gravity

A

eccentric

300
Q

formed by anterior division of the superior and middle trunk

A

lateral cord

301
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

tibialis posterior; oblique, unipennate muscle

302
Q

outer coating that is many layers deep; each cerebral hemishpere has one

A

cortex

303
Q

muscle or muscle group that supports or makes firm; allowing agonist to work more efficiently

A

stabilizer

304
Q

main function of cerebrospinal function?

A

shock absorption

305
Q

hereditary and progressive disease of muscle tissue; characterized by weakness of proximal muscles followd by progressive involvement of distal muscles

A

muscular dystrophy

306
Q

stimulate a muscle and it will respond (x), by generating force (y) then remove stimulus and it will return to normal (z)

A

x- irritability y-contractility z- elasticity

307
Q

in the thoracic level, muscle must receive innervation….??

A

at each spinal level

308
Q

label the bones of the skull

A
  1. parietal bone
  2. zygomatic bone
  3. frontal bone
  4. sphenoid bone
  5. maxillary bone
  6. parietal bone
  7. occipital bone
  8. temporal bone
309
Q

originates from posterior divisons of all three trunks

A

posterior cord

310
Q

more movable bone

A

insertion

311
Q

innervates all muscle and skin areas are not innervated by posterior ramus

A

anterior (ventral) ramus

312
Q

components of central nervous system

A

brain and spinal cord

313
Q

cerebral anterior circle; failure of one of the major arteries within the circle doesn’t seriously decrease blood flow to region supplied by that artery

A

circle of willis

314
Q

three types of muscle contractions

A

isometric, isotonic, isokinetic

315
Q

fibrous connective tissue that connect muscle to bone

A

tendon

316
Q

Pectoralis major and trapezius are

A

parallel, triangular muscle

317
Q

sensory distribution: none

A

sciatic nerve

318
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

biceps brachii; parallel, fusiform muscle

319
Q

assisting to provide motion

A

assisting mover

320
Q

spinal segment of tibial nerve

A

L4, L5, S1, S2, S3

321
Q

located between midbrain and medulla

A

pons

322
Q

how many sacral nerves are there?

A

5 sacral nerves

323
Q

What type of joint is when the excursion of the muscle is less than the combined range allowed by joints?

A

multijoint muscles

324
Q

breaks in the myelin sheath every half millimeter

A

nodes of ranvier

325
Q

produces cerebrospinal fluid; capillary network located in each of four ventricles within the brain

A

choroid plexus

326
Q

what are the 3 basic levels of protection for brain and spinal cord?

A

bony, membranous, and fluid

327
Q

muscle’s ability to stretch or lengthen when the force is applied

A

extensibility

328
Q

center for visual reflexes; located in the upper portion of brainstem and below cerebrum

A

midbrain

329
Q

the distance a muscle goes from max length to max shortening

A

excursion

330
Q

myelinated fibers; includes the major tracts within the spinal chord and fiber systems such as internal capsule within the brain

A

white matter

331
Q

irreversible progressive brain disorder causing dementia and loss of cognitive function; destroys a person’s ability to function

A

alzheimer’s disease

332
Q

muscle’s ability to recoil or return to normal resting length when stretching or shortening force is removed

A

elasticity

333
Q

surrounds gray matter; contains ascending (sensory) and descending (motor) fiber pathways

A

white matter of spinal cord

334
Q

what happens if an injury only involves to one spinal nerve?

A

sensation will be decrease or altered but it will not be absent

335
Q

what nerves supply levator scapula??

A

C3-5

336
Q

hip adductors are innervated?

A

L2 and L3

337
Q

what chain is being on the treadmill?

A

both okc and ckc

338
Q

innervation of the shoulder abductors and elbow flexors reemain intract allowing increased function of upper extremities occur?

A

C5

339
Q

what would happen if an SCI occured at C3 or above?

A

diaphragm would not be able to function and unable to breath without resistance

340
Q

spinal nerve almost immediately spilt into (x) and (y)

A

posterior (dorsal) and anterior (ventral) rami

341
Q

except for thoracic nerves, the anterior rami of the spinal nerves will join together and/or branch out forming a network

A

plexus

342
Q

action: extensor carpi ulnaris

A

extends the wrist (carpi) and attaches on ulnar side

343
Q

muscle fibers obliquely attached to both sides of central tendon

A

bipennate oblique muscle fibers

344
Q

how many muscles take innervation from more than one spinal level?

A

almost all

345
Q

muscle innervation: ankle plantar flexors (gastronemius and soleus), foot intrinsics (tibialis posterior, flexor digitorum longus, flexor hallucis longust), foot intrinsics (medial and lateral plantar)

A

tibial nerve

346
Q

how many cervical nerves are there?

A

8 cranial nerves (eat breakfast at 8am)

347
Q

compression of the medial nerve as it passes through the carpal tunnel; results in paresthesias and pain in hand

A

carpal tunnel syndrome

348
Q

the roles of muscles?

A

agonist, antagonist, stabilizer, neutralizer

349
Q

motor neurons whose cell bodies are located in anterior horn

A

lower motor neuron

350
Q

occurs when the injury affects the anterior spinal tracts

A

anterior cord syndrome

351
Q

abdominal muscles receive innervation from?

A

lower thoracic muscles

352
Q

two types of isotonic muscle contractions

A

concentric and eccentric

353
Q

occurs when an injury to the long thoracic nerve weakens or paralyzes the serratus anterior muscle, causing the medial border of scapula to rise away from rib cage

A

scapular winging

354
Q

C8 exits (x) the C7 vertebra and (y) the T1 vertebra

A

x- under

y-over

355
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

Semimembranosus; oblique, unipennate muscle

356
Q

conductor of impulses from a neuron

A

nerve fiber

357
Q

located within the brain and filled with cerebrospinal fluid; 4 small cavities containing a capillary network that produces cerebrospinal fluid

A

ventricles

358
Q

sensory distribution: palmar aspect of thumb; 2nd, 3rd, 4th (radial half) fingers

A

median nerves

359
Q

What happens when muscles are stretched too far?

A

myosin heads that cannot reach a binding site on the actin filaments and cannot contribute to production of force

360
Q

muscle can be stretched (x) normal resting length

A

1.5times

361
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

Sartorius; parallel, strap muscle

362
Q

passageway for the spinal cord is surrounded and protected by the bony structures of each individual vertebrae; opening between the body and neural arch of vertebra

A

vertebral foramen

363
Q

what nerve is shown?

A

obturator nerve

364
Q

hyperirritable points within a tight band of muscle that refer pain to other areas of body when they’re active or when palpated; found in overworked muscle

A

trigger points

365
Q

muscle is capable of being shortened to approx (x) of normal resting length

A

half

366
Q
A
367
Q

flat and fan-shaped with fibers radiating from a narrow attachment at one end to a broad attachment at other end

A

triangular parallel muscle fibers

368
Q

Components of peripheral nervous system

A

nerves outside the spinal cord

369
Q

What muscle is highlighted?

A

brachialis; parallel, fusiform muscle

370
Q

can occur following a stretch or compression injury to the brachial plexus from a blow to head or shoulders; Symptoms: immediate burning pain, prickly paresthesia, numbness, and brief paralysis of arm

A

burner/stinger syndrome

371
Q

spinal cord segment of obturator nerve

A

L2, L3, L4

372
Q

what are the 5 roots of the brachial plexus?

A

C5. C6. C7. C8. T1

373
Q

small gap between neuron involving very complex physiological actions

A

synapse

374
Q

long and thin fibers running the entire length of a muscle

A

strap parallel muscle fibers

375
Q

occurs when the ulnar nerve crosses the medial border of the elbow as the nerve runs through a bony passageway called cubital tunnel; hitting your funny bone compresses the ulnar nerve

A

cubital tunnel syndrome

376
Q

spinal cord segment of femoral nerve

A

L2. L3. L4

377
Q

poor posture often results in a muscle being in a chronically overstretched (lengthened) state where it adopts an abnormally long resting length ; chronic overstretch where there is a decrease in the overlap of actin and myosin

A

adaptive lengthening

378
Q

how long is the spinal cord?

A

approx 17”

379
Q
A
380
Q

when origin moves towards the insertion, what is the action?

A

reverse muscle action

381
Q

extreme point of permanent shortening

A

contracture

382
Q

what is the spinal cord protected by?

A

meninges, cerebrospinal fluid, dura mater, arachnoid, and pia mater

383
Q

“hard mother”; thickest, most fibrous tough outer layer

A

dura mater

384
Q

origin and insertion move closer together; movement occurs against the direction of force; acceleration activity; shortening motion against gravity

A

concentric

385
Q

distal segment (fixed); proximal segment (moves)

A

closed kinetic chain

386
Q

threadlike, nonneural filament that runs from the conus medullaris and attaches to the coccyx

A

filum terminale

387
Q

significant to muscle control and is located lateral to posterior horn; synapse in the anterior horn just prior to leaving the spinal cord; runs from the motor area of the cerebral cortex to spinal cord and crossing over at the level of lower part of brainstem

A

corticospinal tract

388
Q
A